Biology I Study Guide Questions
Course Introduction
Biology I is an introductory course that explores the fundamental principles of life and living organisms. Topics covered include cell structure and function, genetics, evolution, biological diversity, ecology, and the basic processes that sustain life. Through lectures, laboratory exercises, and discussions, students gain a foundational understanding of biological concepts, scientific inquiry, and the role of biology in addressing real-world problems. This course is designed to prepare students for more advanced studies in biological sciences and related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Biology 9th Edition by Peter Raven George B. Johnson
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Chapter 1: The Science of Biology
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Q1) A critical requirement of Darwin's theory is
A)an uncontrolled growth in all species.
B)that the earth is relatively young.
C)all individuals of any given species be identical.
D)genetic variation is possible in nature.
E)all species are made at the same timE.
Answer: D
Q2) Darwin described which of the following as "those individuals that possess superior physical,behavioral,or other attributes are more likely to survive than those that are not so well endowed," and thus more likely to pass their traits to the next generation?
A)biological diversity
B)geometric progression
C)natural selection
D)superior beings
E)survival of modifications
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: The Nature of Molecules
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Q1) All atoms tend to fill their outer energy levels with the maximum number of electrons,usually eight.Depending on whether the atoms satisfy this simple octet rule or not will allow the prediction of
A)chemical behavior of the atoms.
B)whether they will be found in nature.
C)whether they will dissolve in water.
D)their radioactive energy.
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following is not one of the four most abundant (more than 99%)atoms found in living things?
A)carbon
B)hydrogen
C)nitrogen
D)oxygen
E)phosphorus
Answer: E
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Chapter 3: The Chemical Building Blocks of Life
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Q1) The specific amino acid sequence in a protein is its
A)zero order structure.
B)primary structure.
C)secondary structure.
D)tertiary structure.
E)quaternary structurE.
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following macromolecules are characteristically water-insoluble?
A)proteins
B)nucleic acids
C)carbohydrates
D)lipids
E)enzymes
Answer: D
Q3) Carbohydrates are created with
A)phosphodiester bonds
B)peptide bonds
C)a phosphate and two fatty acids bonded to glycerol
D)sugar polymers
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Cell Structure
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Q1) The eukaryotic organelle that is directly involved in the transport of proteins synthesized on the surface of the rough ER is called A)mitochondriA.
B)vacuole.
C)cytoskeleton.
D)Golgi complex.
E)nucleus.
Q2) The distinctive feature of chloroplasts is that they contain a green pigment called A)Gram stain.
B)chlorophyll.
C)hemoglobin.
D)chromatin.
E)keratin.
Q3) Who first described cells?
A)Darwin
B)Golgi
C)Linnaeus
D)Hooke
E)Leeuwenhoek
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Membranes
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Q1) One day during the summer you and some friends made ice cream using an electric ice cream maker.A few days later you noticed a yellow circle of dead grass where the ice cream freezer had been placed.What happened?
A)The ice and salt mixture that spilled out when the freezer was moved froze the grass.
B)The grass was frost bitten by the ice and salt mixture that spilled out when the freezer was moved.
C)The ice and salt mixture was isosmotic to the grass cells and caused the yellow circle of dead grass.
D)The ice and salt mixture was hyperosmotic to the grass cells and caused the yellow circle of dead grass.
E)The ice and salt mixture was hypoosmotic to the grass cells and caused the yellow circle of dead grass.
Q2) Which of the following does not influence membrane fluidity?
A)a decrease in temperature
B)the addition of cholesterol
C)hydrogen bonding of water holding the membrane together
D)introduction of double bonds into fatty acids
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Energy and Metabolism
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Q1) Which of the following best depicts a diagram of enzymes and substrates when they react? Assume only forward reactions.Use the following to make your choice: E = enzyme,S = substrate,ES = enzyme-substrate complex,P = products.
A)E + P \(\rarr\) ES
B)E + S \(\rarr\) ES + P
C)E + S \(\rarr\) ES \(\rarr\) E + P
D)E + ES \(\rarr\) P + E
E)E + P \(\rarr\) EP \(\rarr\) S + E
Q2) As energy is being reconverted through the many forms,it is continuously lost as A)electricity.
B)light.
C)sound.
D)heat.
E)chemical energy.
Q3) One of the most important coenzymes that accepts electrons/hydrogens is A)NAD<sup>+</sup>.
B)NADH.
C)ATP.
D)NADPH.
E)ribozymE.
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Chapter 7: How Cells Harvest Energy
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Q1) In muscle cells,fermentation produces not alcohol but A)ATP.
B)NADH.
C)pyruvate.
D)kinetic energy.
E)lactic acid.
Q2) The energy released in the mitochondrial electron transport chain is used to transport protons into the A)matrix.
B)cytoplasm.
C)ER.
D)inter-membrane space of mitochondria.
E)enzyme complex of the Krebs cyclE.
Q3) What type of cell respiration occurs when an organic molecule accepts hydrogen atoms?
A)aerobic respiration
B)anaerobic respiration
C)fermentation
D)catabolism
E)digestion
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Chapter 8: Photosynthesis
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Q1) The cyclic carbon fixation reactions are also known as the A)Krebs cycle.
B)Calvin cycle.
C)citric acid cycle.
D)tri carboxylic acid cycle.
E)Blackman cyclE.
Q2) In eukaryotes,photosynthesis takes place inside the _________.
A)chloroplasts
B)mitochondria
C)cytoplasm
D)Golgi apparatus
Q3) A scientist is hoping to synthesize a new herbicide that will kill certain weeds.She has found that one weed species in particular has thylakoids that have rather large pores.The herbicide will open the pores of these thylakoids,causing them to leak
A)stromal enzymes.
B)chlorophyll.
C)ATP.
D)glucose.
E)NADPH.
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Cell Communication
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Q1) Chemically-gated ion channels are receptor proteins through which ions pass.A cell biologist has blocked these channels in a lab rat's liver tissue by using a chemical that A)prohibits binding of a signal molecule.
B)prohibits ions from entering the cell via active transport.
C)causes ions to move in the opposite direction of the ion gradient.
D)prohibits second messenger signaling.
Q2) The class of cell surface receptors that acts indirectly on plasma membrane-bound enzymes or ion channels is called
A)G-protein-coupled receptors.
B)gated ion channels.
C)enzymatic receptors.
D)second messenger receptors.
Q3) The space into which neurotransmitters are released is called a chemical A)synapse.
B)junction.
C)channel.
D)desmosome.
E)vesiclE.
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11
Chapter 10: How Cells Divide
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Q1) Duplicate copy of the hereditary information is made.
A)G<sub>1</sub>
B)S
C)G<sub>2</sub>
D)M
E)C
Q2) The progress of mitosis is regulated by ______ and their dependent kinases.
A)hormones
B)chromosomes
C)cyclins
D)paracrine signaling
Q3) As a doctor,you are examining a patient who recently experienced some liver damage as a side effect of the medication that she was taking for an unrelated medical condition.You explain to her that the liver problem may take some time to resolve as certain liver cells have a cell cycle of about
A)24 hours.
B)6 weeks.
C)6 months.
D)1 year.
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Chapter 11: Sexual Reproduction and Meiosis
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Q1) A reproductive biologist is examining reproductive cells at the end of meiosis I.She notices that each of the two resulting cells are haploid.She also knows that meiosis II will produce haploid cells.How can her observations be explained?
A)There must be an error and she needs to refocus her microscope and look again.
B)The cells that resulted from meiosis I are in fact haploid,but are composed of two sister chromatids.The sister chromatids will be pulled apart during meiosis II,producing haploid gametes.
C)The cells that resulted from meiosis I are in fact diploid and this explains her observational error and also her knowledge of the meiosis II resulting in haploid cells.
D)The cells that resulted from meiosis I are in fact haploid,but her knowledge of the result of meiosis II is not accurate,at least for this particular cell type.
E)The cells that she observed are abnormal and will require further observations.
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Chapter 12: Patterns of Inheritance
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Q1) Height and eye colors are two examples of continuous variation in humans.Whereas in pea plants the tall allele is dominant over the short allele,there are no intermediate heights in peas.Which of the following is the best explanation for the differences described above?
A)Humans are more advanced than pea plants;thus,the genetics of peas is much simpler than humans.
B)The intermediate size pea plant seeds are aborted within the seedpod and thus will never develop.
C)The intermediate size pea plant seeds have deleterious alleles that prevent them from germinating.
D)Many genes,rather than one gene for a characteristic,control some variations in species.
E)These variations in humans are affected by lack of dominance in the alleles that control these traits.
Q2) The totality of the alleles present in an organism.
A)genotype
B)heterozygote
C)homozygote
D)phenotype
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Chapter 13: Chromosomes Mapping and the Meiosis -
Inheritance Connection
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Q1) In humans,the male has an X and Y sex chromosome.The human female has two X chromosomes.In birds,the female has a Z and a W sex chromosome while the male has two Z chromosomes.Which of the following statements is accurate about which parent controls the gender of the offspring?
A)In humans and birds the male controls the gender of all the offspring.
B)In humans and birds the female controls the gender of all the offspring.
C)In humans the male controls the gender of the offspring,and in birds the female controls the gender.
D)In humans the female controls the gender of the offspring,and in birds the male controls the gender.
E)Control of the gender of any human or bird offspring is related to the environmental conditions at the time of conception.
Q2) Which of the following will help you distinguish between the two final suspects?
A)single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs)
B)human genetic map
C)linkage data
D)anonymous markers
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Chapter 14: Dna: the Genetic Material
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Q1) Why does DNA pol I carry the number one when it is not the polymerase responsible for the bulk of DNA synthesis?
A)DNA pol I was the first polymerase isolated from
B)DNA pol I is the first polymerase to be activated during DNA replication.
C)DNA pol I is the only polymerase that has both 3' to 5' and 5' to 3' exonuclease activity.
D)DNA pol I is the smallest polymerase.
E)coli.
Q2) The two strands in the DNA molecule contain nitrogen bases which are A)identical.
B)parallel.
C)complementary.
D)the same in all species.
E)exact copies of the protein they makE.
Q3) The replisome has two main subcomponents.They are
A)the replication folk and the sliding clamp subunit.
B)the primosome and the sliding clamp subunit.
C)the replication folk and the DNA pol III enzymes.
D)the DNA pol III enzymes and the sliding clamp subunits.
E)the primosome and a complex of two DNA pol III enzymes.
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Chapter 15: Genes and How They Work
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Q1) You are working to characterize a novel protein in mice.Characterization of the mRNA expression pattern revealed that the gene is highly expressed in brain,muscle,liver,and pancreas.To determine the size of the corresponding protein,you make protein extracts from each of the tissues.Using an antibody that recognizes the C-terminal portion of the protein,you perform an analysis that allows you to visualize the extracted protein.Interestingly,you can detect the protein in brain,muscle,and liver,but not the pancreas.Assuming your extracts and reagents are good,and there is no human error,what is the most likely explanation for this result?
A)Transcription levels in pancreas are too low.
B)Translation levels in pancreas are too low.
C)Alternative splicing in the pancreas leads to protein degradation.
D)Alternative splicing in the pancreas yields a protein missing the portion of the protein to which the antibody was raiseD.
Q2) The 3' Poly-A tail is attached to
A)the Poly-A polymerase enzyme.
B)the mRNA.
C)the tRNA.
D)the coding strand of the DNA molecule.
E)the template strand of the DNA moleculE.
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Chapter 16: Control of Gene Expression
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Q1) A nucleosome contains ____ histones within its core.
A)2
B)4
C)6
D)8
E)64
Q2) Histones are tightly packed into ______,which are located within the DNA.
A)operons
B)nucleosomes
C)clusters of proteins
D)repressor genes
E)facilitators sites
Q3) The p300/CBP (CREB-binding protein)coactivator proteins are histone acetyltransferases that help regulate the transcription of many genes.Based on this information,these proteins are involved in
A)DNA acetylation.
B)chromatin remodeling.
C)recruitment of RNA pol II.
D)formation of the transcription initiation complex.
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Biotechnology
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Q1) A ______ vaccine is produced by using only a part of the viral genome.
A)immunization
B)subunit
C)bacterial
D)prokaryotic
Q2) To generate a transgenic mouse,one would
A)introduce the knocked-out gene into a blastocyst embryo,isolate the embryonic stem cells,implant the embryonic stem cells into a pseudopregnant female.
B)introduce the knocked-out gene into embryonic stem cells,isolate the cells from a pseudopregnant female,inject the transformed cells into a blastocyst stage embryo.
C)introduce the knocked-out gene into embryonic stem cells,implant the embryonic stem cells into a pseudopregnant female.
D)introduce the knocked-out gene into embryonic stem cells,inject the embryonic stem cells into a blastocyst stage embryo,implant the injected blastocyst into a pseudopregnant female.
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Chapter 18: Genomics
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Q1) ______ maps are generated using actual landmarks within DNA sequences.
A)Genetic
B)DNA
C)Physical
D)Chromosomal
Q2) _________ is another term used to describe genome science.
A)Genomics
B)Proteomics
C)Chromosomics
D)Dianetics
Q3) Sequences of DNA assembled by identifying overlaps among smaller DNA segments are known as
A)single strand polymorphisms.
B)synteny.
C)draft sequences.
D)proteone.
E)contig.
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Chapter 19: Cellular Mechanisms of Development
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Q1) There are cases,particularly in fruit flies,in which a perfectly normal body part grows in an area where it should not grow.Extra pairs of wings and legs growing in the antennae location are some examples.Select the statement that best describes this phenomenon.
A)These mutations occur as a result of specialized development called determination in which the gene determining a specific factor will become totipotent.
B)These mutations occur as a result of differentiation of these tissues at the incorrect time during development,which causes a mix-up in signals and protein production in those tissues.
C)These mutations occur as a result of homeotic gene mutations.
D)These mutations occur as a result of gap gene mutations.
Q2) Cells that die of injury usually swell and then burst.Their contents are released into the extracellular fluid.This form of cell death is referred to as A)apoptosis. B)necrosis. C)totipotency. D)induction.
E)encoded death.
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Chapter 20: Genes Within Populations
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Q1) In disruptive selection,over time
A)a population goes extinct.
B)the most extreme outliers of a population are eliminated (e.g. ,the largest beaks and smallest beaks are eliminated).
C)the population is strongly selected for in one direction (e.g. ,larger beak size).
D)the population is strongly selected for in two directions (e.g. ,larger beak size and smaller beak size).
E)a population increases its variation (E.g. ,a wide selection of all beak sizes).
Q2) Migration and hybridization between individuals of adjacent populations causes gene _______.
A)blending
B)flow
C)mutation
D)dominance
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Chapter 21: The Evidence for Evolution
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Q1) The half-life of carbon-14 is 5,600 years.A fossil that has one-eighth the normal proportion of carbon-14 to carbon-12 is probably
A)2,800 years old.
B)5,600 years old.
C)11,200 years old.
D)16,800 years olD.
E)22,400 years old.
Q2) Which statement best describes the correlation between beak depths of Geospiza fortis on the Galápagos island Daphne major and the dryness of the environment?
A)Birds with large beaks are favored during wet years.
B)Birds with small beaks are favored in dry years.
C)Birds with large beaks are favored during dry years.
D)Birds with either size beak (large or small)are favored equally.
Q3) In studying the medium ground finch on Daphne Major,the Grants noted that each generation of finches had beaks:
A)best suited for their parents' environment.
B)best suited for their current environment.
C)smaller than those of the previous generation.
D)larger than those of the previous generation.
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Page 23
Chapter 22: The Origin of Species
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Q1) The process by which related species become more different in order to reduce competition is called ___________ __________.
Q2) Lake Victoria is famous for its variety of cichlid fishes.In fact,they offer the most diverse assembly of vertebrates presently known to science.One trait that scientists have focused on,as one possible reason for their adaptability is
A)a second set of scales that lie beneath the top outermost scales.
B)a second set of jaws in their throats.
C)gill arches that are not covered by an operculum,which prevents hiding places for gill parasites.
D)digestive tracts that are able to process most substrates,which has eliminated the need for feeding specialization.
E)ability to change color in relationship to their environment.
Q3) Natural selection promotes speciation by all of the following except
A)strengthening isolating mechanisms.
B)restricting gene flow.
C)character displacement.
D)promoting polyploidy.
E)affecting the survivorship of hybrids.
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Chapter 23: Systematics and the Phylogenetic Revolution
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Q1) The table shows the distribution of traits (A-E)in six extant species (1-6).A "0" indicates the ancestral condition;a "1" is the derived condition.Construct a cladogram from these data.Based on this cladogram,which pair of species diverged most recently?
A)1 and 4
B)2 and 3
C)2 and 4
D)6 and 4
E)6 and 5
Q2) The table shows the distribution of traits (A-E)in six extant species (1-6).A "0" indicates the ancestral condition;a "1" is the derived condition.Construct a cladogram from these data.For the species shown,which trait is represented by the greatest number of plesiomorphies?
A)A
B)B
C)C
D)D
E)E
Q3) The principle of ______________ favors the hypothesis that requires the fewest assumptions.
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Chapter 24: Genome Evolution
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Q1) Gene swapping between different species,far more prevalent earlier in the history of life than now,is referred to as _________________ gene transfer.
Q2) Some of the olfactory receptor (OR)genes in humans
A)have mutated dramatically away from the same genes in other primates.
B)have been inactivated,reducing our olfactory capabilities compared to other primates.
C)have been activated,enhancing our olfactory sense compared to other primates. D)have duplicated more frequently,resulting in increased paralogs compared to other primates.
E)have been conserved more rigidly,resulting in increased orthologs compared to other primates.
Q3) Over long sequences within a chromosome
A)human and mouse DNA is dramatically different in base pair arrangement.
B)the linear order of genes is amazingly different,they have transposed.
C)the linear order of genes is amazingly different,they have reversed.
D)the linear order of genes is the same,indicating conservation of synteny.
E)the linear order of genes is the same,indicating conservation of neoteny.
Q4) Two genes within an organism that arose from the duplication of a single gene in an ancestor are _________________.
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Chapter 25: Evolution of Development
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Q1) The evolution of flower symmetry is best explained by
A)a new gene mutation.
B)the co-option of an existing gene for a new function.
C)homoplastic convergence.
D)gene duplication and divergence.
E)conserved genes.
Q2) Which of the following statements about the early evolution of flower development is false?
A)A MADS box gene duplicated to give rise to genes paleoAP3 and PI.
B)Stamen development is controlled by the genes paleoAP3 and PI.
C)paleoAP3 duplicated to form AP3 and an AP3 duplicate gene.
D)With the duplication of paleoAP3,AP3 gained a role in stamen development.
E)AP3 with a role in petal development is a derived character in the eudicots.
Q3) Eyes in mammals and _____________ are examples of convergent evolution.
A)eyespots in butterflies
B)compound eyes in fruit flies
C)eyes in great apes
D)eyes in fish
Q4) A major paradox of development is how highly _________________ genes can produce diverse morphologies.
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Chapter 26: The Tree of Life
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Q1) The Swedish biologist,________,developed a simpler two-part (binomial)naming system for organisms.
Q2) The characteristics of life include all of the following except A)complexity.
B)homeostasis.
C)multicellularity.
D)sensitivity to environment.
E)heredity.
Q3) Endosymbiotic relationships between prokaryotes evolved into more complex cell types called ________,which possessed nuclear membranes and membrane-bound organelles.
Q4) Pinus in the scientific name Pinus ponderosa is the A)phylum. B)class.
C)family. D)genus. E)species.
Q5) The highest (most inclusive)unit of biological classification is called ________________.
Q6) The names of genera were the basic point of reference in _____________ systems.
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Chapter 27: Viruses
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Q1) The HIV virus is considered a(n)______ virus,because after getting integrated into the host cell chromosomes,it does not begin replicating immediately.
A)phage
B)latent
C)transforming
D)benign
E)inducible
Q2) The SARS virus is a completely new form of _______ _________.
Q3) All of the following are true of viroids except
A)they are tiny,naked molecules of RNA.
B)they are a few hundred nucleotides long.
C)viroid nucleotide sequences resemble intron sequences in ribosomal RNA genes.
D)they are causative agents of plant diseases.
E)they are tiny,naked molecules DNA and proteins.
Q4) Which of the following would not be a component of a newly produced HIV virus?
A)protein capsid
B)RNA
C)reverse transcriptase
D)viral envelope
E)complementary DNA
Page 29
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Chapter 28: Prokaryotes
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Q1) You expose a tube of bacteria to ultraviolet radiation to induce mutations.You then spread the bacteria on a plate containing media with all know required nutrients and wait until separate colonies form.Finally,you use replicate plating to transfer a print of this plate to an additional sterile plate containing minimal media plus a known required nutrient for the bacteria.Based on this protocol,colonies growing on the plate lacking a required nutrient would include what type of cells?
A)only wild-type bacteria
B)only bacteria mutant for the supplied nutrient
C)only mutant bacteria but not those mutant for the supplied nutrient
D)wild-type bacteria and bacteria mutant for the supplied nutrient
E)wild-type bacteria and all mutant bacteria except those mutant for the supplied nutrient
Q2) Some prokaryotes attach to other substrates by hairlike outgrowths,which are shorter than flagella.These are called
A)endospores.
B)flagellin.
C)pili.
D)plasmids.
E)fission products.
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Page 30
Chapter 29: Protists
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Q1) Individual organisms move through the soil or other substrate to ingest bacteria,etc. ,till a certain phase of their life cycle,when they aggregate into a single moving mass,which ultimately becomes encysted into spores.These organisms are
A)green algae.
B)brown algae.
C)red algae.
D)cellular slime molds.
E)dinoflagellates.
Q2) According to the theory for the endosymbiotic origin of mitochondria,the outer membrane of the mitochondrion was derived from an
A)engulfing ancestral eukaryotic cell.
B)engulfed aerobic prokaryotic cell.
C)engulfed anaerobic prokaryotic cell.
D)infoldings of the ancestral eukaryotic cell.
E)engulfed aerobic eukaryotic cell.
Q3) Typical asexually reproducing protists can reproduce ________ in times of stress.
Q4) Protists move chiefly by either flagellar rotation or by cytoplasmic streaming called ______________ movement.
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Page 31
Chapter 30: Overview of Green Plants
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not true about ferns?
A)Their gametophytes and sporophytes are both photosynthetic.
B)Their sporophytes are much smaller than the gametophytes.
C)Their underground stem is called a rhizome.
D)Their leaves are called fronds.
E)Clustered,stalked sporangia called sori arise on the backs of the fronds.
Q2) Select the best answer to complete the following statement.Stomata are openings used by plants for the passage of
A)only oxygen and carbon dioxide.
B)only carbon dioxide and pollen.
C)only carbon dioxide and water vapor.
D)carbon dioxide,oxygen,and water vapor.
E)only carbon dioxide and spores or gametes.
Q3) Which one of the following statements about haplodiplontic life cycles is false?
A)For each gene,cells of the gametophyte stage have a single allele.
B)Spore mother cells produce haploid spores by meiosis.
C)The gametophyte stage produces gametes by mitosis.
D)The zygote is the only diploid cell in the sporophyte stage.
E)Mitosis occurs in both sporophyte and gametophyte stages.
Q4) In plants,the sporophyte generation produces _______ as a result of meiosis.
Page 32
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Chapter 31: Fungi
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Q1) Arbuscular mycorrhizae are characterized by all of the following features except A)most common mycorrhizal type.
B)fungal hyphae penetrate plant root cells.
C)seen in earliest vascular plant fossils.
D)fungus can associate with several species of plants.
E)fungal component is a glomeromycetE.
Q2) A scientist discovers a fungus living within a healthy plant.The fungus produces a substance toxic to herbivores.This fungus is considered A)an ectomycorrhizae.
B)mutualistic.
C)an endophyte.
D)parasitic.
E)a mutualistic endophytE.
Q3) Fungi can be characterized by all of the following properties except A)being heterotrophic.
B)having filamentous bodies.
C)having nonmotile sperm.
D)having chitin cell walls and mitosis taking place within the nucleus.
E)reproducing only sexually.
Q4) Fungi,together with bacteria are the principal _________ in the biosphere.
Page 33
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Chapter 32: Overview of Animal Diversity
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Q1) Which one of the following statements about molecular systematics and its role in the classification of animals is false?
A)Clades consist of monophyletic taxa sharing the same gene sequences.
B)Different molecules sometimes support different taxonomic relationships.
C)Molecular data suggests that arthropods and annelids are part of the same clade.
D)Molecular data suggests that a new group of "molting" animals,the Ecdysozoa,is monophyletic.
E)Combining data from many different molecules gives the best picture of phylogenetic relationships.
Q2) Eumetazoa can be subdivided into two principal branches based on _____.
Q3) Which one of the following terms applies to the phylum Cnidaria?
A)radial symmetry
B)pseudocoelomate
C)Parazoa
D)triploblastic
E)protostome
Q4) Animals are multicellular heterotrophs and obtain their food by ________.
Q5) The process in which a definite head and brain evolves is called ________.
Q6) Animals with a body cavity located between the mesoderm and endoderm are ______.
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Chapter 33: Noncoelomate Invertebrates
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Q1) Which one of the following is not true about Porifera?
A)they lack tissues
B)most members of this phylum lack symmetry
C)they remain nonsessile throughout their entire life cycle
D)defend themselves by producing chemicals that repel potential predators
E)if cells are separated,they will seek one another out and reassemble the entire sponge
Q2) Sponges;lack tissue organization.
A)Cnidaria
B)Nematoda
C)Platyhelminthes
D)Porifera
E)Ctenophora
Q3) All of the following statements about Cnidaria are correct with the exception of
A)Cnidarians can have two body forms,polyp and medusA.
B)Cnidarians are triploblastic,having ectoderm,mesoderm,and endoderm.
C)Cnidarians have radical symmetry.
D)Cnidarians do not have circulatory,respiratory,or excretory systems.
E)Cnidarians have specialized cells called cnidocytes with nematocysts insidE.
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35
Chapter 34: Coelomate Invertebrates
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Q1) A marine biologist makes a presentation about crustaceans to your biology class.He explains that he has recently received an NSF grant to study sessile crustaceans.You are only aware of one group of sessile crustaceans.This crustacean must be A)a lobster.
B)a crayfish.
C)a shrimp.
D)a barnacle.
E)the nauplius.
Q2) Annelids are characterized by serial _________.
Q3) Oxygen diffuses to the tissues of terrestrial arthropods through the A)arteries.
B)cells of the cortex.
C)circulatory system.
D)lungs.
E)trachea and tracheoles.
Q4) Brachiopods develop as protostomes,but they show ______ cleavage.
Q5) A _________ is a circular or U-shaped ridge around the mouth,bearing either one or two rows of ciliated,hollow tentacles.
Q6) The molluscan class ________ includes the snails and slugs.
Page 36
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Chapter 35: Vertebrates
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Q1) Amphibians are thought to have evolved from A)ray-finned fish.
B)lobe-finned fish.
C)spiny fish.
D)skates and rays.
E)annelids.
Q2) Birds are different from reptiles in all of the following features except A)endothermy.
B)their lack of teeth.
C)the presence of feathers.
D)the presence of a flight skeleton.
E)bipedalism.
Q3) Mammals are thought to have evolved from A)thecodonts.
B)therapsids.
C)dinosaurs.
D)marsupials.
E)archosaurs.
Q4) The material of which the skeleton of Chondrichthyes is composed is _______.
Q5) The first hominids to evolve were _______.
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Chapter 36: Plant Form
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Q1) You go to a fancy restaurant and ask for some petioles on your salad.What does the waiter bring you?
A)carrots
B)brussel sprouts
C)lettuce
D)celery
E)chives
Q2) Perforation plates can be found in
A)sieve cells.
B)tracheids.
C)sieve tube members.
D)vessel members.
E)companion cells.
Q3) How could you distinguish between a root hair versus a very small root?
A)Root hairs are white,roots are brown.
B)Root hairs are single cells,roots are multicellular.
C)Root hairs only absorb water,not nutrients like roots.
D)Root hairs do not have a cuticle.
E)The epidermis of a root hair is thinner than the epidermis of a root.
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Page 38
Chapter 37: Vegetative Plant Development
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Q1) A single cotyledon found in the kernels of cereal grains.
A)hypocotyl
B)endosperm
C)scutellum
D)radicle
E)epicotyl
Q2) Seeds cannot germinate until the embryo
A)is stimulated by ethylene signals.
B)absorbs water and oxygen.
C)forms hesperidia and integuments.
D)is exposed to fire and water.
E)gets rid of inhibitory chemicals.
Q3) Scratching or chipping the seed coat (scarification)of certain seeds (like alfalfa)may speed up germination of hard coated seeds because it allows
A)The mechanical stress activates enzymes.
B)Water and oxygen can enter the seed to reach the embryo more quickly.
C)Carbon dioxide can enter the seed and stimulate photosynthesis to start.
D)Bacteria or fungi can enter the seed and trigger hormones.
E)Damage to the seed coat releases \(\alpha\)-amylases into the endosperm.
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Page 39
Chapter 38: Transport in Plants
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Q1) On a short-term basis,water loss in plants may be controlled by the
A)bending of the petioles on the leaves.
B)closing of the stele in the roots.
C)closing of the stomates in the leaves to limit transpiration.
D)opening of the stomates in the leaves to allow more carbon dioxide to enter.
E)opening the casparian strips in the roots.
Q2) Which of the following statements about transport through phloem is true?
A)Transport only occurs from the roots to the shoot.
B)It is aided by root pressure.
C)The direction of flow can change at different times if the sources and sinks change.
D)No energy is requireD.
E)Mostly dissolved starch is transported.
Q3) Which of the following hormones increases when plants are flooded?
A)gibberellin
B)auxin
C)ethylene
D)cytokinin
E)abscissic acid
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Chapter 39: Plant Nutrition and Soils
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a natural process of plants that can be used by humans to remove toxins from soils?
A)secretion of a substance from the roots that breaks down the toxic chemical
B)"storage" of a toxic chemical in plant tissues,which are then removed from the site
C)root pressure pushes toxins from deep in the soil towards the surface
D)physiological breakdown of the chemical into harmless products
E)transport of toxins absorbed by the roots into the shoots,where they can be collected more easily
Q2) In magnesium-deficient plants the older leaves show more severe symptoms of chlorosis than younger leaves.What is the best explanation?
A)There is more time for the symptoms to develop in older leaves.
B)Chlorophyll is transported from the older leaves to the younger leaves.
C)Magnesium is more soluble in younger leaves.
D)Scarce magnesium is removed from older leaves and translocated to support younger,more active leaves.
E)Older leaves need less chlorophyll.
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Chapter 40: Plant Defense Responses
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Q1) What is the main difference between plant defense mechanisms that use secondary chemical metabolites versus plant defense mechanisms that use a systemic response?
A)The metabolites are not as lethal as the systemic response.
B)The metabolites are present at all times,and the systemic response must be induced.
C)The metabolites can only help in defense against insects,not against other plants.
D)The metabolites are toxic to the plants that produce them,the systemic response is safer.
E)The metabolites are a more reliable way to kill the invader.
Q2) Systemin can correctly be described as a(n)
A)peptide.
B)apoplast.
C)receptor.
D)leaf lipiD.
E)carbohydratE.
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Chapter 41: Sensory Systems in Plants
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Q1) ________________ are complex carbohydrates that are released from plant cell walls and appear to regulate both pathogen responses and growth and development in some plants.
A)Brassinosteroids
B)Oligosaccharides
C)Cytokinins
D)Auxins
E)Glycoproteins
Q2) Which of the following statements about abscisic acid is false?
A)It is produced chiefly in mature green leaves and in fruits.
B)It stimulates the growth of dormant buds.
C)It promotes leaf senescence.
D)It plays an important role in controlling the opening and closing of stomata.
E)It plays a role in seed dormancy.
Q3) Which of the following statements about hormones is false?
A)They are chemical signals produced in the organism.
B)They are produced in small,often minute quantities.
C)They are produced in one part of the organism and transported to another.
D)Their effect is the same throughout the organism.
E)They can stimulate certain physiological processes while inhibiting others.
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Chapter 42: Plant Reproduction
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Q1) Plants that flower only once before they die,normally after two seasons of growth,are called
A)annuals.
B)biennials.
C)perennials.
D)monocots.
E)dicots.
Q2) Which of these is not part of a seed?
A)endosperm
B)embryo
C)diploid cells
D)seed coat
E)fruit
Q3) The gynoecium contains a slender style with a pollen-receptive _____________ at its apex.
A)anther
B)stamen
C)filament
D)stigma
E)pistil
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Chapter 43: The Animal Body and Principles of Regulation
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Q1) Which of the following are also known as striated muscles?
A)skeletal and smooth
B)just cardiac
C)just skeletal
D)skeletal and cardiac
E)skeletal,smooth,and cardiac
Q2) The cells that are specialized to produce and conduct electrochemical impulses are called
A)neurons.
B)dendrites.
C)axons.
D)fibroblasts.
E)epithelial cells.
Q3) Which of the following are the fundamental embryonic tissues called the "germ layers"?
A)tissues,organs,and organ systems
B)mesoderm,muscle,and tissue
C)ectoderm,endoderm,and exoskeleton
D)mesoderm,endoderm,and ectoderm
E)mesoderm,exoderm,and hydroderm
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Chapter 44: The Nervous System
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Q1) The hippocampus and amygdala are,together with the hypothalamus,the major components of the ______ system.
A)reticular-activating B)reflex
C)parasympathetic D)limbic
E)autonomic
Q2) Acetylcholine is added to the paravertebral ganglia in the sympathetic ganglion chain in the upper thoracic area.Which one of the following actions occurs?
A)heart rate goes up
B)adrenaline get secreted from adrenal glands
C)gut motility increases
D)urinary bladder relaxes
E)saliva secretion increases
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Chapter 45: Sensory Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) By being active and efficient in the dark with sonar,which of the following animals became the most numerous and widespread?
A)bats
B)whales
C)owls
D)dolphins
E)shrews
Q2) When a retinal molecule captures a photon,
A)it releases an electron.
B)it glows.
C)it changes configuration.
D)it begins to vibrate.
E)it does nothing.
Q3) Electroreceptors are found in all of the following animals except A)bony fish.
B)sharks.
C)duck-bill platypus.
D)skates.
E)pit viper snakes.
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Page 47
Chapter 46: The Endocrine System
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Q1) The hormones epinephrine and norepinephrine,which constitute the "alarm" response of the body to stress,are secreted by the A)pancreas.
B)thyroid gland.
C)adrenal medulla.
D)pineal glanD.
E)anterior pituitary gland.
Q2) Homeostasis is achieved through the actions of two major regulatory systems,the endocrine system and the _________ system.
A)nervous
B)circulatory
C)reproductive
D)digestive
E)respiratory
Q3) Parathyroid hormone does not cause
A)kidneys to resorb Ca<sup>2+</sup> from the urine.
B)the activation of vitamin D.
C)increased blood calcium levels by stimulating osteoclasts to dissolve bone.
D)acceleration of heartbeat.
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Chapter 47: The Musculoskeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the developmental schemes for bone is not possible?
A)undifferentiated Mesenchymal cells,osteocyte,osteoblast
B)undifferentiated Mesenchymal cells,fibroblast,collagen
C)undifferentiated Mesenchymal cells,chondroblast,chondrocyte
D)osteoblasts,osteocyte,osteoclast
E)undifferentiated Mesenchymal cells,osteoblast,osteocyte
Q2) The myofibrils consist of both thin filaments made of actin proteins,and thick filaments composed of
A)myosin proteins.
B)contractile protein subunits.
C)Z line proteins.
D)sarcoplasmic proteins.
E)isometric proteins.
Q3) Which of the following is not true about vertebrate bone?
A)consist of cells and an extracellular matrix containing collagen fibers
B)contain hydroxyapatite crystals
C)contain sarcomere units
D)contain blood vessels
E)capable of growth and remodeling
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Page 49
Chapter 48: The Digestive System
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Q1) A ______ is an organic substance the animal needs in small quantities,but cannot synthesize on its own.
A)vitamin
B)hormone
C)cofactor
D)heliobacter
Q2) Bicarbonate that neutralizes stomach acid is produced by the A)duodenum.
B)small intestine.
C)pancreas.
D)large intestine.
E)liver.
Q3) The mixture of partially digested food and gastric juice is called _____.
A)chyme
B)rumen
C)trypsin
D)heliobacter
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Chapter 49: The Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Air enters human lungs from the mouth through the _________.
A)trachea
B)nasal cavities
C)spiracles
D)posterior air sacs
E)esophagus
Q2) Which of these dissolved gases cannot be transported by hemoglobin?
A)nitric acid (NO)
B)oxygen (O<sub>2</sub>)
C)carbon dioxide (CO<sub>2</sub>)
D)carbon monoxide (CO)
E)nitrogen (N<sub>2</sub>)
Q3) Respiration involves the movement of gases by the process of A)facilitated transport.
B)active transport.
C)diffusion.
D)ventilation.
Q4) During exhalation,the diaphragm ________.
A)contracts
B)relaxes
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Chapter 50: The Circulatory System
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Q1) Changes in the arterial blood pressure are detected by __________ located in the walls of the carotid artery and the arch of the aorta.
A)baroreceptors
B)pacemakers
C)lymphatic receptors
D)SA node receptors
E)blood volume receptors
Q2) Platelets
A)lymphoid stem cell
B)megakaryocyte
C)monoblast
D)reticulocyte
E)myeloblast
Q3) Which of the following substances does not regulate blood volume?
A)antidiuretic hormone
B)aldosterone
C)atrial natriuretic hormone
D)hemoglobin
E)nitric oxide
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Page 52
Chapter 51: Osmotic Regulation and the Urinary System
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Q1) An increase in the production of ADH affects the kidney tubules by
A)inhibiting reabsorption of sodium ion in the collecting duct.
B)decreasing the permeability of the glomerulus to water.
C)causing the walls of the collecting duct to become more permeable to water.
D)inhibiting the reabsorption of water in the glomerulus.
E)all of thesE.
Q2) Osmoreceptors in which one of the following organs respond to elevated blood osmolality?
A)the adrenal cortex
B)the adrenal medulla
C)the hypothalamus
D)the kidneys
E)the heart
Q3) The organ that performs filtration and reabsorption in the vertebrates is the ______.
A)kidney
B)liver
C)pancreas
D)small intestine
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Chapter 52: The Immune System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Lymphocyte receptors are encoded by genes that are assembled by _______ rearrangement And mutation.
A)histochemical
B)reversible
C)gametic
D)DNA
Q2) Which is the major form of antibody in external secretions?
A)IgM
B)IgG
C)IgD
D)IgA
E)IgE
Q3) Antigen shifting allows the pathogens to escape from immune recognition.This mechanism is employed by all of the following except A)flu viruses.
B)trypanosomes.
C)malarial protozoans.
D)HIV.
E)Antigenic shifting occurs in all of the answers given in this question.
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Chapter 53: The Reproductive System
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Q1) The immotile sperm develop motility in about 18 hours after arriving at the long,coiled tube called the _________.
A)vas deferens
B)semiferous tubules
C)epididymis
D)testis
Q2) The hormone that is tested for in all pregnancy tests is
A)estrogen hormone.
B)luteinizing hormone.
C)follicle stimulation hormone.
D)progesterone hormone.
E)hCG hormonE.
Q3) The only mammals that lay eggs are called A)monotremes.
B)placentals.
C)marsupials.
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Chapter 54: Animal Development
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Q1) Milk production in mammary alveoli is stimulated by A)oxytocin.
B)prolactin.
C)chorionic gonadotropin.
D)progesterone.
E)estrogen.
Q2) The milk ejection reflex requires the action of the hormone ___________.
A)prolactin
B)estradiol
C)oxytocin
D)somatomammotropin
Q3) Birth occurs in response to uterine contractions stimulated by A)FSH and prostaglandins.
B)LH and prostaglandins.
C)oxytocin and prostaglandins.
D)prolactin and prostaglandins.
E)hCG and prostaglandins.
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Chapter 55: Behavioral Biology
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Q1) As an animal matures,it forms attachments to other individuals and develops preferences.This process is called
A)instinct.
B)imprinting.
C)associational learning.
D)habituation.
E)sensitization.
Q2) Learning is possible only within the boundaries set by an innate predisposition called
A)instinct
B)free will
C)consciousness
D)ability
Q3) The name of the study of behavior,behavioral genetics,and comparative psychology is _______.
A)ethology
B)demography
C)etiology
D)semanics
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Chapter 56: Population Ecology
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Q1) The size at which a population stabilizes in a particular place is defined as the __________ for that species.
A)growth potential
B)optimum
C)range
D)carrying capacity
Q2) The biotic potential representing growth without limits at its maximal rate is given the symbol
A)r.
B)N.
C)K.
D)dN/dt.
E)N/K.
Q3) The number of individuals of a species that can be supported indefinitely in a particular place is called its A)niche.
B)biotic potential.
C)carrying capacity.
D)maximum size.
E)habitat usagE.
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Chapter 57: Community of Ecology
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Q1) The dynamic processes that are of critical importance in succession involve all of the following except
A)tolerance.
B)facilitation.
C)inhibition.
D)competitive exclusion.
E)disturbancE.
Q2) A species that interacts in critical ways with many other elements of an ecosystem is called a ___________ species.
A)predatory
B)keystone
C)primary
D)dominant
E)succeeding
Q3) Animals defend themselves against predators by all of the following except A)warning coloration.
B)cryptic coloration.
C)chemical defenses such as poisons and stings.
D)parasitism.
E)aposematic coloration.
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Chapter 58: Dynamics of Ecosystems
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
69 Verified Questions
69 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/53535
Sample Questions
Q1) The upper,unconfined portion of the groundwater constitutes the _____,which flows into streams and is partly accessible to plants.
A)aquifer
B)hydrozone
C)water table
D)watershed
Q2) In a food chain with four trophic levels,what would be the energy in the top trophic level if the energy contained in the primary producer level is 40,000 kcal/m<sup>2</sup>/yr? Assume a trophic level transfer efficiency of 10%.
A)4,000 kcal/m<sup>2</sup>/yr
B)400 kcal/m<sup>2</sup>/yr
C)40 kcal/m<sup>2</sup>/yr
D)4 kcal/m<sup>2</sup>/yr
E)0.4 kcal/m<sup>2</sup>/yr
Q3) Organisms that break down organic matter are called
A)detritivores.
B)omnivores.
C)herbivores.
D)carnivores.
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Page 60
Chapter 59: The Biosphere
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79 Verified Questions
79 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Longer wavelengths of infrared light or heat are trapped to produce the so-called "greenhouse effect" by
A)carbon.
B)nitrogen monoxide.
C)carbon dioxide.
D)ozone.
E)sulfur.
Q2) Periodic disturbances in ocean currents by the warming of the waters known as ________ can have profound global influences on world climate.
A)El Niño
B)the intertropical convergence
C)La Niña
D)Trade Winds
Q3) About three-quarters of Earth is covered by _________ ecosystems.
A)freshwater
B)terrestrial
C)forested
D)marine
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Chapter 60: Conservation Biology
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62 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following groups is most studied regarding the increasing extinctions today?
A)amphibians
B)mammals
C)fish
D)insects
E)bacteria
Q2) Human caused introductions can occur by all of the following except
A)plants and animals accidentally escaping from ships.
B)automobile or truck tires.
C)being in the soil or on a plant sold at a nursery.
D)seeds or organisms on clothing or shoes.
E)captive breeding.
Q3) A major problem with hotspots is humans moving in and causing A)habitat destruction.
B)increased genetic diversity.
C)increased immigration among species.
D)decreased introductions.
E)decreased biomagnification.
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Page 62