Course Introduction
Biology I Pre-Test Questions
Biology I provides a comprehensive introduction to the fundamental principles of biology, emphasizing the molecular and cellular basis of life. Topics include the structure and function of cells, genetics, evolution, ecology, and the diversity of living organisms. Through lectures, laboratory exercises, and interactive activities, students develop an understanding of key biological concepts and acquire skills essential for further study in biological sciences. This course lays the foundation for advanced coursework in biology-related fields and fosters an appreciation for the complexity and interconnectedness of living systems.
Recommended Textbook
Discover Biology Core Topics 5th Edition by Anu Singh Cundy
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Nature of Science and the Characteristics of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) DNA is an example of the molecular level of biological organization.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) A medical diagnosis is a(n)
A)observation.
B)experiment.
C)theory.
D)hypothesis.
Answer: D
Q3) The scientific method begins with ____________________.
Answer: observations
Q4) Which of the following represents conducting an experiment?
A)dialing a telephone number
B)comparing prices of computers
C)checking your midterm grades online
D)predicting the outcome of a basketball game
Answer: A
Q5) Biology is the scientific study of ____________________.
Answer: life
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Chapter 2: Biological Diversity, Bacteria, and Archaea
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following would contain the most closely related group of phyla?
A)class
B)order
C)genus
D)kingdom
Answer: D
Q2) Archaea, Bacteria, and Eukarya are the three biological domains.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Which of the following is not one of the three primary methods used to classify organisms?
A)the Linnaean hierarchy
B)the Darwinian hierarchy
C)domains
D)an evolutionary tree
Answer: B
Q4) During ____________________ bacteria trade small sections of plasmid DNA with one another.
Answer: conjugation
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Chapter 3: Protista, Plantae, and Fungi
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Sample Questions
Q1) Without angiosperms, bryophyte reproduction would almost entirely cease.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Eukaryotes display the earliest version of sexual reproduction, whereby
A)separate male and female individuals within the same species mate.
B)females of one eukaryotes species mate with males of another eukaryotes species.
C)special cells called gametes fuse together to produce a new individual.
D)an individual splits into two individuals that then mate with one another.
Answer: C
Q3) Despite some similarities in appearance and habitat selection, biologists consider the fungi more closely related to animals than plants; for example, both groups _____, a feature completely absent in plants.
A)use chitin as a structural material
B)share similar gene sequences
C)store surplus carbohydrate as glycogen
D)all of the above
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Animalia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Some mollusks feed on cnidarians, absorb intact cnidocytes, and migrate these cnidocytes into their body surface. What possible benefit could the mollusk derive from this behavior?
A)By disguising themselves as cnidarians they can better approach their prey.
B)Because some cnidarians use cnidocytes for protection their defensive functions could be transferred intact to the mollusk.
C)Mollusks with cnidocytes may increase their reproductive fitness by appearing more attractive to potential mates.
D)Cnidocyte toxin may incapacitate cnidarian prey species allowing for quicker consumption and more efficient food gathering.
Q2) Radial symmetry occurs much less commonly than bilateral symmetry; the only radially symmetrical animal groups are the A)protosomes and deuterosomes.
B)cnidarians and ctenophores.
C)annelids and mollusks.
D)echinoderms and nematodes.
Q3) An animal having radial symmetry, a complete gut, and mesoglea would be a(n)____________________.
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6
Chapter 5: The Chemistry of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Covalent bonds contain ions.
A)True
B)False
Q2) How many hydrogen atoms are in a molecule of C H N O ?
A)8
B)10
C)20
D)24
Q3) The sugar glucose has an important role
A)in the formation of proteins.
B)in short-term energy storage.
C)in the formation of membranes.
D)as a building block of nucleotides.
Q4) ____________________ are the most hydrophobic of the four classes of organic compounds because they are made of hydrocarbon chains that repel water.
Q5) The monomers in proteins are ____________________.
Q6) Nucleic acids contain phosphorus but not sulfur.
A)True
B)False
7
Q7) The uncharged component in the core of an atom is a(n)____________________.
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Chapter 6: Cell Structure and Internal Compartments
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following components contribute to the structure of the cytoskeleton of a cell?
A)microtubules and actin filaments
B)pseudopodia and motor proteins
C)chloroplasts and mitochondria
D)the cell wall and plasma membrane
Q2) Which of the following would be the best analogy for the function of the Golgi apparatus?
A)the machine that assembles a product
B)a worker in a factory who places labels on products and then packs them into a shipping box
C)the garbage truck that hauls away the wastes produced as a product is made
D)the blueprints for making the product
Q3) The magnification of a specimen by a light microscope is a result of
A)the bending of light as it passes through glass lenses.
B)the focusing of electron beams by magnets.
C)the reflection of light off a specimen.
D)using chemicals to physically enlarge cells.
Q4) Organisms whose cells lack internal membrane-bound organelles are classified as
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Chapter 7: Cell Membranes, Transport, and Communication
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Q1) Gap junctions allow large molecules to move from cell to cell.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Steroids are unable to cross the plasma membrane.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Active carrier proteins can transfer molecules into areas of higher concentration.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Objects suspended in the extracellular fluid can cross the plasma membrane and enter a cell by A)pinocytosis.
B)receptor-mediated endocytosis.
C)phagocytosis.
D)all of the above
Q5) After entering its target cell, a hydrophobic hormone binds to its intracellular receptor and interacts with the cell's DNA, resulting in the production of a specific
9
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Chapter 8: Energy, Metabolism, and Enzymes
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Sample Questions
Q1) In accordance with the first law of thermodynamics, the energy in a gallon of gas consumed in a mileage test is equal to the A)amount of work performed, a calculation based on miles traveled and the weight of the vehicle.
B)amount of work performed plus the heat created from the friction of moving parts. C)amount of work performed plus the heat from friction, plus the heat of the exhaust from the motor.
D)amount of work performed plus heat from friction, plus heat from the exhaust, plus the potential energy of combustion products in the exhaust.
Q2) The first law of thermodynamics states that the total energy of a system and its surroundings remains constant.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The shape of an enzyme does not affect its activity.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Photosynthesis and Cellular Respiration
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements comparing photosynthesis and cellular respiration is accurate?
A)Photosynthesis is a catabolic pathway, whereas cellular respiration is an anabolic pathway.
B)Water is formed during photosynthesis, but broken apart during cellular respiration.
C)Both photosynthesis and cellular respiration require electron transport chains.
D)Both photosynthesis and cellular respiration produce CO<sub>2</sub> as metabolic end products.
Q2) What best summarizes the events of the Calvin cycle?
A)The cycle uses ATP and NADPH to produce sugars.
B)The cycle moves electrons from Photosystem II to Photosystem I.
C)The cycle moves light-energized electrons to Photosystem II.
D)The cycle absorbs light from the light reactions.
Q3) Which of the following applies to chloroplasts?
A)They have an intermembrane space and a matrix.
B)They have three membrane-enclosed compartments.
C)Unlike mitochondria, they lack a stroma.
D)They carry out both photosynthesis and respiration.
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Chapter 10: Cell Division
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Q1) Many honeybee species are parthenogenic; unfertilized halpoid ____________________ develop to become haploid male bees called drones.
Q2) What feature(s)distinguish an embryo from a zygote?
A)The cells of an embyro are diploid, whereas those of the zygote are haploid.
B)A zygote consists of a single cell, whereas an embryo is multicellular.
C)An embryo has differentiated to the extent that rudimentary organs are present, whereas a zygote's cells are still undifferentiated.
D)both a and c
Q3) During anaphase I of meiosis,
A)sister chromatids are pulled apart toward opposite poles.
B)each member of a bivalent moves toward a different pole.
C)all bivalents are pulled to the same pole.
D)paired homologues become attached to each other by microtubules.
Q4) During the S phase, the cell
A)duplicates its DNA.
B)grows in size to prepare for DNA synthesis.
C)completes its preparation for mitosis.
D)rests between divisions.
Q5) Chromosomes become visible during the ____________________ stage of mitosis.
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Chapter 11: Stem Cells, Cancer, and Human Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) Grilling meat appears to be associated with an avoidable exposure to carcinogens that form when
A)the growth hormones used by the livestock industry react at high temperature with meat proteins.
B)the antibiotics routinely used by the livestock industry degrade at high temperature.
C)certain amino acids and fats react at high temperature to form HCAs and PAHs.
D)combustion products from the charcoal, natural gas, or propane mutate the DNA in the cooked food.
Q2) Regenerative medicine and stem cell therapy promise a possible cure for ____________________ disease, a devastating neurological disorder marked by uncontrollable body movements.
Q3) Tissue containing totipotent embryonic stem cells is difficult to obtain; what is the usual source?
A)tissues from spontaneous miscarriage during the first trimester of pregnancy
B)the donation of surplus blastocysts produced by in vitro fertilization for women seeking fertility treatment
C)tissue from elective abortion during the first trimester of pregnancy
D)blood and/or tissue extracted from the placenta after the birth of the fetus
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Patterns of Inheritance
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Q1) The genetic makeup of an organism, such as Gg, is its ____________________.
Q2) The I and I alleles involved in human blood type differ in that they attach different ____________________ to the surface of red blood cells.
Q3) Environmental factors can alter the effects of genes.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Inheritance of ABO blood type in humans is an example of A)codominance.
B)complete dominance of one allele over another.
C)a gene that is coded by more than two alleles.
D)all of the above
Q5) A genetic cross is used to produce organisms from species that would not normally interbreed.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Which of the following statements is true?
A)Mendel's laws are less accurate than Punnett square results.
B)Mendel's laws are useful only in unusual situations.
C)Mendel's laws correctly explain how genes are inherited.
Page 14
D)Mendel's laws correctly predict the phenotype of an organism.
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Chapter 13: Chromosomes and Human Genetics
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Q1) The gender of a human child is determined by the A)loci.
B)autosome.
C)egg.
D)sperm.
Q2) The chromosome theory of inheritance states that A)chromosomes are made of DNA.
B)genes are located on chromosomes.
C)genes are inherited.
D)patterns of inheritance are based on probability.
Q3) Genes that are located on opposite ends of the same chromosome are A)not affected by crossing-over.
B)affected by crossing-over at the same frequency as genes that are located next to each other on the same chromosome.
C)only affected by cross-over events that occur between two nonhomologous chromosomes.
D)affected by crossing-over so frequently that they may appear to undergo independent assortment.
Q4) A female who is a carrier of the sex-linked gene A has the genotype
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Chapter 14: Dna and Genes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Replication of DNA cannot begin until
A)phosphate bonds between nucleotides are broken.
B)hydrogen bonds between complementary bases are broken.
C)covalent bonds between sugar molecules are broken.
D)hydrogen bonds between nucleotides in one strand are broken.
Q2) Once replication in a DNA molecule is complete, each new DNA molecule contains
A)one old strand and one new strand.
B)the paired old strands and the paired new strands.
C)new DNA polymerase.
D)a new sequence of nucleotides.
Q3) Which of the following are removed from mRNA after transcription?
A)introns
B)transposons
C)spacer DNA
D)exons
Q4) How can a cell contain DNA molecules that are much longer than the cell?
A)The cell expands to fit the DNA inside.
B)DNA not used by that cell is deleted.
C)DNA is very narrow and tightly packed.
D)RNA copies allow DNA to dissolve.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: From Gene to Protein
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Sample Questions
Q1) A chemical that causes the formation of a covalent bond between adenine and thymine is added to a cell. How does this drug affect gene expression in the cell?
A)The chemical increases the efficiency of protein production by making it easier for tRNA to interact with the correct mRNA codons.
B)The chemical prevents transcription from occurring so proteins cannot be made.
C)The chemical prevents protein production because once made, the RNA cannot separate from its DNA template.
D)The chemical has no effect on protein production because mRNA contains uracil rather than thymine.
Q2) Because they are so distantly related, the codons for serine in a black widow spider would probably be much different from the codons for serine in bluebirds.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A ____________________ is the series of bases in mRNA that specifies a single amino acid.
Q4) ____________________ is the specific type of nucleic acid found in ribosomes, which are important in protein synthesis.
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17
Chapter 16: Dna Technology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Genetic engineering has been used to mass produce insulin for diabetics.
A)True
B)False
Q2) When the FBI investigates crimes with DNA evidence, they compare 13 different noncoding regions of the human genome between the DNA evidence and the suspect. Why is it important to look at so many regions?
A)Repeating the test in different areas of the DNA ensures that the investigator did not make any mistakes in determining the DNA sequence.
B)Most regions of the human genome are identical, so you have to look in many locations to make sure you find a region that shows differences.
C)The more regions of the DNA you examine, the less likely you are to run into a coincidental similarity between DNA sequences.
D)Restriction enzymes only work in these 13 regions of the human genome.
Q3) DNA fingerprinting can prove guilt without fail.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Hind III and AluI are examples of ____________________ used to cut DNA at specific sites.
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Page 18
Chapter 17: How Evolution Works
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Q1) Individuals in a given population are genetically identical.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Jean-Baptiste Lamark proposed that changes in the traits of a population are a result of traits acquired during the lifetime of an organism being inherited by that organism's offspring. What is wrong with this proposal?
A)Only changes in the DNA sequence of an organism can be inherited. Traits acquired throughout life generally do not involve DNA.
B)The environment chooses which traits are necessary for survival rather than the individual.
C)Changes in a species occur at the individual level rather than the population level.
D)The inheritance of acquired traits would not lead to speciation because it would cause all of the individuals in a population to become more similar.
Q3) Chimpanzees could carry a species of lice that evolved from the gorilla louse.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Evolutionary changes on a small scale are called ____________________.
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Chapter 18: Evolution of Populations
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Q1) The occurrence of mutation is directed toward a specific goal.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In natural selection, _____ that increase survival and reproductive success become more common in a population.
A)genotypes
B)allele frequencies
C)bottlenecks
D)phenotypes
Q3) The Hardy-Weinberg equation can be used to determine the genotype frequencies of a population that is not evolving.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In any given population the genotype frequency is usually the same as the allele frequency.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Mutations generally cause rapid changes in allele frequencies in populations.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Speciation and the Origins of Biological Diversity
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Q1) Every year, environmental signals in Africa cause flycatchers to return to the Netherlands to breed. When they arrive, they depend on freshly hatched caterpillars for food. Global climate change has caused the caterpillars to hatch earlier in the Netherlands, but the environmental cues in Africa remain the same. Now, when the flycatchers return to the Netherlands the caterpillars are no longer available as a food source. Which of the following is likely to happen to this species of flycatcher?
A)Flycatchers will adapt to environmental change because alleles that cause flycatchers to recognize earlier environmental signals in Africa will increase in frequency in flycatcher populations.
B)Flycatchers will adapt to environmental change because alleles that aid flycatchers in utilizing other food sources (besides caterpillars) will increase in frequency in flycatcher populations.
C)Flycatchers will not adapt to environmental change because their population does not have alleles that aid in survival under these conditions.
D)All of the above are possible scenarios.
Q2) Sympatric speciation always follows allopatric speciation.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 20: The Evolutionary History of Life
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Q1) The oxygen necessary to support much of life on Earth is a waste product of an important adaptation, the process of ____________________.
Q2) The first mammals
A)were probably most active during the day.
B)were the size of modern horses and elephants.
C)had large eye sockets.
D)underwent rapid adaptive radiation during the "reign" of the dinosaurs.
Q3) For insects, could there be a connection between being the first organism to fly and being the most diverse terrestrial organism today?
A)Probably not; terrestrial insects are only so diverse because they have been around so much longer than other animals and have, therefore, had more time to evolve.
B)Yes; the ability to fly between populations decreases gene flow resulting in rapid speciation.
C)No; only environmental changes can lead to adaptive radiation of a group as large as insects.
D)Maybe; because insects were the first in the air, they had a variety of habitats to explore without competition, which often leads to adaptive radiation.
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Page 22
Chapter 21: The Biosphere
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Q1) Chemicals used by humans have reduced the concentration of ozone (O )in the stratosphere over both the North and South poles. Why is the reduction of ozone dangerous to humans?
A)Localized changes in the Earth's atmosphere can alter the general global circulation and rainfall patterns.
B)The ozone layer absorbs ultraviolet light, a known mutagen; if it is reduced, the UV exposure at ground level will significantly increase.
C)Ozone is critical for the recycling of oxygen from carbon dioxide.
D)With reduced ozone concentrations the fixation of nitrogen gas to nitrate (NO<sub>3</sub>) will occur too slowly.
Q2) Atmospheric circulation occurs primarily within one of the ____________________ major convection cells.
Q3) Which of the following factors has the least effect on aquatic biomes?
A)human actions
B)the number of rain shadows
C)climate
D)local terrestrial biomes
Q4) A ____________________ is a wetland dominated by trees and shrubs.
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Chapter 22: Growth of Populations
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Q1) The carrying capacity of a habitat always remains the same.
A)True
B)False
Q2) When an S-shaped growth curve levels it is an indication that a population may have reached its carrying capacity.
A)True
B)False
Q3) If there are 100 people living in a 2-square-kilometer area, the population density is ____________________ people per square kilometer.
Q4) Humans are the only species not subject to limits on the size of its population.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A new species is introduced into a given area. The population size begins to grow slowly, then at a very rapid rate, and finally levels off at a stable number. This growth pattern is best represented by a(n)
A)oscillating cycle.
B)J-shaped population curve.
C)A-shaped population curve.
D)S-shaped population curve.
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Chapter 23: Ecological Communities
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Q1) Bees can actually be harmed by use as pollinators for single crops.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Beech drops are plants that no longer photosynthesize. They obtain nutrition by extending their roots into a beech tree and intercepting the flow of sap. Beech drops would be considered a _____ of beech trees.
A)parasite
B)predator
C)host
D)mutual partner
Q3) Bees use pollen to feed ____________________, as a protein source. A variety of pollen provides a variety of protein sources.
Q4) Responses that are directly stimulated by an attack from herbivores are ____________________ responses.
Q5) Into which category would a human be assigned when eating chicken?
A)producers
B)primary consumers
C)secondary consumers
D)tertiary consumers
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Chapter 24: Ecosystems
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Q1) Pollutants from industrial areas may contain _____, which can react with water to produce airborne particles of acid.
A)oxygen
B)carbon dioxide
C)sulfur dioxide
D)nitrate
Q2) Net primary productivity in a terrarium could be estimated by
A)carefully controlling the amount of light entering it.
B)counting the change in the number of plant species in it.
C)weighing the terrarium at regular intervals.
D)removing the primary consumers and weighing them at regular intervals.
Q3) Human actions such as logging, building on a floodplain, or diverting rivers increase the probability of severe ____________________.
Q4) Once an organic molecule enters a metabolic pathway, a significant percentage of its energy
A)can be recycled through the ecosystem.
B)will be recovered and used by decomposers.
C)is lost as unrecoverable heat.
D)enters the nutrient cycle.
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Chapter 25: Global Change
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Q1) The organisms responsible for most of the conversion of atmospheric molecular nitrogen (N )to the nitrate or ammonium that can be used by most other organisms are A)photosynthetic plants.
B)bacteria.
C)fungi.
D)mammals.
Q2) Although not directly toxic to living organisms, chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)have had unanticipated impacts on the atmosphere. The ecological impacts of CFCs will be A)relatively benign because even as secondary pollutants their toxicity remains low.
B)limited to the terrestrial ecosystem only.
C)limited to high-altitude communities where ultraviolet radiation is more intense. D)uniformly serious, with effects experienced in almost all ecosystems and trophic levels.
Q3) The physical and biotic changes humans make to the land surface of Earth are collectively known as land ____________________.
Q4) The conversion of N to NH is called ____________________.
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Chapter 26: Internal Organization and Homeostasis
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Q1) A turtle lying on a warm rock on a sunny day is gaining heat from the sun by radiation and heat from the rock by ____________________.
Q2) An iguana swimming in water colder than its body temperature
A)balances the loss through metabolism.
B)gains heat from the water by reverse conduction.
C)loses heat by conduction and convection.
D)retains heat by increasing its heart rate.
Q3) Animals can gain, but not lose, heat by conduction.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A person whose hands are being warmed by holding a hot cup of tea is gaining heat by A)convection.
B)conduction.
C)evaporation.
D)radiation.
Q5) An animal that does not maintain a relatively constant core temperature is a(n)____________________.
Q6) Shivering and goose bumps are ways of producing ____________________.
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Q7) Secretion and ____________________ take place in the U-shaped kidney tubule.
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Chapter 27: Nutrition and Digestion
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Q1) The brush border in the small intestine decreases the amount of surface area available for absorption of nutrients.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Not all parts of the food that humans ingest is used by our bodies. Fiber, consisting mostly of cellulose, for instance, is excreted without providing nutrition. Which of the following statements explains why fiber is not used as a nutrient in humans?
A)The human gut is unable to break it down; thus it cannot be absorbed across the intestinal cells' membranes.
B)Fiber is an amino acid but not one of the essential amino acids, so we do not need to absorb it as a nutrient.
C)The fiber content of human foods is so low that it is not worthwhile for our bodies to expend energy to extract its nutrients.
D)The fiber is digested into such small molecules that they become nutritionally insignificant.
Q3) In mammals, the mechanical breakdown of food involves teeth. In worms, the mechanical breakdown is accomplished by a ____________________.
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Chapter 28: Circulation and Gas Exchange
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Q1) An irritated pharynx could be caused by sinus drainage.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Although blood plasma carries many electrolytes, nutrients, and other components, the vast majority of plasma is made of ____________________.
Q3) Gases move from an area of ____________________ concentration to an area of ____________________ concentration.
Q4) A complication of an athlete injecting erythropoietin (EPO)could be
A)dehydration.
B)heat exhaustion.
C)decreased muscle mass.
D)heart attack.
Q5) ____________________ is the process of expelling carbon dioxide from the lungs and taking oxygen into the lungs.
Q6) Internal surfaces, such as those found in our lungs, reduce water loss during gas exchanges.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Red blood cells are produced in the ____________________.
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Chapter 29: Animal Hormones
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Q1) Hormone replacement therapy (HRT)is used to ease or reduce the symptoms of ____________________.
Q2) You are walking in the woods and suddenly find yourself between a mother bear and her two cubs. All four nervous systems would send the same emergency message to the
A)thyroid glands.
B)adrenal glands.
C)islet cells.
D)pituitary glands.
Q3) Gonadotropins continue playing a role in human development even after puberty is complete.
A)True
B)False
Q4) During the first two weeks of the menstrual cycle,
A)estrogen levels fall.
B)estrogen levels rise steadily.
C)the egg develops inside the corpus luteum.
D)the corpus luteum develops into a follicle.
Q5) In a human male, the ____________________ secrete hormones that coordinate the development of male reproductive structures.
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Chapter 30: Nervous and Sensory Systems
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Q1) The hypothalamus contains neurons that release hormones in response to action potentials.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following would not be found in the retina of a horse?
A)rods
B)lenses
C)proprioceptors
D)pigments
Q3) The human skin has numerous sensory receptors that take in information about our environment, and these receptors are concentrated in areas where detailed information on touch is needed. Which of the following body areas is likely to have the smallest number of sensory receptors?
A)fingertips
B)face
C)buttocks
D)feet
Q4) Compound eyes of insects use mechanoreceptors rather than photoreceptors.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 31: Skeletons, Muscles, and Movement
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Q1) Humans are likely to continue breaking 100-meter sprint records with further training.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Tendons are connective tissues that connect ____________________ to bone.
Q3) Running times in the 100-meter dash have decreased due to
A)a decrease in illegal drug use.
B)better corporate sponsors.
C)use of equipment that reduces drag.
D)use of equipment that increases drag.
Q4) Which of the following would not be found in an insect?
A)neuromuscular junction
B)sarcomere
C)marrow
D)chitin
Q5) Which of the following would play a role in movement as well as protection?
A)femur
B)skull
C)spinal column
D)radius
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Chapter 32: Defenses Against Disease
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Q1) When an item irritates the eyes, tears form in order to release lysozyme enzymes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) An autoimmune disease would occur if
A)B cells fail to recognize B cells.
B)helper T cells fail to bind to infected cells.
C)B cells and T cells fail to recognize "home team" cells.
D)antibodies from a virus are reactivated in "home team" cells.
Q3) Neutrophils usually get to a wound site ____________________ [before or after] macrophages begin phagocytizing bacteria.
Q4) Allergies are often attributed to
A)a hypersensitive immune system.
B)a deficient immune system.
C)passive immunity.
D)adaptive immunity.
Q5) Interferons summon ____________________ cells that destroy any self cells that display viral proteins.
Q6) In clinical studies, the control group receives a "sugar pill" known as a(n)____________________.
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Chapter 33: Reproduction and Development
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Q1) Animal sperm cells tend to be larger than animal egg cells.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The stage in mammalian development when the embryo exists as a hollow, fluid-filled ball is referred to as the ____________________.
Q3) During development, the process by which unspecialized cells acquire specific identities is called
A)gametogenesis.
B)differentiation.
C)fertilization.
D)apoptosis.
Q4) In fruit flies, morphogens
A)are composed of nucleic acids.
B)switch genes on and off.
C)are receptor proteins.
D)exist only in the eggs.
Q5) During labor more and more oxytocin is produced due to ____________________ feedback.
Q6) In humans development from zygote to completion is ____________________ weeks.
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Chapter 34: Animal Behavior
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Q1) When someone has learned a poem by heart
A)a learning behavior has become a fixed behavior.
B)the poem has become a releaser.
C)communication has been part of a learning behavior.
D)the poem has become both fixed and habituated.
Q2) Fixed behaviors evolve when the survival risks of exhibiting a wrong behavior are great.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Pit bulls do not have the same behavior patterns as collies. The differences are
A)genetically based behaviors.
B)imprinted behaviors.
C)learned behaviors.
D)fixed behaviors.
Q4) Herring gull chicks beg for food when they see a red dot, whether it is on their parent's beak or on an odd-shaped model. This begging is an example of a(n)____________________ behavior.
Q5) The release of chemicals called ____________________ by one individual helps other individuals identify and locate that individual.
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Chapter 35: Plant Structure, Nutrition, and Transport
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Q1) Flowers, rather than leaves, develop when a small number of genes are turned on.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Flowers are an example of a plant organ.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Why do some plants, like beans and peas, contain bacteria in compartments in their roots?
A)These "friendly" bacteria help the plant fight off disease-causing bacteria in the soil.
B)These bacteria are capable of nitrogen fixation and will provide the plant with nitrogen in exchange for carbohydrates.
C)Peas and beans form these compartments in their roots to block these bacteria from infecting the rest of the plant.
D)These bacteria increase the efficiency of root hairs' absorption of water.
Q4) Essential oils from plants like peppermint and sage are used by plants as protection from bacteria, fungi, and plant-eating animals.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 36: Plant Growth and Reproduction
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Q1) Which of the following is not a plant hormone?
A)abscisic acid
B)gibberellin
C)nicotine
D)ethylene
Q2) If you were to drive a nail into the trunk of a tree and come back 10 years later, where would you find the nail?
A)Higher than where you drove it in because, as the trunk lengthens, the nail will move upward.
B)At the same height that you originally placed it because trees grow in length only at their tips.
C)Lower than where you drove it in because plants grow down from their shoot apical meristems, continuously pushing the trunk underground.
D)In the branches because the dermal tissues move up the trunk, whereas the ground tissues move down as a result of growth.
Q3) The growth of a plant zygote into an embryo occurs within the
Q4) Mature pollen grains contain ____________________ sperm cells.
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