Biology I Pre-Test Questions
Course Introduction
Biology I is an introductory course that explores the fundamental principles of life and living organisms. It covers topics such as cell structure and function, genetics, evolution, ecology, and the diversity of living organisms. Students learn about the scientific method, the molecular basis of life, energy transfer in biological systems, and the processes that govern growth, reproduction, and inheritance. Emphasis is placed on developing laboratory skills, critical thinking, and an understanding of how biological concepts apply to real-world issues. This course provides a strong foundation for further studies in the life sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Biology The Essentials 1st Edition by Marille Hoefnagels
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Chapter 1: Scientific Study of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a false statement about the scientific method?
A)It is a general way of answering questions with evidence.
B)It is a framework to consider ideas in a repeatable way.
C)It begins with observations.
D)It does not apply to problems encountered in everyday life.
E)It enables the testing of ideas.
Answer: D
Q2) In the section "Investigating Life: The Orchid and the Moth," what is the advantage to the orchid of having an 11-inch long nectar tube?
A)It can produce nectar over a larger area and attract more pollinators.
B)It can collect more rainwater.
C)It can be fertilized only by the largest moths.
D)It can collect more sunlight for photosynthesis.
E)It can trap insects as a source of nutrients.
Answer: C
Q3) The smallest identifiable unit of an element is a molecule.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 3
Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) The primary building block (monomer)of nucleic acids is
A)a nucleotide.
B)a glucose molecule.
C)a fatty acid.
D)an amino aciD.
E)four interconnected carbon rings.
Answer: A
Q2) You can painlessly wade into a pool,but doing a belly flop off of the high diving board hurts because of ______.
A)water's high density
B)adhesion of your molecules with the water molecules
C)water's high boiling point
D)a neutral pH
E)cohesion of the water molecules
Answer: E
Q3) A peptide bond is a covalent bond formed between amino acids.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) Flagella are not
A)found on prokaryotic cells.
B)found on human sperm.
C)used for movement.
D)found on eukaryotic cells.
E)a component of the cytoskeleton.
Answer: E
Q2) In the section "Investigating Life: Did the Cytoskeleton Begin in Bacteria?",scientific evidence suggested that some elements of the cytoskeleton may have originated in bacteria.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Cilia are not
A)found in the nucleus.
B)found on eukaryotic cells.
C)used for movement.
D)short appendages.
E)found on the exterior of cells.
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: The Energy of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Reduction means
A)the gain of oxygen by a cell.
B)the loss of oxygen from a cell.
C)the gain of electrons by an atom or molecule.
D)the loss of electrons by an atom or molecule.
E)the loss of protons by an atom or moleculE.
Q2) If a cell contains 95% water in its cytoplasm and the environment surrounding the cell contains 90% water
A)water will flow into the cell by osmosis.
B)water will flow out of the cell by active transport.
C)water will flow out of the cell by osmosis.
D)water will flow into the cell by active transport.
E)water will flow into the cell by facilitated diffusion.
Q3) The sodium-potassium pump is an example of A)osmosis.
B)facilitated diffusion.
C)diffusion.
D)equilibrium.
E)active transport.
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Photosynthesis
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Sample Questions
Q1) The light reactions use sunlight as the energy source.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is produced in the light reactions that is used in the carbon reactions of photosynthesis?
A)ATP and NADPH
B)ADP and NADP<sup>+</sup>
C)carbon dioxide and oxygen
D)water and glucose
E)oxygen and glucose
Q3) Green and yellow wavelengths of light are useless to most plants.
A)True
B)False
Q4) When water is in short supply,plants _____ their stomata which _____ gas exchange.
A)close,decreases
B)open,decreases
C)close,increases
D)open,increases
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Chapter 6: How Cells Release Energy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The area enclosed by the highly-folded inner mitochondrial membrane is the A)cytoplasm.
B)nucleus.
C)outer membrane.
D)intermembrane compartment.
E)matrix.
Q2) The Krebs cycle continues the breakdown of glucose and A)manufactures fats and amino acids.
B)replicates DNA.
C)provides oxygen to cells.
D)manufactures carbohydrates.
E)All choices are correct.
Q3) Glycolysis occurs in the A)cytoplasm.
B)mitochondrion.
C)lysosome.
D)nucleus.
E)cell membranE.
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8
Chapter 7: DNA Structure and Gene Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Initiation,elongation,and termination are the three main steps in A)translation only.
B)transcription and translation.
C)transcription only.
D)photosynthesis.
Q2) Amanatin is a toxin found in the death cap mushroom,Amanita phalloides.It inhibits RNA polymerase,thus blocking A)transcription.
B)translation.
C)replication.
D)cell division.
E)RNA splicing.
Q3) The process by which cells use the information of RNA to make proteins is called transcription.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The type of RNA that delivers amino acids to the ribosome during protein synthesis is tRNA.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: DNA Replication and Cell Division
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Sample Questions
Q1) The first sign of cytokinesis in an animal cell is the formation of a A)cell plate.
B)cleavage furrow.
C)cell wall.
D)nucleolus.
E)nuclear envelopE.
Q2) A replicated chromosome consists of two sister chromatids.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is correct about both binary fission and meiosis?
A)Both result in genetically-identical cells.
B)Both result in one daughter cell.
C)Both are asexual forms of cell reproduction.
D)Both replicate the DNA before the cell splits.
E)All answers are correct.
Q4) Each newly replicated molecule of DNA contains one conserved strand from the original DNA molecule.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Sexual Reproduction and Meiosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) A diploid cell with 6 chromosomes would produce which of the following after meiosis?
A)Four genetically-distinct types of haploid gametes
B)Two genetically-distinct types of diploid gametes
C)Four genetically-distinct types of diploid gametes
D)Eight genetically-distinct types of haploid gametes
E)Eight genetically-identical haploid gametes
Q2) If a human zygote has either 45 or 47 chromosomes it was caused by nondisjunction.
A)True
B)False
Q3) If a diploid cell goes through mitosis it will generate
A)four haploid cells.
B)two diploid cells.
C)two haploid cells.
D)four diploid cells.
E)This is not possiblE.
Q4) A female missing an X chromosome (XO)has Turner syndrome.
A)True
B)False
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Patterns of Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Recombinant chromosomes have a mix of paternal and maternal alleles due to A)random fertilization.
B)linkage.
C)independent assortment.
D)crossing over.
E)mutation.
Q2) A dihybrid cross is a mating between two individuals that are each ______________ for ___________ gene (genes).
A)homozygous,one
B)homozygous,two
C)homologous,two
D)heterozygous,one
E)heterozygous,two
Q3) In the ABO blood type system,the I<sup>A</sup> allele is _____ with the I<sup>B</sup> allele.
A)dominant
B)codominant
C)recessive
D)homologous
E)heterologous
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Chapter 11: DNA Technology
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the possible effects of gene doping?
A)encode for new or more proteins than previously existed in the cell
B)boost the production of erythropoietin to stimulate red blood cell production
C)make athletes better competitors
D)result in negative effects in the body
E)All answers are correct.
Q2) How can stem cells replace faulty cells in the body?
A)Stem cells can be coaxed to differentiate into the needed specific cell type.
B)Stem cells can mitotically divide,providing more stem cells to directly replace the faulty cells and their functions.
C)Stem cells can meiotically divide,providing more stem cells to directly replace the faulty cells and their functions.
D)Faulty cells can be coaxed to differentiate into stem cells and directly replace the faulty cells and their functions.
E)All answers are correct.
Q3) 98.5% of the human genome does not encode proteins.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Forces of Evolutionary Change
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Sample Questions
Q1) The scientist who published "On the Origin of Species by Means of Natural Selection" in 1859 was
A)Alfred Russel Wallace.
B)Jean Lamarck.
C)Georges Buffon.
D)Charles Darwin.
E)Charles Lyell.
Q2) Which of the following will NOT lead to evolution?
A)mutation creating improved predator avoidance
B)allele which aids in obtaining food and nutrients
C)genetic change which better attracts mates
D)change in allele frequency of a population
E)non-genetic adjustment to environmental conditions
Q3) Since the conditions needed for the Hardy-Weinberg principle do not occur in real populations,this principle has no importance in population studies.
A)True
B)False
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14
Chapter 13: Evidence of Evolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT evidence that supports evolutionary theory?
A)fossil links between species
B)vestigial structures
C)analogous structures
D)embryonic development
E)shared DNA sequences
Q2) Fossils may be
A)from impressions left after an organism decays.
B)formed as organic matter is replaced by minerals,turning to stone.
C)formed when plant resin or tar preserves the specimen.
D)casts from footprints that have filled with mud and then turned to stone.
E)All answers are correct.
Q3) If many genes from two species differ in about 5% of their bases and substitutions occur at an estimated rate of 5% per one million years then
A)approximately 1 million years have passed since the two species diverged.
B)approximately 5 million years have passed since the two species diverged.
C)approximately 10 million years have passed since the two species diverged.
D)approximately 20 million years have passed since the two species divergeD.
E)approximately 50 million years have passed since the two species diverged.
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Speciation and Extinction
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the section "Investigating Life: Birds Do It,Bees Do It",what can be concluded about the flower preferences of bumblebees?
A)They prefer pink flowers.
B)They prefer red flowers.
C)They prefer yellow-orange flowers.
D)They prefer M.lewisii no matter what color the flowers are.
E)They prefer M.cardinalis no matter what color the flowers arE.
Q2) Birds are least related to A)non-avian dinosaurs.
B)crocodiles.
C)turtles.
D)mammals.
E)amphibians.
Q3) Which of the following is an example of macroevolution?
A)the origin of horses and donkeys from a common ancestor
B)giraffes with longer necks reaching higher tree branches
C)antibiotic resistance in S.aureus
D)female cardinals preferring males with bright red feathers
E)the beaks of cactus finches changing in size in response to a drought on the Galapagos islands
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Chapter 15: Evolution and Diversity of Microbial Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the section "Investigating Life: The Battle for Position in Cacao Tree Leaves",what was the dependent variable?
A)the age of the leaf
B)the percent of the leaf area damaged
C)the presence or absence of endophyte spores
D)the presence or absence of the pathogen Phytophthora
E)the percent of the leaf area containing endophytes
Q2) Evidence supporting the idea that mitochondria and chloroplasts in present-day cells originated as independent organisms includes
A)similarities in DNA sequences between mitochondrial and bacterial genomes.
B)similarities in size and shape between mitochondria and some prokaryotes.
C)similarity between photosynthetic pigments in chloroplasts and cyanobacteria.
D)similarity in the way mitochondria,chloroplasts,and prokaryotes reproduce.
E)All answers are correct
Q3) A dinoflagellate has two flagella.
A)True
B)False
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Evolution and Diversity of Plants
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Sample Questions
Q1) What part of plant cells contains chlorophyll a and carries out photosynthesis?
A)mitochondrion
B)chloroplast
C)central vacuole
D)cell membrane
E)Golgi body
Q2) Stomata allow plants to exchange gases with the atmosphere.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The cones of gymnosperms play the same role as ______ in angiosperms.
A)flowers
B)seeds
C)leaves
D)fruit
E)roots
Q4) Molecular evidence suggests that plants and green algae do not descend from a common ancestor.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: Evolution and Diversity of Animals
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Q1) A bony or cartilaginous structure that surrounds and protects the brain of chordates is a(an)
A)cranium.
B)notochord.
C)amnion.
D)vertebra.
E)jaw.
Q2) Which of the following enabled Homo sapiens to develop complex cultures unlike other members of the Homo genus?
A)the ability to walk upright
B)the development of agriculture
C)the ability to migrate out of Africa
D)changes in skin color
E)the ability to use stone tools
Q3) Flukes and tapeworms belong to the phylum
A)Platyhelminthes.
B)Cnidaria.
C)Porifera.
D)Nematoda.
E)Annelida.
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Chapter 18: Population Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why have human growth rates increased the most in developing countries in the past 50 years?
A)Death rates have fallen more slowly than birth rates.
B)Death rates have gone up faster than birth rates.
C)Death rates have fallen faster than birth rates.
D)Death rates have gone up more slowly than birth rates.
Q2) A population age structure diagram depicting an equal number of individuals in each age group suggests that the population is
A)stable.
B)growing.
C)declining.
D)facing extinction.
E)very small.
Q3) Conditions whose growth-limiting effects increase as a population grows are density-independent factors.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Communities and Ecosystems
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Q1) A type of symbiosis in which one member of the relationship benefits and the other is harmed is
A)predation.
B)mutualism.
C)commensalism.
D)parasitism.
E)intraspecific competition.
Q2) The physical place where members of a population live is termed a A)competitive zone.
B)community.
C)habitat.
D)symbiont.
E)nichE.
Q3) ______ bacteria return nitrogen to the atmosphere by converting nitrates to N<sub>2</sub>.
A)Nitrogen-fixing
B)In nitrification,
C)In denitrification,
D)In transpiration,
E)In respiration,
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Chapter 20: Preserving Biodiversity
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Sample Questions
Q1) One important conservation tool used to restore native populations is to set aside an area and protect it from overexploitation,invasive species,and habitat destruction.
A)True
B)False
Q2) How are extinctions related to biodiversity?
A)The more extinctions,the lower the species biodiversity.
B)The more extinctions,the lower the habitat biodiversity.
C)The more extinctions,the higher the genetic biodiversity.
D)The more extinctions,the higher the species biodiversity.
E)The more extinctions,the higher the habitat diversity.
Q3) Which of the following is not an effect of acid deposition?
A)destruction of aquatic food webs
B)thinning of high-elevation forests
C)decrease in the number of species that can survive in the lake ecosystem
D)increase of pH in lakes
E)deformities in fish and other aquatic organisms
Q4) Humans can survive on Earth without biodiversity.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 21: Plant Form and Function
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Q1) The concentration of solutes in most soil is lower than the concentration of solutes in root cells,so water enters the roots by A)hydrostatic pressure.
B)cohesion.
C)adhesion.
D)hydrolysis.
E)osmosis.
Q2) The tendency of water molecules to "cling" together is A)cohesion.
B)adhesion.
C)hydrolysis.
D)condensation.
E)evaporation.
Q3) The products of photosynthesis move from the leaf to other parts of the plant via A)xylem.
B)phloem.
C)cortex.
D)cortex and phloem.
E)cortex and xylem.
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Reproduction and Development of Flowering Plants
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Q1) In the section "Investigating Life: A Red Hot Chili Pepper Paradox",which animals were most likely to eat the hot peppers?
A)cactus mice
B)pack rats
C)thrashers
D)cactus mice and pack rats
E)Thrashers,cactus mice,and pack rats all ate the peppers equally.
Q2) The first step in the germination of a plant seed is the absorption of water.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A seed is an embryo and its food supply is inside a seed coat.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Reproduction of flowering plants
A)relies upon wind to disperse seeds.
B)relies upon wind to disperse pollen.
C)All answers are correct.
D)relies upon animals to disperse pollen.
E)relies upon animals to disperse seeds.
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Chapter 23: Animal Tissues and Organ Systems
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Q1) The eye contains nerves,muscles,and blood cells.It is defined as which of the following?
A)organ
B)tumor
C)organ system
D)tissue
Q2) The body's first line of defense against disease-causing microorganisms is
A)the white blood cells.
B)the process of phagocytosis.
C)the production of antibodies.
D)the production of T lymphocytes.
E)the intact skin.
Q3) Scleroderma is an autoimmune disease in which repeated bouts of inflammation result in collagen deposits in the skin.Which of the following would be a symptom of scleroderma?
A)increased blood flow to the skin
B)increased flexibility in the skin
C)change in the skin cell type from squamous to columnar
D)change in the skin cell type from columnar to squamous
E)less flexibility in the skin
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Chapter 24: Nervous System and the Senses
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Q1) The layer of the wall of the eye that is modified into the cornea at the front of the eye is the
A)choroid.
B)retina.
C)vitreous humor.
D)sclera.
E)aqueous humor.
Q2) The nervous tissue that consists of myelinated axons transmitting information throughout the central nervous system is the
A)white reflex.
B)grey matter.
C)red reflex.
D)red matter.
E)white matter.
Q3) Molecules produced by humans that influence mood and the perception of pain are opiates.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 25: The Endocrine System
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Q1) The endocrine gland that produces hormones that help regulate blood calcium is the
A)pancreas.
B)parathyroid gland.
C)adrenal gland.
D)pineal glanD.
E)testes.
Q2) Which of the following is not typically a characteristic of a steroid hormone?
A)They are lipid-soluble.
B)They alter gene expression.
C)They bind to a receptor inside the cell's cytoplasm or nucleus.
D)They bind to a receptor on the surface of the cell.
E)They are not water-solublE.
Q3) Which of the following would be the primary target for ADH?
A)pancreas
B)mammary gland
C)testes
D)kidney
E)ovaries
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Chapter 26: The Skeletal and Muscular Systems
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Q1) Without muscles,bones ______ and without bones,muscles ______.
A)would remain in one location;would move soft tissue layers
B)would remain in one location;would remain in one location
C)would provide movement;would remain in one location
D)would be useless;would remain under control of the nervous system
E)would remain under control of the nervous system;would be useless
Q2) You are trying out for the USA Olympic gymnastics team.Everything is going well until you turn your ankle on the landing and tear a connection between two bones.Now you will have to wait another four years.Which of the following could you have done to your ankle?
A)sprained a ligament
B)strained a ligament
C)sprained a tendon
D)strained a tendon
Q3) Where are blood cells produced?
A)in red marrow inside of bones
B)in yellow marrow inside of bones
C)in joints by creatine phosphate
D)in the liver
E)in the spleen
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Chapter 27: The Circulatory and Respiratory Systems
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Q1) The major vein returning blood to the heart from all areas below the diaphragm is the
A)femoral vein.
B)pulmonary vein.
C)inferior vena cava.
D)superior vena cava.
E)jugular vein.
Q2) Why could not a human absorb enough oxygen through their skin like sea anemones are able to?
A)Our surface area to volume ratio is too high for oxygen to reach all tissues.
B)Sea anemones live in water,and there is more oxygen available.
C)Our surface area to volume ratio is too low for oxygen to reach all tissues.
D)Our capillaries do not come close enough to the skin to absorb oxygen.
E)Sea anemones have a larger heart relative to the rest of their body.
Q3) In a closed circulatory system,the heart pumps fluid through open-ended vessels into spaces where the fluid bathes the body's cells.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 28: Regulating Temperature, nutrients, and Body
Fluids
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Q1) The enzyme that breaks down the main sugar found in milk is A)lipase.
B)amylase.
C)lactase.
D)pepsin.
E)bilE.
Q2) What effect would drinking salt water have in a human?
A)dehydration as the extra salt pulls water out of the blood into the urine
B)dehydration as the extra salt pulls water out of the urine into the blood
C)increased hydration as the extra salt in the blood pulls water out of tissues
D)increased hydration as the extra salt in the urine pulls water out of tissues
E)dehydration as salt in the intestines pulls water out of the urine
Q3) A person suffering from lactose intolerance cannot break down the disaccharide lactose.Where would lactose be found in a person with lactose intolerance,but not in a lactose tolerant person?
A)in the mouth
B)in the stomach
C)in the large intestine
D)in the small intestine
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Chapter 29: The Immune System
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the section "Investigating Life: The Hidden Cost of Hygiene",what is the hygiene hypothesis?
A)People who have more infections will have an overactive immune system.
B)People who have better hygiene and are cleaner will have more infections.
C)People who have better hygiene and are cleaner will have a weaker immune system.
D)People who have fewer infections will have an overactive immune system.
E)People who have better hygiene and are cleaner will have fewer infections.
Q2) Which of the following would occur if the lymphatic system was absent?
A)Cancer would not spread as quickly because cancerous cells would not be transported by the lymphatic system,nor stored in lymph nodes.
B)Bacteria located in the body would not be destroyed if they were not in the blood.
C)Viruses located in the body would not be destroyed if they were not in the blood.
D)Cancer cells located in the body would not be destroyed if they were not in the blooD.
E)All of the choices are correct.
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Chapter 30: Animal Reproduction and Development
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77 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/61951
Sample Questions
Q1) The structure of reproductive systems is similar between some organisms.What prevents fertilization of gametes from different organisms?
A)The sperm is too large or too small to fertilize the egg.
B)The large body size of one organism and the small body size of the other organism prevents internal fertilization.
C)One organism reproduces externally and the other organism requires internal fertilization.
D)Proteins on the surface of the egg and sperm are only recognized by the correct organism.
E)All answers are correct.
Q2) Although impossible in humans,what is the result if two sperm fertilized an egg?
A)a haploid zygote with one third of the total chromosomes from each gamete
B)a diploid zygote with one half of the total chromosomes from each gamete
C)a diploid zygote with all of the chromosomes from each gamete
D)a triploid zygote with all of the chromosomes from each gamete
E)identical twins
Q3) The ovarian cycle prepares the uterus for pregnancy.
A)True
B)False
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