Biology I Practice Questions
Course Introduction
Biology I is an introductory course that explores the fundamental principles of life and living organisms. Students will examine cellular structure and function, genetics, evolution, biological diversity, and ecological relationships. Emphasis is placed on the scientific method, experimental design, and critical thinking skills as they relate to biological concepts. Through lectures, laboratory work, and discussions, students gain a foundational understanding of the molecular and cellular basis of life, mechanisms of inheritance, and the diversity and unity of living organisms within the biosphere.
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Discover Biology Core Topics 5th Edition by Anu Singh Cundy
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Nature of Science and the Characteristics of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Plants convert the energy in ____________________ into energy-rich substances using a process called photosynthesis.
Answer: sunlight
Q2) The scientific method begins with ____________________.
Answer: observations
Q3) A _____ consists of groups of different species living and interacting in a given area.
A)biosphere
B)population
C)community
D)habitat
Answer: C
Q4) Having first developed a ____________________, scientists can then propose testable predictions.
Answer: hypothesis
Q5) Once experimental data verifies a prediction the hypothesis is considered proven.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 2: Biological Diversity, Bacteria, and Archaea
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Q1) Viral classification and biology has been challenging; presently most biologists agree that viruses
A)should be classified as members of the kingdom Protista.
B)are constructed from a protein wrapped around DNA or RNA.
C)use a photosynthetic process more similar to bacteria than plants.
D)should be classified as autochemotrophic.
Answer: B
Q2) The most inclusive category in the Linnaean classification system is A)order.
B)phylum.
C)kingdom.
D)species.
Answer: C
Q3) Which of the following is a kingdom?
A)Bacteria
B)Eukarya
C)Plantae
D)Archaea
Answer: C
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Protista, Plantae, and Fungi
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Sample Questions
Q1) Despite having cell walls like plant cells, this feature is not considered a shared derived trait between the fungi and plants because
A)fungal cell walls are incomplete.
B)chitin rather than cellulose is the primary structural component of a fungal cell wall.
C)digestive enzyme can be secreted through the cell wall of a hypha.
D)glycogen rather than glucose is a primary structural component of a fungal cell wall.
Answer: B
Q2) Protists are not considered to represent a complete evolutionary lineage because A)there are three lineages within the group.
B)they evolved long ago.
C)they evolved recently.
D)there is only one lineage within the group.
Answer: A
Q3) One reason plants can live on land is because they have developed a ____________________, which facilitates the distribution of water and nutrients obtained from the soil.
Answer: vascular system
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Chapter 4: Animalia
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Q1) The addition of a ____________________ to the egg of reptiles and birds permits a longer development time and a more capable individual when hatched.
Q2) Relationships among the animals having body cavities can be easily determined by examination of embryonic development; vertebrates and echinoderms are grouped together because in each group the A)infolding that forms the body cavity eventually becomes the anus.
B)zygote divides repeatedly to become a blastula.
C)death of specific cells creates the internal hollow that eventually becomes the body cavity.
D)embryonic coelom is lined with mesodermal tissues.
Q3) In addition to embryonic similarities the chordates and echinoderms also each possess a hollow nerve cord located on the ____________________ side of the body.
Q4) Recent analysis of the cell membranes of sponges indicates a much closer relationship to other animals than previously thought.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Endoderm forms the ____________________ layer of an animal embryo.
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Chapter 5: The Chemistry of Life
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Q1) ATP is a universal fuel for living organisms. The energy that ATP molecules deliver in chemical reactions is stored in
A)covalent bonds between the molecule's phosphate groups.
B)covalent bonds between the molecule's sugar and phosphate groups.
C)hydrogen bonds between the bases of two of these molecules.
D)ionic bonds between the molecule's sugar and base.
Q2) The chemical reaction that represents the combustion of glucose is C H O + O CO H O; _____ are the reactants.
A)CO and H O
B)O and H O
C)C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>12</sub>O<sub>6</sub> and O
D)C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>12</sub>O<sub>6</sub> and CO
Q3) Oxygen has six electrons in its outer shell that can hold up to eight electrons. As a result, oxygen will commonly form ____________________ covalent bonds.
Q4) Oil and water do not mix together well because
A)water is polar and oil is nonpolar.
B)only identical molecules of the same chemical can easily mix together.
C)water has hydrogen bonds and oil is polar.
D)water and oil are covalently bonded together.
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Chapter 6: Cell Structure and Internal Compartments
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Sample Questions
Q1) Molecules of _____ are consumed by mitochondria during cellular respiration.
A)O
B)CO
C)H O
D)NO
Q2) The protist that causes malaria, Plasmodium falciparum, is unusual in that it is an intracellular parasite. Most parasites are too large to enter cells. How does P. falciparum accomplish its entry?
A)By inserting a pore into the cell membrane and later using the pore as an entry portal.
B)By pushing aside the phospholipids and sliding through.
C)By digesting one of the membrane proteins and moving through the vacant space produced by its removal.
D)By moving through the channel of a transport protein.
Q3) Which of the following statements is false?
A)The plasma membrane prevents some molecules from entering the cell.
B)The plasma membrane prevents some molecules from leaving the cell.
C)The plasma membrane receives signals from the outside environment.
D)The plasma membrane is the storehouse for each cell's genetic information.
Q4) The ____________________ found in eukaryotic cells have cristae.
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Chapter 7: Cell Membranes, Transport, and Communication
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Sample Questions
Q1) Steroids are unable to cross the plasma membrane.
A)True
B)False
Q2) During ____________________ endocytosis, specific substances interact with proteins located on the plasma membrane of the cell.
Q3) People are often warned to watch their blood cholesterol level to be sure it does not become too high. In fact, some people do not eat any cholesterol-containing foods at all. Even though we associate elevated cholesterol levels with a risk of heart attack and stroke, why does the body make some cholesterol even if none is eaten?
A)Cholesterol is the basis of all steroid hormones in the body.
B)Cholesterol is used by the mitochondria for cellular respiration.
C)Cholesterol is a short-range signaling molecule that does not last long in the body.
D)Cholesterol is a key component of DNA.
Q4) Several types of lipoproteins exist; the best balance for cardiovascular health is achieved with ____________________ LDL and ____________________ HDL.
Q5) The viscous coating found around most animal cells is called the extracellular ____________________.
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Chapter 8: Energy, Metabolism, and Enzymes
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Sample Questions
Q1) The shape of an enzyme does not affect its activity.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A calorie represents the
A)number of grams of fat in a food product.
B)number of times an enzyme can be reused before it must be replaced.
C)amount of energy needed to raise the temperature of one liter of water by 1°C.
D)temperature at which a gram of food is completely converted into carbon dioxide.
Q3) Imagine a system consisting of a mousetrap with the arm set and latched and with the level of potential energy high. This potential energy was added to the mousetrap
A)when it was first constructed.
B)as kinetic energy when the spring arm was pulled back and latched.
C)when the latch was released and the arm sprang forward.
D)when the various materials used to construct the mousetrap were selected.
Q4) The first law of thermodynamics states that the total energy of a system and its surroundings remains constant.
A)True
B)False
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Photosynthesis and Cellular Respiration
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Q1) A funnel is used to channel substances collected over a wide area into a narrow-necked container. A funnel might be a good analogy for the A)reaction center.
B)antenna complex.
C)thylakoid.
D)stoma.
Q2) The ETC in the chloroplast or mitochondrion gradually lower the energy content of an electron as it passes from carrier to carrier, similar to the reduction in energy content of a
A)cannonball that reaches the high point of its flight and then returns to the ground.
B)bowling ball bouncing down a flight of stairs and landing temporarily on each step.
C)pair of sunglasses that intercepts ultraviolet radiation before it reaches your eyes.
D)recently baked pie cooling on the counter before it can be cut and eaten.
Q3) The mitochondria of plants contain thylakoids.
A)True
B)False
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11
Chapter 10: Cell Division
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Sample Questions
Q1) During independent assortment the paternal and maternal homologous chromosomes separate into different daughter cells.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Lily plants sometimes have twice as many chromosomes per cell as their parent plants had. Which of the following explains how this might have happened?
A)The lily's sister chromatids failed to separate during meiosis.
B)The chromosome number of the lily went from 2n to 1n.
C)The lily gametes fused during mitosis.
D)The parent plant lost half of its chromosomes during mitosis.
Q3) The fact that DNA is distributed into homologous pairs allows
A)cells to reduce their chromosome number by half during meiosis.
B)a cell to begin meiosis with only half of its DNA.
C)sex chromosomes to exist in some cells.
D)microtubules to attach to only half of the chromosomes.
Q4) DNA ____________________ is essential to cell division because it separates the two copies of DNA attached by the centromere.
Q5) The four cells that result from meiosis are ____________________ rather than diploid.
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Chapter 11: Stem Cells, Cancer, and Human Health
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Q1) For proper cell division to occur, the activity of proto-oncogenes must be balanced by the activity of ____________________ genes.
Q2) Mutations cause changes in ____________________ produced by a gene.
Q3) The capacity of embryonic stem cells and HeLa cells to divide repeatedly suggests that they share one or more common features, the most important is probably the ability to synthesize ____________________ and repair their chromosomes after each round of cell division.
Q4) In order to be healthy, an organism must stop all cell division activities.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The mutation of p53 generally results in the formation of a malignant tumor. A)True
B)False
Q6) In the future, viruses may cure as well as cause cancer.
A)True
B)False
Q7) All viruses cause cancer.
A)True
B)False
Q8) Positive growth regulators increase the rate of ____________________.
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Chapter 12: Patterns of Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mendel's manuscript discussing his pea-breeding results is considered one of the two most important scientific papers of the nineteenth century because he was the first to explain how
A)mutations produced the variety of alleles displayed by individuals of the same species.
B)traits are passed from one generation to the next.
C)meiosis controls the distribution of alleles to each gamete.
D)genes are arranged on chromosomes in the cell.
Q2) A Punnett square is used to
A)determine the source of new alleles.
B)determine how many genes control a given trait.
C)predict the gametes that will be produced by an organism.
D)predict the outcome of a genetic cross.
Q3) Which of the following choices represents the genotype of an individual diploid organism?
A)BbCCdd
B)BCd
C)bCd
D)BbCd
Q4) The genetic makeup of an organism, such as Gg, is its ____________________.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Chromosomes and Human Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) All diseases are the result of inherited traits.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Recessive genetic disorders are quickly eliminated from human populations because people who have them die before they can reproduce.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Chromosomes are composed of DNA and A)RNA.
B)alleles.
C)lipids.
D)proteins.
Q4) In humans, which of the following chromosomes would probably carry the fewest genes?
A)the Y chromosome
B)chromosome 4
C)the X chromosome
D)chromosome 14
Q5) A female who is a carrier of the sex-linked gene A has the genotype
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Chapter 14: Dna and Genes
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Sample Questions
Q1) An operator is a sequence of DNA whose function it is to
A)bind to the chromosome to prevent replication.
B)bind to the chromosome to prevent gene expression.
C)control the transcription of a gene or group of genes.
D)control the translation of a gene or group of genes.
Q2) Which of the following is directly involved in the regulation of transcription?
A)ribosomes
B)tRNA
C)DNA polymerase
D)repressor protein
Q3) DNA consists of two twisted strands of ____________________.
Q4) The most common way for cells to control gene expression is by controlling A)translation.
B)transcription.
C)spacer DNA frequency.
D)mutation.
Q5) Translation builds DNA from an RNA template.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Gene ____________________ is the synthesis of a gene's protein or RNA product.
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Chapter 15: From Gene to Protein
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Sample Questions
Q1) Each tRNA molecule has a site at one end that
A)acts as a promoter and a site at the other end that acts as a terminator.
B)binds to a codon and a site at the other end that binds to an anticodon.
C)binds to an amino acid and a site at the other end that binds to a promoter.
D)binds to an amino acid and a site at the other end that binds to a codon.
Q2) During RNA splicing,
A)introns are removed from RNA and the remaining exons are glued together to form a mature mRNA.
B)an RNA molecule is cut up into many small pieces and each piece forms a single mRNA.
C)exons are removed from RNA and the remaining introns are fused to form a single mRNA.
D)RNA is used to remove mutations from essential genes.
Q3) The sequence of nucleotides on an mRNA molecule
A)is complementary to the DNA template strand.
B)matches the sequence of the ribosome that will translate the mRNA.
C)exactly matches the template strand (except where U is substituted for T).
D)is identical to that of the promoter.
Q4) For translation to begin mRNA must first bind to a ____________________.
Q5) Most molecules of RNA are ____________________-stranded.
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Dna Technology
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Q1) A vector is used to
A)transfer a gene to a specific cell in the body.
B)separate DNA fragments from one another.
C)probe DNA for faulty genes.
D)attach DNA fragments to one another.
Q2) The use of genetic engineering has social, economic, and ecological implications.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In comparison to DNA technology, selective breeding is
A)less precise and slower.
B)faster and more direct.
C)slower and more accurate.
D)faster and safer.
Q4) Restriction enzymes work only on bacterial DNA.
A)True
B)False
Q5) In RNA ____________________, the expression of a specific gene is blocked by small pieces of RNA.
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Chapter 17: How Evolution Works
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Q1) The proteins and DNA of organisms that share a recent common ancestor are ____________________ [more or less] similar than the proteins and DNA of organisms that do not share a recent common ancestor.
Q2) Nonheritable genetic changes can cause evolution within a population.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is not homologous to any of the others?
A)the wing of a bat
B)the flipper of a whale
C)the leg of a grasshopper
D)the arm of a human
Q4) Humans bred cows specialized for milk production by allowing female cows that produce large quantities of milk to mate only with male cows with mothers that also produced large quantities of milk. This is an example of ____________________ selection.
Q5) Convergent evolution produces
A)genetic drift.
B)lines of common descent.
C)homologous characteristics.
D)analogous characteristics.
19
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Chapter 18: Evolution of Populations
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Q1) One factor that complicates the treatment of AIDS is the
A)low mutation rate of HIV.
B)high mutation rate of HIV.
C)random mating between viral particles.
D)nonrandom mating between viral particles.
Q2) What is the total number of alleles present for any given gene in a population of 100 individuals?
A)50
B)100
C)200
D)400
Q3) Scientists have hypothesized that the reason European men have darker skin color than European women is that more than 10,000 years ago, these men preferred to mate with lighter-skinned females. If this is true, skin color is an example of _____ in Europeans.
A)gene flow
B)a genetic bottleneck
C)sexual selection
D)recombination
Q4) Genetic drift causes random changes in ____________________ frequency.
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Speciation and the Origins of Biological Diversity
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Q1) Even though humans are causing the extinction of large numbers of species, the process of speciation should replace them within a few decades.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is responsible for the nearly perfect match in color pattern between a species of praying mantis (an insect)and the leaves on which it rests?
A)genetic drift
B)adaptive evolution
C)the Hardy-Weinberg equation
D)speciation
Q3) The Eastern skunk cabbage, which blooms in very early spring, produces chemicals that smell like decaying meat. This plant has probably become adapted to mate with the assistance of
A)butterflies.
B)honeybees.
C)flies.
D)wind.
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Page 21
Chapter 20: The Evolutionary History of Life
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Q1) You are looking at the side of a cliff with many clearly visible layers of rock. In the top layer you find the fossil of a mouse. In the next layer down you find the fossil of a frog. Two layers down from that you find the fossil of a beetle, and in the deepest layer the fossil of a millipede. This is evidence that
A)mice evolved before frogs.
B)frogs evolved after mice.
C)millipedes were the first among these animals to evolve.
D)the beetle evolved before millipedes.
Q2) Which kind of organism makes up the oldest fossil found on Earth?
A)protists
B)animals
C)bacteria
D)plants
Q3) Archaic Homo sapiens gave rise to
A)Neandertals and modern humans.
B)Homo habilis and Australopithecus africanus.
C)Australopithecus africanus and Neandertals.
D)Homo erectus and Homo habilis.
Q4) The first single-celled organisms arose 3.5 ____________________ years ago.
Q5) Mammals evolved from ____________________ about 220 million years ago.
Page 22
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Chapter 21: The Biosphere
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Q1) Rain shadows often form on the side of a mountain that is away from the prevailing winds (leeward side). Rain falls on the windward side due to the air rising and cooling, causing the air to lose water as rain.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Boreal forests receive relatively little rainfall but moisture is adequate during the growing season because
A)these plants do not require much water.
B)evaporation rates are low due to the low temperatures.
C)the deep, nutrient-rich soils retain a great deal of water.
D)permafrost melts and provides water in the summer.
Q3) The plastic toys that were accidently released into the north Pacific Ocean demonstrated that materials can be widely transported on currents from the Pacific to the Atlantic Ocean and as far as Indonesia.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A measure of the energy that producers are able to store as biomass is ____________________.
Q5) The ____________________ consists of all life and its surroundings.
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Chapter 22: Growth of Populations
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Q1) Lynx feed on rabbits, and the growth curves for these two species fluctuate together. This relationship is an example of a(n)
A)S-shaped growth curve.
B)J-shaped growth curve.
C)irregular fluctuation.
D)tightly linked cycle.
Q2) The population explosion that occurred shortly after the Opuntia cactus was introduced to Australia is an example of A)exponential growth.
B)emigration.
C)reduced population density.
D)a native species outcompeting an introduced species.
Q3) China's ____________________ policy has slowed the growth of the population in that country to 0.57 percent currently from 1.07 percent during the 1990s.
Q4) A population grows as more of its individuals emigrate.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 23: Ecological Communities
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Q1) Which example best illustrates interference competition?
A)Soil levels of potassium are gradually reduced by the hemlocks and cedars in a climax forest.
B)The growth of starling populations usually coincides with declines in song birds because both use abandoned cavities for nesting.
C)When larger animals become scarce, wolves often prey on mice, reducing their availability to coyotes.
D)Rough-skinned newts contain enough toxin in their skin glands to kill almost any predator.
Q2) In a typical prairie food web energy moves from grass to grasshopper to field mouse to fox. Which organism is the tertiary consumer?
A)the grass
B)the grasshopper
C)the mouse
D)the fox
Q3) Without pollinator mutualism, agricultural productivity could fall significantly.
A)True
B)False
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25
Chapter 24: Ecosystems
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Q1) With respect to the following values, rain with a pH of _____ would be the most acidic.
A)7
B)3
C)8
D)5
Q2) Sedimentary nutrients
A)cycle very slowly and can often become limiting.
B)are easily replaced if lost from an ecosystem by erosion of the local rock.
C)are distributed from locally abundant reservoirs through atmospheric circulation.
D)include carbon, oxygen, nitrogen, and sulfur.
Q3) The rate of secondary productivity is highest in areas
A)with low net primary productivity.
B)with few producers.
C)with high net primary productivity.
D)where plants act as decomposers.
Q4) Methane is about 20 times less powerful as a greenhouse gas than carbon dioxide.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 25: Global Change
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Q1) Humans are changing the way many chemicals ____________________ through ecosystems.
Q2) Bisphenol A is found in plastic water bottles and has been shown to cause an increased risk of diabetes and reproductive problems among other disorders. Bisphenol A acts as a(n)____________________.
Q3) Carbon dioxide levels are increasing because A)human agriculture has greatly increased the amount of carbon dioxide given off by plants during respiration.
B)humans have begun releasing carbon that was formerly sequestered in fossil fuels into the atmosphere.
C)holes in the ozone layer have reduced the total amount of photosynthesis occurring in the biosphere.
D)the huge growth in the human population and domestic livestock has increased the amount of carbon dioxide being released through respiration.
Q4) The highest concentrations of environmental pollutants are typically found in the predators at the top of the food web.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 26: Internal Organization and Homeostasis
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Q1) Which of the following is not a means used by chickadees to conserve heat in the winter?
A)reducing convection
B)reducing radiation
C)reducing metabolism
D)reducing evaporation
Q2) The lack of water, otherwise known as ____________________, can lead to heatstroke.
Q3) Secretion and ____________________ take place in the U-shaped kidney tubule.
Q4) Individual cells that are deeply embedded in a large animal are surrounded by _____, which provides nutrients, delivers hormones, and carries away wastes.
A)a plasma membrane
B)interstitial fluid
C)blood plasma
D)capillaries
Q5) Sweating results in heat loss by convection.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Shivering and goose bumps are ways of producing ____________________.
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Chapter 27: Nutrition and Digestion
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Q1) In mammals, the mechanical breakdown of food involves teeth. In worms, the mechanical breakdown is accomplished by a ____________________.
Q2) Organisms need energy to carry out life processes, but they also must use energy simply to gather nutrients. Which of the following statements must be true in order for an organism to live?
A)The amount of energy ingested in proteins must equal the amount of energy ingested in carbohydrates.
B)If the amount of energy used for life processes is low, the organism must ingest extra nutrients in order to produce body heat.
C)The amount of energy used to gather nutrients must be more than the amount of energy used to carry out life processes.
D)The amount of energy used for life processes, including nutrient gathering, must be less than the amount of energy captured from the environment.
Q3) Because they are not soluble in water, fats are digested in a different way than proteins and carbohydrates.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 28: Circulation and Gas Exchange
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Q1) Which of the following statements about the size of an organism's gas exchange surface is true?
A)Organisms with small demands generally still have large gas exchange surfaces.
B)Extra gill surface area in a fish would help lower the drag forces in water.
C)The surface area of a gas exchange surface is sized to match the needs of the organism.
D)The lungs of active mammals have smaller gas exchange surfaces than the lungs of less active mammals.
Q2) Hemoglobin, like many other oxygen-binding pigments, contains the metallic element ____________________.
Q3) Referring to the question above, which of the following responses will not be temporarily expressed by visitors to high altitudes?
A)increased blood flow
B)increased concentration of hemoglobin in the blood
C)increased heart rate
D)increased attraction of hemoglobin to oxygen
Q4) In humans and many other animals gases are transported in ____________________, which travels rapidly in a circulatory system.
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Chapter 29: Animal Hormones
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Q1) Which of the following is true of birth control pills?
A)They prevent ovulation by maintaining consistently high levels of progesterone.
B)They prevent fertilization by changing the chemical makeup of the protective "shell" of the egg so that it cannot be penetrated by sperm.
C)They prevent sperm from entering the uterus.
D)They break down the synchronicity of ovulation and preparation of the uterus so that when the egg is released, the uterus is not at the right stage to receive it.
Q2) A diabetic would most likely inject insulin
A)after waking up in the morning.
B)preceding mealtime.
C)after a long walk.
D)when blood glucose levels are low.
Q3) By what mechanism do most hormones travel through the organism that produces them?
A)the circulatory system
B)diffusion
C)convection
D)the nervous system
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Chapter 30: Nervous and Sensory Systems
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Q1) In the eyes of animals that are primarily active at night, such as raccoons, the retina would
A)contain mostly rods.
B)not have pupils.
C)focus images.
D)lack a fovea.
Q2) The axons of many individual neurons may be bundled together to form communication pathways known as ____________________.
Q3) Initially, when a neuron receives a stimulus,
A)sodium diffuses out of the neuron.
B)neurotransmitters are released from axon terminals.
C)sodium channels close.
D)sodium enters the neuron.
Q4) The brain has important interactions with the endocrine system. Which part of the brain directly stimulates the release of hormones from the pituitary gland?
A)hypothalamus
B)cerebrum
C)cerebellum
D)central cortex
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Chapter 31: Skeletons, Muscles, and Movement
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Q1) Which of the following is not one of the three different types of support structures that make up the human skeleton?
A)bone
B)organs
C)cartilage
D)hydrostatic structures
Q2) Ligaments are connective tissues that connect ____________________ to bone.
Q3) A single muscle fiber from a flea can lift about the same weight as a single muscle fiber from a human.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Animals that swim expend less energy to move than do animals that walk or fly because
A)water provides less resistance than air.
B)gravity has more impact on aquatic animals than it does on terrestrial animals.
C)aquatic animals do not have to use muscles to move their fins and tails.
D)the streamlined shapes and nonstick surfaces of aquatic animals reduce resistance due to drag.
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Chapter 32: Defenses Against Disease
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Q1) Neutrophils usually get to a wound site ____________________ [before or after] macrophages begin phagocytizing bacteria.
Q2) Why is it important that white blood cells are able to travel outside the human circulatory system?
A)To form a complement, white blood cells must leave the circulatory vessels. B)White blood cells are the antibodies that target parasites.
C)Pathogens may be found in areas of the body other than within circulatory vessels. D)White blood cells must leave the circulatory system in order to return red blood cells to the circulatory vessels.
Q3) Each T cell and each B cell binds only to one specific type of A)antibody.
B)neutrophil.
C)antigen.
D)prostaglandin.
Q4) ____________________ blood cells are a kind of defensive cell found in the interstitial fluid between the cells in the most vulnerable parts of the body and circulating in the blood.
Q5) Macrophages and neutrophils make up a ____________________ response to invaders.
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Chapter 33: Reproduction and Development
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Q1) Sperm are packed with mitochondria because mitochondria produce the A)sugars that keep the sperm alive during its journey through the female reproductive tract.
B)enzymes used to break through the zona pellucida before fertilization.
C)ATP used to complete spermatogenesis.
D)energy needed to power the movement of the tail of the sperm.
Q2) Because human males can produce sperm and fertilize eggs their entire life, there is no effect on the quality of the sperm or offspring produced.
A)True
B)False
Q3) During apoptosis in the feet of chicken embryos, the activation of a single ____________________ causes the cells between the toes to die.
Q4) In human females, primary oocytes do not develop into mature eggs
A)unless they are fertilized.
B)until they reach the uterus.
C)until the first trimester.
D)until puberty.
Q5) During labor more and more oxytocin is produced due to ____________________ feedback.
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Chapter 34: Animal Behavior
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Q1) Which of the following choices is not a method of communication?
A)human language
B)learning
C)visual signals
D)scent marking
Q2) When a mother nurses her child for the first time, the sucking of the infant stimulates the release of milk. Within a few weeks of birth, the cry of the infant stimulates the same response. Which of these is a fixed behavior?
A)releasing milk in response to sucking
B)releasing milk in response to crying
C)both a and b
D)neither a nor b
Q3) Which of the following statements about genetically controlled behaviors is true?
A)Identical twins are more likely to express the same behavior than other sets of siblings are.
B)Identical twins will always express the same behavior.
C)The environment has no effect on the expression of behavior.
D)Genetics has no effect on the expression of behavior.
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Chapter 35: Plant Structure, Nutrition, and Transport
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Q1) Most carnivorous plants obtain energy through photosynthesis; they consume insects to obtain ____________________.
Q2) Many plants and animals move water and nutrients within internal vessels. Animals use the energy of muscle contraction; however, no metabolic energy is expended when water and minerals move within a plant's xylem.
A)True
B)False
Q3) To conserve water, desert plants may have leaves that are reduced or entirely absent, in which case the plant's stems can perform photosynthesis.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Most aboveground plant growth occurs with the repeated addition of ____________________ units.
Q5) Aristotle showed that plants get most of what they need to grow from the air. A)True
B)False
Q6) ____________________ is the evaporation of water from the surface of a leaf.
Q7) The most abundant plant cell type in ground tissue is ____________________.
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Chapter 36: Plant Growth and Reproduction
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Q1) Meristem cells in plants are similar to ____________________ cells in vertebrates.
Q2) During pollination, pollen is moved from A)stigmas to sepals. B)anthers to stigmas. C)ovules to anthers. D)carpels to stamens.
Q3) Pollen is produced in the A)ovules.
B)anthers. C)style. D)stigma.
Q4) Plants grow in length
A)from lateral meristems located within the stem.
B)due to the elongation of cells throughout the body of the plant. C)from vascular cambium located just under the bark.
D)only at the tips of the roots and the shoots where apical meristems are located.
Q5) The growth of a plant zygote into an embryo occurs within the
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