Biology I Exam Practice Tests
Course Introduction
Biology I is an introductory course designed to provide students with a foundational understanding of the principles of biology. Covering topics such as cell structure and function, genetics, evolution, ecology, and biological diversity, this course emphasizes the scientific method and critical thinking skills. Through a combination of lectures, laboratory experiments, and collaborative projects, students will explore the fundamental processes that govern living organisms and their interactions with the environment, preparing them for more advanced studies in the biological sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Inquiry into Life 14th Edition by Sylvia Mader
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Chapter 1: The Study of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) You are conducting an experiment to determine which brand of fertilizer results in the greatest amount of fruit production by tomato plants.In this example,the response variable would be the
A) brand of fertilizer.
B) unfertilized tomato plants.
C) fertilized tomato plants.
D) amount of fruit produced by the tomato plants.
E) variety of tomato plants.
Answer: D
Q2) Which of these classification categories contains the closest related organisms?
A) domain
B) genus
C) family
D) phylum
E) kingdom
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: The Molecules of Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) Buffers
A) are strong acids or bases.
B) keep the pH within normal limits.
C) release large amounts of hydrogen ions (H<sup>+</sup>).
D) lower the pH.
E) increase the pH.
Answer: B
Q2) The pH of blood is slightly basic.Which of the following would therefore be an expected pH for blood?
A) 6.4
B) 4.6
C) 4.7
D) 7.4
E) 13.8
Answer: D
Q3) Briefly describe the major functions of lipids in the human body.
Answer: Answers will vary but should include the following information.Fats and oils function as energy storage molecules.Phospholipids form the cell membrane and inner compartments of the cell.Steroids include the sex hormones.
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Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following would be considered evidence that chloroplasts are involved in photosynthesis?
A) Isolated chloroplasts give off oxygen when exposed to sunlight.
B) Plants that are green contain chloroplasts.
C) Both plants and algae have chloroplasts.
D) Plants have both chloroplasts and mitochondria.
E) Chloroplasts contain thylakoids which are stacked in structures called grana.
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following cells was most likely the first type of cells on Earth?
A) Bacteria
B) Fungi
C) Archaea
D) Plants
E) Animals
Answer: A
Q3) Because mitochondria were once independently living prokaryotic cells,if removed from a eukaryotic cell they can survive independently.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 4: Membrane Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The extracellular matrix is responsible for which of the following features?
A) The extracellular matrix does all of these features.
B) The extracellular matrix helps the cell resist stretching.
C) The extracellular matrix enables the cell to adhere to neighboring cells.
D) The extracellular matrix plays a role in cell signaling.
E) The extracellular matrix acts as a structural feature.
Q2) Once a solute and a solvent are evenly distributed in a solution,they will A) stop moving about.
B) move back toward a concentration of the solvent.
C) continue to move about but with no net movement to higher concentration.
D) be totally out of equilibrium.
E) move from a liquid to gaseous solution.
Q3) Explain the difference between peripheral proteins and integral proteins as they relate to the cell membrane.
Q4) Exocytosis and endocytosis are carried out by proteins in the cell membrane.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Compare and contrast exocytosis and endocytosis.
Q6) List the three types of intercelluar junctions found in animal cells and indicate their function.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Cell Division
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Sample Questions
Q1) The chromatids are held together at a region called the centromere.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Meiosis differs from mitosis in that
A) it occurs only in the reproductive tissues that produce gametes.
B) the chromosomes are duplicated twice.
C) the resulting cells are polyploid.
D) the chromosome pairs do not separate.
E) the daughter cells are all genetically identical to the mother cell and each other.
Q3) There are two sets of caspases operating during apoptosis.Which of the following statements does not correctly characterize the role of these caspases?
A) One set of caspases are called initators because they receive a signal to activate the second set.
B) One set of capsases are called executioners because they dismantle the cell.
C) Caspases can be unleashed by either internal or external signals.
D) Caspases are normally active during the entire cell cycle.
E) Caspases are responsible for the typical stages a cell goes through during apoptosis.
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Chapter 6: Metabolism: Energy and Enzymes
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Sample Questions
Q1) The high energy bond in ATP is found in or between
A) the adenine base.
B) the adenine and the ribose.
C) the ribose sugar.
D) the adenine and the phosphates.
E) the phosphate groups.
Q2) Enzymes are specific.This means that they
A) have a preferred pH.
B) have a preferred temperature.
C) have a particular substrate.
D) are only in certain cells.
E) require ATP and cofactors in order to work properly.
Q3) Because the inside of a cell is more organized than the outside,the inside of the cell has increased entropy.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Heat is not a form of energy.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain the difference between an endergonic and an exergonic reaction?
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Cellular Respiration
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following reactions is NOT part of the cellular respiration pathway?
A) glycolysis
B) citric acid cycle
C) Calvin cycle
D) electron transport chain
E) preparatory reaction (prep)
Q2) Fermentation follows glycolysis in some cells if oxygen is not available.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Pyruvate contains less chemical energy than glucose.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The citric acid cycle turns once for each original glucose molecule.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Glycolysis is linked to the citric acid cycle when oxygen is not available.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Write out the overall equation for cellular respiration.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Photosynthesis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following organisms will not have a dependency on photosynthesis for their energy?
A) white tailed deer
B) wolves
C) squirrels
D) raccoons
E) All of these will have a dependency on photosynthesis.
Q2) Only organisms with chloroplasts are capable of photosynthesis.
A)True
B)False
Q3) NADPH and ATP are used in the
A) noncyclic electron pathway.
B) cyclic electron pathway.
C) Calvin cycle reactions.
D) citric acid cycle.
E) light reactions.
Q4) Explain why CAM plants are adapted to a desert type of environment.
Q5) At night,plants do not carry out any metabolism because there is no sunlight. A)True
B)False
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Plant Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement is NOT true regarding phloem transport during the summer in plants?
A) The leaves must make sugar.
B) A higher pressure exists in the leaves than in the roots.
C) Water follows sugar into sieve-tube members in the leaves.
D) Sugar is transported by passive diffusion into sieve-tube members.
E) There is a fluid flow from the leaves to the roots.
Q2) The tendrils that support vining plants are a type of stem.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The roots of many plants have a relationship with fungi called A) root nodules.
B) root hairs.
C) trichomes.
D) adventitious roots.
E) mycorrhizae.
Q4) Both plants and animals have organs and tissues.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain the difference between stolons and rhizomes.
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Plant Reproduction and Responses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Asexual reproduction in plants does NOT involve
A) daughter plants being genetically identical to the parent plant.
B) the production of gametes.
C) a portion of one plant giving rise to a completely new plant.
D) vegetative propagation.
E) the use of runners.
Q2) Which substance will help in seed germination and indicates to the plant that the stem must elongate to reach the light?
A) cytokinins
B) ethylene
C) auxin
D) agent orange
E) phytochrome
Q3) Hemp (Cannabis sativa)is a dioecious plant.This means that the flowers of hemp
A) are complete.
B) are incomplete.
C) are perfect.
D) contain both stamens and carpels.
E) contain both petals and sepals.
Q4) Explain the various uses of gibberellins in the agricultural industry.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Human Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Name the tissue in which the cells are separated by a liquid.
A) cartilage
B) nerve
C) blood
D) muscle
E) bone
Q2) The disruption of homeostaisis can lead to what type of disease that can be life-threatening,but usually occurs and is resolved quickly?
A) chronic
B) systemic
C) acute
D) localized
E) simple
Q3) Which of the following tissues is INCORRECTLY matched with a function?
A) epithelial-capillary lining
B) connective-storage of fat
C) muscle-protection from pathogens
D) nervous-integration of data
E) connective-production of blood cells
Q4) List the four major tissue types found in the human body.
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Chapter 12: Cardiovascular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement is NOT a correct association?
A) arteries-have a thick muscular layer
B) capillaries-oxygen and nutrient exchange
C) arteries-can control blood pressure
D) capillaries-contain most of overall blood volume
E) veins-valves to return blood to heart
Q2) The heart rate speeds up or slows down because the
A) AV node detects lower levels of oxygen and sends faster signals to the SA node.
B) brain consciously detects the need for more oxygen and intentionally stimulates the heart.
C) medulla oblongata, through the autonomic system, stimulates or depresses heart rate based on activity and stress.
D) hormone epinephrine inhibits the heartbeat.
E) SA node detects lower levels of oxygen and sends faster signals to the AV node.
Q3) The major portion of the heart is the myocardium,made up mainly of cardiac muscle.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Lymphatic and Immune Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) The textbook describes the problem with Rh factor hemolytic disease of the newborn in the case where the mother is Rh<sup>-</sup> and the father is Rh<sup>+</sup>.Which of the following statements is true?
A) This would also be a problem where the father is Rh<sup>-</sup> and the mother is Rh<sup>+</sup>.
B) This would be a problem any time the mother is Rh<sup>-</sup>, regardless of the father's blood type, since the mother has the immune problem.
C) This is only a problem in the given case because the Rh<sup>-</sup> mother lacks the Rh<sup>+</sup> protein and only a Rh<sup>+</sup> father could produce an Rh<sup>+</sup> child.
D) This is simply a matter of a mother having a lower threshold for rejecting foreign tissues since all babies have half-foreign tissues.
E) The problem is substantially more complicated since the hemolytic disease is also dependent on ABO blood groups.
Q2) Would untreated SCID be considered a lethal disease?
Q3) List the function of the following antibodies: IgG,IgM,IgA,IgD,and IgE.
Q4) List the steps involved with the production of monoclonal antibodies.
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Chapter 14: Digestive System and Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which structure in Figure 14.1 stores food,has limited digestion,and secretes HCl?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) 5
Q2) Which of the following human digestive enzymes is incorrectly matched to its substrate?
A) pepsin-protein
B) trypsin-nucleic acid
C) salivary amylase-starch
D) lipase-fat
E) maltase-maltose
Q3) Muscles that encircle tubes and act as valves are called
A) constrictors.
B) dilators.
C) sphincters.
D) lacteals.
E) mucosa.
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Chapter 15: Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify the four respiratory volumes that can be measured with a spirometer.
Q2) Which of the following diseases make up chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)?
A) emphysema, chronic bronchitis, and asthma
B) emphysema, tuberculosis, and cystic fibrosis
C) chronic bronchitis, tuberculosis, and pulmonary fibrosis
D) tuberculosis, cystic fibrosis, and asthma
E) pulmonary fibrosis, asthma, and cystic fibrosis
Q3) What keeps the alveoli open so that gas exchange can take place?
A) rings of cartilage
B) surfactant
C) smooth muscle
D) mucous
E) air
Q4) Oxygen is transported in blood most efficiently by
A) being dissolved in the plasma.
B) chemical conversion to water.
C) combining with hemoglobin.
D) combining with carbon dioxide to form bicarbonate ions.
E) a free oxygen ion or radical.
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Chapter 16: Urinary System and Excretion
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Sample Questions
Q1) There is an osmotic gradient within the tissues of the renal medulla: the concentration of salt is greater in the direction of the inner medulla.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Urinary tract infections confined to the urethra are called A) urethritis.
B) kidneyitis.
C) cystitis.
D) nephritis.
E) prostatitis.
Q3) Where would the blood be most viscous (least fluid)as it passes through the kidney?
A) before the glomerulus
B) after passing through the glomerulus but before reaching the loop of nephron
C) after the loop of nephron
D) Blood remains equally viscous at all points in the human body including the kidney nephrons.
E) in the renal vein
Q4) Describe the four major functions of the urinary system.
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Chapter 17: Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement is true regarding the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic motor pathways?
A) Both divisions have two neurons per message.
B) The sympathetic division is under voluntary control while the parasympathetic is under involuntary control.
C) The sympathetic divisions uses acetylcholine as the neurotransmitter.
D) The parasympathetic division uses norepinephrine as the neurotransmitter.
E) Only the sympathetic division controls smooth and cardiac muscle.
Q2) Which is NOT a correct association of brain structures and functions?
A) midbrain-reflex centers for visual, auditory, and tactile responses
B) cerebellum-coordinates smooth and coordinated motions
C) cerebrum-higher thought processes including learning, memory, and speech
D) pons-regulates breathing rate
E) thalamus-regulates heartbeat and blood pressure
Q3) A post-synaptic membrane
A) must be either an axon membrane or myelin sheath.
B) must be either a dendrite membrane or cell body membrane.
C) must be a cell body membrane.
D) must be either an axon or dendrite membrane.
E) must be either an axon or cell body membrane.
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Chapter 18: Senses
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Q1) List the parts of the ear that make up the outer ear,middle ear,and inner ear.
Q2) Taste and smell are examples of exteroceptors.
A)True
B)False
Q3) David has a problem with his vision.He sees very well but everything is in black and white.The problem is most likely with what part of his eye?
A) the cornea
B) the cones
C) the lens
D) the fovea centralis
E) the retina
Q4) Complete the following table of exteroreceptors.
Sensory Receptor Stimulus Category Sense
Taste Cells
Olfactory cells
Rods and cones in retina
Hair cells in spiral organ
Hair cells in semicircular canals
Hair cells in vestibule
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Chapter 19: Musculoskeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these gives the correct order from large to small?
A) muscle \(\rarr\) muscle cell \(\rarr\) myofibril \(\rarr\) sarcomeres \(\rarr\) filaments
B) muscle \(\rarr\) muscle fibers \(\rarr\) sarcomeres \(\rarr\) filaments \(\rarr\) myofibrils
C) muscle \(\rarr\) sarcomeres \(\rarr\) myofibrils \(\rarr\) actin filaments \(\rarr\) myosin filaments
D) muscle cells \(\rarr\) myofibrils \(\rarr\) filaments \(\rarr\) sarcomeres
E) muscle \(\rarr\) myofibrils \(\rarr\) sarcomeres \(\rarr\) muscle cells \(\rarr\) filaments
Q2) Jeremy has broken his leg during a soccer match.Although this is bad,from a healing standpoint,it is not as bad as if he had torn his cartilage.
A)True
B)False
Q3) All types of cartilage are associated with bones.
A)True B)False
Q4) Describe the six characteristics used to name skeletal muscles.
Q5) List the five major functions of the skeletal system.
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Chapter 20: Endocrine System
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Q1) Which statement is correct about the role of the ovaries?
A) Under the influence of gonadotropic hormones the ovaries produce eggs as well as estrogen and progesterone.
B) Under the influence of gonadotropic hormones the ovaries produce eggs as well as androgens.
C) The gonadotropic hormones are secreted by the posterior pituitary that will influence the ovaries to produce eggs as well as estrogen and progesterone.
D) Under the influence of gonadotropic hormones the ovaries produce sperm as well as estrogen and progesterone.
E) Under the influence of gonadotropic hormones the ovaries produce eggs as well as testosterone.
Q2) A hormone that acts on the hypothalamus to signal satiety is A) melatonin.
B) thymosin.
C) leptin.
D) growth hormone.
E) prostaglandins.
Q3) List and explain the role of the main growth factors.
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Chapter 21: Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which structure in humans produces FSH?
A) hypothalamus
B) ovary
C) uterus
D) pituitary
E) interstitial cells
Q2) HIV has a high rate of mutation because
A) HIV reverse transcriptase is likely to make errors when transcribing viral RNA into DNA.
B) HIV has RNA instead of DNA.
C) HIV infects T cells in the human immune system allowing the virus to respond directly to changes in the immune system.
D) HIV can only replicate in a host cell.
E) HIV is a bacteria and they have a higher expected rate of mutation.
Q3) The female condom is effective at preventing pregnancy as well as the transmission of sexually transmitted diseases.
A)True
B)False
Q4) List and describe the function of the female reproductive organs.
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Chapter 22: Development and Aging
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Q1) The formation of the lens of the vertebrate eye from a skin layer in contact with an outgrowth of the embryonic brain is an example of
A) cellular aggregation.
B) induction.
C) morphogenesis.
D) gastrulation.
E) neurulation.
Q2) Which one of the following is NOT derived from endoderm?
A) gut lining
B) hormonal glands
C) lungs
D) bones
E) bladder lining
Q3) Which of these is not associated with development?
A) Cells divide and get larger.
B) Cells become specialized in structure and function.
C) Body parts are shaped and patterned into a specific form.
D) One cell eventually becomes four sperm.
E) Tissues and organs become arranged in the body.
Q4) List and describe the major events during the 3 stages of birth.
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Patterns of Gene Inheritance
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Q1) The _____ indicates the gene combination of an individual.
A) phenotype
B) loci
C) genotype
D) dominance
E) homozygous
Q2) Alternative forms of a gene that influence the same trait and are found at the same location in homologous chromosomes are called
A) alleles.
B) phenotypes.
C) genotypes.
D) codominant.
E) incomplete dominance.
Q3) Which of the following crosses will yield four phenotypes in a ratio of 9:3:3:1?
A) RRYY x RRYY
B) RRYY x rryy
C) RrYy x RrYy
D) RrYy x rryy
E) rryy x rryy
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Chapter 24: Chromosomal Basis of Inheritance
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Q1) The trait diagrammed in Figure 24.1 is a(n)
A) dominant X-linked trait.
B) recessive X-linked trait.
C) autosomal recessive trait.
D) autosomal dominant trait.
E) dominant Y-linked trait.
Q2) If an individual has a XXY genotype,they are classified as having
A) Jacobs syndrome.
B) cri du chat syndrome.
C) Turner syndrome.
D) Klinefelter syndrome.
E) a poly-X female state.
Q3) Down syndrome
A) is due to disjunction of chromosomes.
B) individuals have two number 21 chromosomes.
C) may occur at a lower rate in women over 40.
D) can occur if the sperm has an extra number 21 chromosome.
E) persons have normal appearing eyelids.
Q4) Describe a genetic disorder associated with a deletion in chromosomal number.
Q5) List the four X-linked recessive disorders.
Page 26
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Chapter 25: DNA Structure and Gene Expression
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Q1) Which is the process that synthesizes mRNA?
A) translation
B) transcription
C) transposition
D) transformation
E) translocation
Q2) Artificial RNA with a known base sequence was added to a medium containing bacterial ribosomes and a mixture of amino acids.By chemical identification of the resulting polypeptide,researchers could discover the
A) transcription factors involved.
B) mutation rate.
C) codon.
D) Chargaff rule.
E) difference between DNA and RNA.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT true about DNA?
A) has a double helix
B) bases held together by hydrogen bonds
C) bases are complementary to each other
D) has a deoxyribose sugar
E) contains adenine, guanine, cytosine, and uracil
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Chapter 26: Biotechnology and Genomics
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Q1) All of the following are benefits of sequencing the human genome except A) knowing the exact sequence of DNA in an individual could allow pharmaceutical companies to design drugs for their exact genotype.
B) the discovery of the chemical makeup of DNA.
C) determining individuals who have a predisposing factor that could lead to future illness could allow for earlier treatment.
D) the improvement of sequencing technology that will allow the genomes of other species to be more readily sequenced.
E) enabling scientists to sequence the genome of various other organisms.
Q2) Gene therapy may be used in the future to fight cancer by inserting genes that A) fight off mutations of the patient's DNA.
B) produce radioactive isotopes.
C) cause cell death.
D) produce anticancer drugs.
E) all of the above.
Q3) List the steps required for insertion of foreign genes into animal eggs by using vortex mixing.
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Chapter 27: Evolution of Life
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Q1) Comparisons are made among a broad range of organisms for similarities in amino acid sequences.However,it is necessary to use
A) structural proteins.
B) basic biochemical molecules that are universal.
C) blood type molecules.
D) similarities only based on available dietary proteins.
E) There are no restrictions, any amino acids for any structure would provide a legitimate comparison among organisms.
Q2) The raw material for evolutionary change is
A) gene flow.
B) genetic drift.
C) mutation.
D) nonrandom reproduction.
E) natural selection.
Q3) List the five conditions required for the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium to be present in a population.
Q4) Summarize the four main observations that make up Darwin's theory of natural selection.
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Chapter 28: Microbiology
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Q1) Which of these is a correct description of a form of genetic recombination in bacteria?
A) Crossing-over occurs between paired chromosomes in meiosis.
B) Conjugation occurs when a cell passes DNA to another cell by means of a sex pilus.
C) Transformation occurs when a bacteriophage carries a bit of DNA from a previous host cell to a new host cell.
D) Transduction occurs when a live bacterium picks up DNA from dead bacteria that have shed it into the environment of the living cell.
E) Binary fission occurs when two bacteria cells exchange genetic information.
Q2) Which of the following kinds of molecules is thought to have been absent from the primitive reducing atmosphere?
A) water vapor (H<sub>2</sub>O)
B) methane (CH<sub>4</sub>)
C) hydrogen (H<sub>2</sub>)
D) oxygen (O<sub>2</sub>)
E) nitrogen (N<sub>2</sub>)
Q3) List the four stages that are thought to have led to the formation of the first cells.
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Chapter 29: Protists and Fungi
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Q1) Which of the following organisms move about by means of pseudopodia?
A) Plasmodium vivax
B) trypanosome
C) Amoeba proteus
D) Chlamydomonas
E) Paramecium caudatum
Q2) Which of the following organisms does not lead to a fungal disease?
A) Candida albicans
B) Dermatophytes
C) Systemic mycoses
D) Coccidioides immitis
E) Trypanosoma brucei
Q3) A fungal structure that results from sexual reproduction and can survive unfavorable growing conditions is the
A) mycelium.
B) sporangium.
C) ascocarp.
D) basidium.
E) zygospore.
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Chapter 30: Plants
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Q1) Which part of an angiosperm seed is triploid (3n)?
A) embryonic sporophyte generation
B) embryonic gametophyte generation
C) protective seed coat
D) fruit around the seed
E) endosperm
Q2) List the five major events in the evolutionary history of plants.
Q3) How is a seed like a spore?
A) They both are haploid.
B) They both contain the sporophyte generation.
C) They both contain the gametophyte generation.
D) They both are flagellated.
E) They both disperse the species.
Q4) Which statement is NOT correct about the sporophyte generation in gymnosperms?
A) It is the diploid generation.
B) It contains vascular tissue.
C) It is the dominant generation.
D) They produce winged naked seeds.
E) They produce homospores.
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Chapter 31: Animals: the Invertebrates
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Q1) Earthworms differ from most of the marine annelids in that earthworms
A) lack setae that marine annelids have.
B) lack paddlelike parapodia that marine annelids have.
C) have segments, while marine annelids do not.
D) develop from a larval form, while marine annelids do not.
E) have well-developed brains and sensory organs in the head region, while marine annelids do not.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of echinoderms?
A) adult is radially symmetrical
B) locomotion by muscles
C) endoskeleton of spiny, calcium-rich plates
D) larva is bilaterally symmetrical
E) both sexual and asexual reproduction
Q3) The term "deuterostome" refers to
A) having a spiny skin.
B) having three germ layers.
C) possessing a notochord.
D) the second embryonic opening becoming the mouth.
E) the coelom forming by outpocketing of the primitive gut.
Q4) List the 5 general characteristics shared by animals.
Page 33
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Chapter 32: Animals: Chordates and Vertebrates
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Q1) The stone tools and the dentition of Homo habilis indicate that early humans probably
A) were herbivores.
B) were carnivores.
C) were omnivores.
D) were predators.
E) cooked with fire.
Q2) Which of the following characteristics is NOT a distinguishing feature of all primates?
A) opposable thumb
B) fingernails
C) usually single birth
D) extended period of parental care
E) expanded hindbrain
Q3) The most primitive primates are considered to be the A) prosimians.
B) apes.
C) New World monkeys.
D) Old World monkeys.
E) humans.
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Chapter 33: Behavioral Ecology
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Q1) Fifty days after hatching a white-crowned sparrow will never be able to sing a normal song if reared in isolation.This is an example of
A) a sensitive period.
B) a sign stimulus.
C) an innate behavior.
D) fixed action pattern.
E) habituation.
Q2) Learning that is reinforced by rewards,a gradual strengthening of stimulus-response connections,is called
A) imprinting.
B) operant conditioning.
C) insight learning.
D) extinction.
E) motivation.
Q3) List the four main methods of communication among animals.
Q4) List and describe the two types of associative learning.
Q5) Describe the classical conditioning experiment of Ivan Pavlov.
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Chapter 34: Population and Community Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) At the basic level an ecologist will study how an organism is adapted to its environment.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In a population of 150 organisms over a six month period there are 75 births and 30 deaths.Calculate the growth rate for those six months
A) 0.7
B) 0.5
C) 0.2
D) 0.3
E) 0.75
Q3) The harmless orange-and-black viceroy butterfly closely resembling the toxic orange-and-black monarch butterfly is an example of
A) Müllerian mimicry.
B) Batesian mimicry.
C) both Müllerian and Batesian mimicry.
D) a case of resource partitioning.
E) a case of competitive exclusion.
Q4) Explain the correct sequence of events in secondary succession of a forest.
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Chapter 35: Nature of Ecosystems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Approximately what percentage of the energy in one trophic level becomes incorporated into the next level?
A) 1%
B) 10%
C) 30%
D) 60%
E) 100%
Q2) Which of the following is a biotic factor in an ecosystem?
A) the food chain
B) inorganic nutrients
C) water availability
D) temperature
E) sunlight
Q3) Once a nutrient enters an ecosystem it
A) Must remain in that ecosystem
B) Can cycle endlessly in that ecosystem
C) Must leave that ecosystem to enter into an organism
D) Cannot leave that ecosystem
E) Can only leave that ecosystem if it is carried by a living organism
Q4) Explain the steps in the hydrological cycle.
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Chapter 36: Major Ecosystems of the Biosphere
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Q1) The ocean
A) lacks life below the first several hundred feet.
B) has zooplankton but not phytoplankton.
C) covers little of the earth's surface.
D) is not affected by freshwater pollution.
E) covers three fourths of the planet.
Q2) The bottom of a lake or stream harbors worms,clams and other organisms in the
A) littoral zone.
B) limnetic zone.
C) profundal zone.
D) benthic zone.
E) abyssal zone.
Q3) Which would NOT be a characteristic of an estuary?
A) low percentage of immature animals
B) high nutrient concentration
C) brackish water
D) shallow
E) good sunlight penetration
Q4) Explain how a mountain range,located near the ocean,can lead to the formation of a desert on the leeward side of the mountain.
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Chapter 37: Conservation Biology
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Q1) Biodiversity hotspots are valuable because they contain large numbers of exotic species.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Ecosystems are based on complex interactions between communities.What are possible consequences from a disruption of these interactions?
A) Increases in pollution
B) Increases in biodiversity
C) Increases in extinctions
D) Decreases in pollution
E) Decreases in extinctions
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a disadvantage to the use of fossil fuels?
A) contribution to the greenhouse gases
B) excessive pollution
C) nonrenewable resource
D) transference of fossil fuel energy into food energy
E) increased methane production
Q4) Explain the four ethical principles embodied by conservation biology.
Q5) List and explain the five causes of extinction.
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