Biology I Exam Practice Tests
Course
Introduction
Biology I is an introductory course that explores the fundamental principles and concepts of biological science. Students will study the structure and function of cells, basic biochemistry, genetics, evolution, and the diversity of living organisms. Emphasis is placed on understanding scientific methods, experimental design, and the application of biological knowledge to real-world issues. This course lays the foundation for further study in biology and related health and science fields.
Recommended Textbook
The Living World 7th Edition by George Johnson
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Chapter 1: The Science of Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why is the study of biology central to the understanding and solving of the world's great environmental problems?
Answer: When people do not have knowledge of biology,they do not understand the needs of organisms or the interactions that occur within ecosystems.Without an understanding of the basics of biology,people cannot hope to understand and solve the world's environmental problems.
Q2) In a multicellular organism,different tissues that function together are grouped into: A) organisms
B) cells
C) organs
D) tissue systems
Answer: C
Q3) A collection of related hypotheses that have been shown to be true after extensive testing can be collectively called a _________.
Answer: theory
Q4) Cells with a similar structure and function are organized into ____________ in the body.
Answer: tissues
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Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nucleus of an atom is composed of two subatomic particles,______________ and _____________.
A) protons;neutrons
B) protons;electrons
C) neutrons;electrons
Answer: A
Q2) The mass number of an atom is the:
A) number of neutrons only.
B) the number of electrons plus the number of protons.
C) the number of protons only.
D) the number of protons plus the number of neutrons.
E) the number of electrons,plus the number of neutrons,plus the number of protons.
Answer: D
Q3) A substance that increases the concentration of H<sup>+</sup> is called a(n)________.
Answer: acid
Q4) When water ionizes,the negatively charged OH fragment is the ____________ ion.
Answer: hydroxide
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4
Chapter 3: Molecules of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) The bases of the two DNA chains are linked in the middle of the molecule by _________ bonds.
A) covalent
B) ionic
C) hydrogen
D) There are no bonds connecting the chains.
Answer: C
Q2) If one strand is CCAATTG on DNA,then the complementary chain is:
A) CCAATTG
B) AAGGUUC
C) GGUUAAC
D) GGTTAAC
E) It is impossible to determine.
Answer: D
Q3) The building blocks of carbohydrates are:
A) amino acids
B) polypeptides
C) monosaccharides
D) nucleotides
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Cells
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Q1) In eukaryotic cells,DNA is divided into long segments called __________________.
Q2) Which statement about cell walls is true?
A) The middle lamella glues the walls of adjacent cells together.
B) Cell walls are laid down inside cell membranes.
C) Bacteria and plants have cell walls of the same chemical composition.
D) Primary walls are laid down while the cell is still growing.
Q3) The simplest cells are the:
A) eukaryotic bacteria
B) prokaryotic bacteria
C) animal cells
D) cells of fungi
Q4) Two organelles that are believed to have once been free-living bacterial cells are __________________ and _________________.
A) ribosomes;nucleolus
B) Golgi complex;endoplasmic reticulum
C) peroxisomes;lysosomes
D) chloroplasts;mitochondria
Q5) ____________ is the minimum distance two points can be apart and still be distinguished as two separate points.
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Q6) Diffusion occurs because of the ________________________ of molecules.
Chapter 5: Energy and Life
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Q1) Objects that are not actively moving but have the capacity to do so are said to possess:
A) kinetic energy
B) potential energy
C) entropy
D) living energy
Q2) A ball sitting on a table top has __________ energy because of its position.
Q3) In __________ reactions,the products contain more energy than the reactants.
Q4) Do all cells contain the same enzymes? Support your answer.
Q5) Which of the following activities does NOT require cellular energy?
A) Swimming movements of some types of cells
B) Driving endergonic reactions
C) Movement of organelles within cells
D) Movement of water across the cell membrane
Q6) What happens to enzymes when the temperature increases beyond their optimal reaction requirement?
Q7) List and explain four uses for ATP in a cell.
Q8) Distinguish between reactants,substrates,and products.
Page 7
Q9) The site where a signal molecule binds to the surface of an enzyme is the ______________ site.
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Page 8
Chapter 6: Photosynthesis: Acquiring Energy From the Sun
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Sample Questions
Q1) The substrates for photosynthesis are:
A) water and oxygen
B) oxygen and carbon dioxide
C) water and carbon dioxide
D) ATP and oxygen
E) glucose and carbon dioxide
Q2) The portion of the electromagnetic spectrum visible to the human eye is known as
Q3) Plants use ______ and _________ wavelengths of light and reflect the _______ wavelength.
A) green,red,blue
B) green,blue,red
C) red,blue,green
D) white,green,blue
E) white,green,red
Q4) The overall purpose of the Calvin cycle is to:
A) generate molecules of ATP
B) generate NADP
C) give off oxygen for animal use
D) build organic (carbon)molecules
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Chapter 7: How Cells Harvest Energy From Food
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Q1) When a high-energy phosphate group is transferred from a substrate to ADP it is called ____________.
Q2) The second stage of cellular respiration,_____________,takes place only in the mitochondria.
Q3) Common endproducts of fermentation include __________ and _____.
Q4) The internal compartment of the mitochondria is the _______.
Q5) The process by which an atom or molecule loses an electron is:
A) reduction
B) catalysis
C) oxidation
D) photosynthesis
Q6) In the process of glycolysis,glucose is cleaved into a pair of three-carbon ________ molecules.
A) lactate
B) acetyl CoA
C) pyruvate
D) oxaloacetate
E) alcohol
Q7) During fermentation,_______ is recycled by transferring its electrons to a molecule other than oxygen.
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Chapter 8: Mitosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following can cause cancer?
A) UV rays
B) Viruses
C) Chemicals
D) Environmental contaminants
E) All of the choices can cause cancer.
Q2) Which is not correct about the way prokaryotes divide?
A) They divide by binary fission.
B) The chromosome is a single circular molecule of DNA.
C) The replication of DNA occurs in one direction around the circle.
D) They use the same DNA bases as in eukaryotes.
E) When the cell reaches an appropriate size,the cell divides into two equal halves.
Q3) The G<sub>1</sub>,S,and G<sub>2</sub> phases of the cell cycle are collectively known as:
A) interphase
B) prophase
C) mitosis
D) meiosis
E) metaphase
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Page 11
Chapter 9: Meiosis
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Q1) The development of an adult from an unfertilized egg is called ___________.
Q2) Duplication of DNA occurs:
A) twice,before meiosis I and meiosis II
B) before meiosis II only
C) during interphase
D) during prophase I
Q3) What are the three events that occur in sexual reproduction that increase genetic variability?
Q4) In humans,how many different kinds of gametes can be produced due to independent assortment only?
A) 23<sup>2</sup>
B) 46<sup>2</sup>
C) 23<sup>4</sup>
D) 2<sup>23</sup>
E) 2<sup>46</sup>
Q5) All of the following are sources of genetic variety except:
A) random fertilization
B) independent assortment
C) crossing over
D) synapsis
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Chapter 10: Foundations of Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following crosses represents a dihybrid cross?
A) RRrr x DdDd
B) RR x Dd
C) RrDd x RrDd
D) RD x Rd
E) Rd x RR
Q2) Genes for sex-linked traits tend to be carried on what chromosomes?
A) Chromosome 21
B) Any of the autosomes
C) Y chromosomes
D) X chromosomes
E) Chromosome 13
Q3) A woman with blood type B has a baby with blood type O.A man she says is the baby's father has blood type A,but he denies having fathered the child.Could he be the father?
Q4) Down syndrome in humans is due to:
A) monosomy (one copy of chromosome #21)
B) two Y chromosomes
C) trisomy (three copies of chromosome #21)
D) three X chromosomes
Page 13
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Chapter 11: DNA: The Genetic Material
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Sample Questions
Q1) The process when an individual gene moves from one place in the genome to another is called a:
A) transposition
B) frame shift mutation
C) transition
D) base substitution
E) base deletion
Q2) The copying of DNA before cell division is referred to as DNA
Q3) The two strands of DNA are said to be __________ to one another.
Q4) When Frederick Griffith injected dead bacteria of the virulent S strain into mice,the mice:
A) remained healthy
B) died of blood poisoning
C) became ill but lived
D) reproduced quicker
Q5) What is meant by "semiconservative replication?"
Q6) Once a mistake is made in DNA it will stay there forever.
A)True
B)False
Page 14
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Chapter 12: How Genes Work
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Q1) Describe the differences between DNA and RNA.
Q2) Due to _________,the 25,000 genes of the human genome seem to encode as many as 120,000 different expressed mRNAs.
A) mutations
B) independent assortment
C) alternative splicing
D) recombination
Q3) In eukaryotes,transcription takes place in the _________ and translation takes place in the ________.
A) cytoplasm,nucleus
B) nucleus,cytoplasm
C) cytoplasm,cytoplasm
D) nucleoid,cytoplasm
E) nucleus,nucleus
Q4) The bases of RNA are the same as those of DNA with the exception that RNA contains:
A) cysteine instead of cytosine
B) uracil instead of thymine
C) cytosine instead of guanine
D) uracil instead of adenine
Page 15
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Chapter 13: The New Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The first embryonic stem cells that were discovered to be totipotent were isolated from a:
A) sheep
B) human pancreas
C) mouse
D) blind dog
Q2) The introduction of "healthy" genes into cells that lack them is called _________.
Q3) Explain what has to happen to embryonic stem cells from a donor before they are used in a patient as a therapy.
Q4) Transposable elements make up ________ of the human genome.
Q5) Some bacteria,through natural selection,have acquired some extremely potent enzymes that destroy viral DNA,thereby preventing the bacterial cell from becoming infected with the virus.These enzymes are called:
A) DNA polymerases
B) DNA ligases
C) restriction endonucleases
D) restriction ligases
Q6) The percentage of the human genome made up of structural DNA is _________.
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Chapter 14: Evolution and Natural Selection
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Sample Questions
Q1) The final stimulus that convinced Darwin to publish his findings came from _____________,who had come to the same conclusion as Darwin from his own travels.
A) Thomas Malthus
B) Alfred Russell Wallace
C) John Henslow
D) Charles Lyell
Q2) During fossilization,remains of an organism may become suspended in fossilized plant sap,which is called ________.
Q3) In human infants,there has long been evolution toward having the highest survival rate at a 6-7 pound birth weight.This is an example of:
A) directional selection
B) disruptive selection
C) stabilizing or balancing selection
D) random chance
Q4) In the Hardy-Weinberg equation p<sup>2</sup> +2pq + q<sup>2</sup>,describe what each genotype is represented by each member of the equation.
Q5) Give two examples of nonrandom mating.
Q6) What does the fossil record tell us?
Page 17
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Chapter 15: How We Name Living Things
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Q1) A cladogram grouped birds with reptiles because the bird characteristic of ____________ was not emphasized.
Q2) The domain Archaea includes bacteria that live in extreme environments as well as the viruses.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The kingdom often referred to as an artificial group because many of its organisms are distantly related is:
A) Bacteria
B) Archaea
C) Fungi
D) Protista
E) Animalia
Q4) Cladograms provide information about _____________ relationships.
Q5) Describe the various scientific roles that zoos fulfill.
Q6) The science that deals with the naming and grouping of organisms is:
A) biology
B) herpetology
C) taxonomy
D) physiology
Page 18
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Chapter 16: Prokaryotes: The First Single-Celled Creatures
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Q1) Describe what scientists feel may be the first step in the evolution of cellular organization.
Q2) ____________________ is a disease of the respiratory tract caused by the bacterium Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
Q3) Scientists suspect that the first macromolecules to form when cells first arose were:
A) polysaccharides
B) DNA
C) RNA
D) enzymes
Q4) How do viruses gain entry into cells?
Q5) Bats are a healthy carrier for which of the following diseases?
A) SARS
B) West Nile Virus
C) Hantavirus
D) Influenza
E) AIDS
Q6) Viral genomes can be of DNA or ___________.
Q7) Some bacteria attach to surfaces of other cells with short outgrowths called
Chapter 17: Protists: Advent of the Eukaryotes
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Q1) Protists that ingest visible particles of food are called:
A) phototrophs
B) phagotrophs
C) osmotrophs
D) saprozoic feeders
Q2) Which of these kingdoms is the most diverse?
A) Protists
B) Fungi
C) Animal
D) Plant
Q3) There are _______ major phyla in the Kingdom Protista.
Q4) Protists typically only reproduce sexually during ________.
A) warm conditions
B) cold conditions
C) low pH conditions
D) stress
E) darkness
Q5) What is the evolutionary advantage of sexual reproduction?
Q6) The development of an adult from an unfertilized egg is a form of asexual reproduction known as _______________.
Page 20
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Chapter 18: Fungi Invade the Land
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Q1) An organism made up of many highly specialized kinds of cells that coordinate their activities is a:
A) colonial organism
B) aggregation
C) complex multicellular organism
D) simple multicellular organism
Q2) The typical mushrooms,but not truffles or morels,belong to the:
A) ascomycetes
B) basidiomycetes
C) zygomycetes
D) imperfect fungi
Q3) Differentiate between conidia and spores.
Q4) Fungi are at least _____ million years old.
A) 1
B) 25
C) 50
D) 100
E) 400
Q5) ________________ are a type of association between plant roots and fungi in which the fungi do not penetrate the root cells.
Page 21
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Chapter 19: Evolution of the Animal Phyla
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Q1) _______ is the field of study in which unique sequences of certain genes are used to identify clusters of related groups.
Q2) You are at a restaurant and order the lobster for dinner.Your son yells,"No,don't eat that ________" please!
A) cnidarian
B) annelid
C) arthropod
D) echinoderm
E) platyhelminthe
Q3) All of the following are correct about protostomes except:
A) The developmental fate of each cell in the embryo is fixed when that cell first appears.
B) The blastopore becomes the animal's anus.
C) The mesoderm splits to form the coelom.
D) Embryonic cells cleave in a spiral pattern.
Q4) The three distinct cell layers that form in an embryo are the ectoderm,_____________________ and ___________________.
Q5) Describe a hypothesis for the origin of metazoans from single celled protists.
Q6) Cnidarians have two basic body forms,medusae and ________.
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Chapter 20: History of the Vertebrates
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Q1) What was the climate like during the Cenozoic era after dinosaurs went extinct and mammals began to diversify?
A) Becoming warmer and subtropically moist
B) Stayed the same as in the Paleozoic era
C) Becoming hot and dry,with great desert expansion
D) Cooling off,with glaciers forming
Q2) ______________________ are the order of placental mammals to which humans belong,along with 232 other known species.
Q3) The first animals to invade land were:
A) amphibians
B) birds
C) reptiles
D) arthropods
Q4) The first vertebrates to invade land were:
A) amphibians
B) birds
C) reptiles
D) arthropods
Q5) Bony fish evolved ________________________ to help keep them afloat.
Page 23
Q6) The sixth mass extinction event is due to the activity of ____.
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Chapter 21: How Humans Evolved
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Q1) Homo rudolfensis's brain volume is:
A) 400-550 cm<sup>3</sup>
B) 680 cm<sup>3</sup>
C) 750 cm<sup>3</sup>
D) 1000 cm<sup>3</sup>
Q2) Homo erectus was a very successful species.Describe the traits of this human ancestor.
Q3) Apes support their weight on ______,while monkeys use ________.
A) the back sides of their fingers;their hips
B) their hips;back sides of their fingers
C) the back sides of their fingers;the palms of their hands
D) the palms of their hands;hips
Q4) Molecular evidence from ___________ indicates that Homo sapiens were present the longest in Africa.
Q5) Humans depart from apes in several ways,except:
A) walking on two legs
B) S-shaped spine
C) spinal cord exits at the bottom of the skull
D) None of the choices are correct.
Q6) The evolution of __________________ marks the beginning of the hominids.
Page 24
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Chapter 22: The Animal Body and How It Moves
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Q1) Muscle contraction occurs because:
A) myosin filaments pull on actin filaments
B) actin filaments contact and pull on myosin filaments
C) actin filaments contact the sarcoplasmic reticulum
D) myosin filaments are stimulated by acetylcholine
Q2) Which body system transports extracellular fluid and fats to the circulatory system?
A) Lymphatic
B) Endocrine
C) Skeletal
D) Integumentary
E) Digestive
Q3) Your quadriceps are your:
A) upper arm muscles
B) calf muscles
C) thigh muscles
D) shoulder muscles
Q4) Another name for red blood cells is ___________________.
Q5) Groups of cells of the same structure and function are organized into __________.
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Chapter 23: Circulation
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Q1) The sinoatrial node controls the heart beat.
A)True
B)False
Q2) White blood cells are also called erythrocytes.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Fibrinogen's main function is as an osmotic counterforce.
A)True
B)False
Q4) ________________ is caused by an interference with the blood supply to the brain.
A) Angina pectoris
B) A stroke
C) Atherosclerosis
D) Arteriosclerosis
Q5) Trace the wave of depolarization through the heart.
A) SA node atria ventricles AV node bundle of His Purkinje fibers
B) AV node atria SA node ventricles Purkinje fibers bundle of His
C) AV node atria SA node Purkinje fibers bundle of His ventricles
D) SA node atria AV node bundle of His Purkinje fibers ventricles
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Chapter 24: Respiration
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Q1) Amphibians can obtain additional oxygen through their skin by diffusion,a process called ___________________ respiration.
Q2) Capturing energy by animals is in effect a process that utilizes ______ and produces ______.
A) oxygen;carbon dioxide
B) N<sub>2</sub>;carbon
C) nitrogen;H<sub>2</sub>O
D) carbon dioxide;oxygen
E) ATP;AMP
Q3) The air remaining in the lung after a maximal expiration is the:
A) residual volume
B) vital capacity
C) tidal volume
D) tidal wave
E) vital volume
Q4) The __________,which acts as a brake on cell division,was discovered in studying the eye cancer retinoblastoma.
Q5) The _________________ is a tumor suppressor,inspecting DNA and stopping cell division when it detects damage.
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Chapter 25: The Path of Food Through the Animal Body
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Q1) In rodents,horses,and lagomorphs,the digestion of cellulose takes place in the
A) stomach
B) anus
C) mouth
D) cecum
E) large intestine
Q2) Fats have __________ calories per gram,while carbohydrates and proteins both have __________ calories per gram.
A) 9.3;4.1
B) 4.1;9.3
C) 10;5
D) 17.6;6.5
Q3) All mammals rely on intestinal bacteria to synthesize _________.
A) some amino acids
B) vitamin K
C) vitamin D
D) calcium
E) bile
Q4) What are the three main functions of the stomach?
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Chapter 26: Maintaining the Internal Environment
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Q1) Most mammals have uricase,which converts uric acid into ________.
A) urea
B) water
C) ammonia
D) allantoin
Q2) All of the following animals lack the enzyme uricase except:
A) tigers
B) dalmatian dogs
C) apes
D) humans
Q3) The production of hypertonic urine in mammals and birds is accomplished by the: A) loop of Henle
B) ureter
C) Bowman's capsule
D) glomerulus
Q4) Freshwater fish drink water all the time to compensate for their tendency to lose water.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The regulation of the body's osmotic composition is called
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Chapter 27: How the Animal Body Defends Itself
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Q1) The immunoglobulin known as _________ promotes the release of histamines and other agents that produce allergic symptoms.
A) IgM
B) IgG
C) IgE
D) IgA
Q2) Will there soon be a vaccine for the virus causing AIDS? Explain.
Q3) The ________________ is the outermost layer of skin,consisting of dying,waterproof cells.
Q4) During the primary response,the amount of antibody is ______ compared to the secondary response to the same antigen.
A) low
B) high
C) the same
Q5) The types of cells that release histamines in an allergic response are __________________.
Q6) Describe the role of macrophages in protecting the body against disease.
Q7) When macrophages send out chemical messages to the brain to warn of microbial invasion,the brain often responds by producing a _______________.
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Chapter 28: The Nervous System
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Q1) A __________ produces a rapid,automatic motor response to a stimulus.
Q2) Which part of the brain regulates body temperature,blood pressure,respiration and heartbeat?
A) Medulla oblongata
B) Hypothalamus
C) Amygdala
D) Occipital lobe
E) Cerebellum
Q3) One division of the autonomic nervous system,called the ____________ nervous system,is active in times of stress.
Q4) The left and right hemispheres of the brain are linked by tracts that cross in the area called the:
A) thalamus
B) corpus striatum
C) medulla oblongata
D) corpus callosum
Q5) Describe the condition of a neuron when it is not transmitting a nervous impulse,that is,when it is at rest.
Q6) Compare the sympathetic nervous system with the parasympathetic nervous system.
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Chapter 29: The Senses
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Q1) Otoliths are involved in:
A) hearing
B) balance
C) smell
D) taste
E) vision
Q2) The sharpest vision occurs at the ___________ where the concentration of cones is highest.
A) area of the retina closest to the lens at the front of the eye
B) optic nerve
C) fovea
D) parallax
Q3) Describe the path that sound travels to reach the inner ear.
Q4) Balance is associated with the movements of little __________ in the inner ear.
Q5) All sensory receptors are able to initiate nerve impulses by opening or closing:
A) voltage-gated channels
B) exteroreceptors
C) interoreceptors
D) stimulus-gated channels
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Chapter 30: Chemical Signaling Within the Animal Body
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Q1) Hormones secreted by endocrine glands belong to all the following chemical categories except:
A) carbohydrates
B) polypeptides
C) glycoproteins
D) amines
E) steroids
Q2) A second messenger:
A) is cyclic AMP
B) serves to amplify the signal
C) activates protein kinases
D) All of these are correct.
Q3) Which hormone would be released in times of stress that causes increased blood flow to the heart and lungs as well as higher blood pressure?
A) Calcitonin
B) Vasopressin
C) Testosterone
D) Parathyroid
E) Epinephrine
Q4) Why are anabolic steroid hormones so dangerous?
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Chapter 31: Reproduction and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sequential hermaphroditism among coral reef fish in which an individual is first female,then male is called _______________.
Q2) In humans,where does fertilization occur?
A) In the ovary
B) In the fallopian tubes
C) In the vagina
D) Externally
Q3) Why are the testes suspended outside the body in humans?
Q4) The portion of the body that ultimately controls the female menstrual cycle is the:
A) hypothalamus
B) anterior pituitary
C) ovaries
D) uterus
Q5) Skeleton,muscles,blood vessels and the heart develop from which germ layer?
A) Endoderm
B) Mesoderm
C) Ectoderm
D) All of the choices are correct.
Q6) Why are shelled eggs evolutionarily advantageous?
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Chapter 32: Evolution of Plants
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a seed plant,the pollen grains are actually tiny:
A) female gametophytes
B) seeds
C) male gametophytes
D) eggs
Q2) All of the following phyla belong to the Gymnosperms except:
A) Coniferophyta
B) Lycophyta
C) Ginkgophyta
D) Cycadophyta
E) Gnetophyta
Q3) What kinds of angiosperms have reverted to wind pollination?
A) Oaks
B) Grasses
C) Birches
D) All of these
Q4) The embryo is located inside the cotyledon.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A common name for secondary plant growth in stems is ________.
Page 35
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Chapter 33: Plant Form and Function
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Q1) The process by which water leaves a plant is called:
A) tension
B) translocation
C) expiration
D) transpiration
E) exhalation
Q2) The _______________ cambium gives rise to thick layers of secondary xylem and phloem.
Q3) Which of the following is a function of trichomes?
A) Regulate the temperature of the leaf
B) Regulate the water balance of the leaf
C) Secreting sticky substances to deter herbivores
D) Secreting toxic substances to deter herbivores
E) All of the choices are functions of trichomes.
Q4) Leaf blades grow larger as a result of cell division in the:
A) apical meristems
B) marginal meristems
C) lateral meristems
D) All of these are correct.
Q5) The stalk of a leaf is called the _______________.
36
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Chapter 34: Plant Reproduction and Growth
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Q1) Flowers which contain only male or female structures are called:
A) perfect
B) imperfect
C) clones
D) gametophytes
Q2) The female gametophyte,or megagametophyte,is the ________________ which develops from a megaspore.
Q3) Germination of the embryo within the seed does not take place until:
A) any amount of sunlight strikes the seed
B) daylength is appropriate for the plant
C) water and oxygen reach the embryo
D) the seed has passed through the gut of an animal
Q4) The response of plants to touch is known as:
A) phototropism
B) gravitropism
C) thigmotropism
D) photoperiodism
Q5) In plants,hormones are produced in endocrine glands.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 35: Populations and Communities
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Q1) ________________ is defined as the percentage of the original population that survives to a given age.
Q2) The role an organism plays within its ecosystem is called its _______________.
Q3) In true commensalism,both partners benefit.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A symbiotic relationship in which both species benefit is called ___________.
Q5) The number of different kinds of species inhabiting an ecosystem is called _________________.
Q6) ______________ serves to narrow niche breadth.
A) Competition
B) Predation
C) Symbiosis
D) Commensalism
Q7) An experiment that was conducted by Gause in the 1930s with Paramecium clearly demonstrated:
A) exploitative competition
B) interference competition
C) competitive exclusion
D) fundamental competition
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Chapter 36: Ecosystems
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Q1) The type of ecosystem that can be found bordering the tropics worldwide that is characterized by huge herds of grazing animals is:
A) temperate rain forest
B) taiga
C) prairie
D) savanna
Q2) Herbivores are at what trophic level within an ecosystem?
A) Level 1
B) Level 2
C) Level 3
D) Level 4
Q3) Shallow,highly productive lakes with an abundance of algae are called:
A) oligotrophic lakes
B) thermally stratified
C) eutrophic lakes
D) dimictic lakes
Q4) A _________________ in a community is made up of the organisms feeding at the same number of steps away from the Sun.
Q5) The community plus its habitat make up an ____________________.
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Chapter 37: Behavior and the Environment
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Q1) The following question addresses the three mating systems of animals.Select the choice that correctly describes each system.One male mating with one female is ___________;one male mating with more than one female is _________;one female mating with more than one male is __________.
A) monogamy;polyandry;polygyny
B) monogamy;polygyny;polyandry
C) polygyny;polyandry;monogany
D) polyandry;polygyny;monogamy
Q2) E.O.Wilson pioneered an aspect of animal behavior called ____________.
Q3) Ethologist Konrad Lorenz raised geese from eggs and the first thing the goslings saw was him.Consequently,they treated him as if he were their parent and followed him.This is an example of:
A) operant conditioning
B) classical conditioning
C) imprinting
D) nonassociative learning
E) sculpting
Q4) _____________ can be thought of as NOT responding to a stimulus.
Q5) Discuss optimal foraging theory.
Q6) Discuss the difference between home range and territory.
Page 40
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Chapter 38: Human Influences on the Living World
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Q1) The human population is expected to double in _____ years.
A) 15
B) 25
C) 58
D) 91
Q2) Among the non-renewable resources we must protect is:
A) topsoil
B) rainfall
C) trees
D) lichens
Q3) Which one of the following helps make ecosystems more stable?
A) rainfall
B) stable amounts of sunlight
C) biodiversity
D) bacteria
Q4) Groundwater came to be in the ground how long ago?
A) During the formation of the Earth.
B) During the last ice age,12,000 years ago.
C) Within the last 1,000 years.
D) It is continuously recharged with snowmelt and rainwater.
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