Biology I Exam Materials
Course
Introduction
Biology I is an introductory course that explores the fundamental principles of living organisms and life processes. Topics include cell structure and function, genetics, evolution, and the diversity of life. Students will examine how organisms interact with each other and their environments, emphasizing scientific methods and experimental techniques. Through lectures, laboratory activities, and discussions, students will gain a foundational understanding of biological concepts essential for further study in life sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Essentials of Biology 4th Edition by Sylvia S. Mader Dr
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1937 Verified Questions
1937 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Biology: The Science of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Geese are known to use the magnetic field of the Earth in navigating their twice yearly migrations.This is an example of which characteristic of life?
A) maintaining homeostasis
B) reproduction and development
C) interacting with the environment
D) energy regulation
E) organization
Answer: C
Q2) Didinium are carnivorous protista,that prey on other,slower moving protista.A student is studying Didinium feeding rates after 1,3,and 5 days of food deprivation.How should she classify the organism she is studying?
A) eukaryotic decomposer
B) prokaryotic consumer
C) bacterial decomposer
D) prokaryotic producer
E) eukaryotic consumer
Answer: E
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Chapter 2: The Chemical Basis of Life
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Q1) Which of these does not occur when a sodium atom transfers an electron to a chlorine atom?
A) The sodium atom becomes a positively charged ion.
B) The positive and negative ions will attract each other, forming a crystal if no water is present.
C) The ions will separate in the presence of water.
D) There is a sharing of the electrons between the sodium and chlorine atoms.
E) The chlorine atom becomes a negatively charged ion.
Answer: D
Q2) The atomic structure of water satisfies the octet rule by
A) having electrons shared between the two oxygen atoms.
B) having electrons from hydrogen transferred to the oxygen atom.
C) having electrons from oxygen transferred to the hydrogen atoms.
D) having oxygen share electrons with two hydrogen atoms.
E) having electrons shared between the two hydrogen atoms.
Answer: D
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4
Chapter 3: The Organic Molecules of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following is a function of proteins?
A) energy storage
B) enzymatic activity
C) genetic coding
D) energy source
E) insulation
Answer: B
Q2) A gene in DNA is the code for
A) a sequence of amino acids.
B) a sequence of glucose molecules.
C) a sequence of fatty acids used in a fat.
D) a sequence of sugars.
E) a sequence of functional groups.
Answer: A
Q3) The shape of a protein is a critical factor in its function.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 4: Inside the Cell
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Sample Questions
Q1) A general eukaryotic cell is typically in the area of
A) 0-1 millimeter.
B) 1-10 nanometers.
C) 1-10 micrometers.
D) 10-100 micrometers.
E) 10-100 millimeters.
Q2) Chromosomes are
A) condensed vesicles.
B) expanded ribosomes.
C) expanded polysaccharides.
D) condensed chromatin.
E) cell recognition proteins.
Q3) Without receptor proteins,a cell would not be able to
A) transport water into the cytoplasm.
B) bind to signal proteins from other parts of the body.
C) allow the passage of H<sup>+</sup> ions into the cell.
D) perform metabolic reactions.
E) divide.
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6
Chapter 5: The Dynamic Cell
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Sample Questions
Q1) Simple diffusion across a plasma membrane is called passive transport because it
A) requires transport proteins.
B) requires energy from the cell.
C) does not require energy from the cell.
D) does not require control by the nucleus.
E) moves molecules from low to high concentration.
Q2) Which of the following is not a mechanism used to move materials in and out of the cell?
A) osmosis
B) facilitated diffusion
C) active transport
D) feedback inhibition
E) phagocytosis
Q3) Which of the following is best associated with a coupled reaction?
A) ATP consumes energy from another metabolic reaction.
B) ADP often transfers a phosphate to the reactant.
C) The metabolic reaction requires energy from ATP.
D) ATP gains a phosphate group.
E) ADP is used up in the metabolic reaction.
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Energy for Life
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Q1) The _______ from the light reactions is used to reduce CO<sub>2</sub> to a carbohydrate using energy derived from ______.
A) NADPH; ATP
B) NADP<sup>+</sup>; ATP
C) RuBP; ATP
D) NADPH; RuBP
E) rubisco; RuBP
Q2) What two things are added to NADP<sup>+</sup> to convert it into NADPH?
A) H<sup>+</sup> and electrons
B) electrons and ATP
C) H<sup>+</sup> and ATP
D) H<sup>+</sup> and CO<sub>2</sub>
E) electrons and CO<sub>2</sub>
Q3) Which of the following is not derived from G3P?
A) starch
B) cellulose
C) glucose phosphate
D) NADP<sup>+</sup>
E) sucrose
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Energy for Cells
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Q1) During hibernation the rate of cellular respiration in a mammal is typically less than half the rate measured when the mammal is not hibernating.This slowed cellular respiration is probably accompanied by which of the following?
A) Unchanged pulse rate and reduced body temperature.
B) Reduced pulse rate and reduced body temperature.
C) Reduced pulse rate and increased body temperature.
D) Unchanged pulse rate and increased body temperature.
E) Unchanged pulse rate and unchanged body temperature.
Q2) Which of the following reactions is NOT part of the cellular respiration pathway?
A) Calvin cycle
B) glycolysis
C) citric acid cycle
D) electron transport chain
E) preparatory reaction (prep)
Q3) The production of ATP in glycolysis and the citric acid cycle occurs through
A) the removal of electrons and hydrogen from glucose.
B) the removal of a phosphate group from a substrate that is then added to ADP.
C) the capture of solar energy that donates electrons.
D) the breakdown of glucose to pyruvate.
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Cellular Reproduction
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Sample Questions
Q1) During which stage of the cell cycle do the chromosomes duplicate?
A) interphase: S
B) interphase: G1
C) interphase: G2
D) prophase
E) telophase
Q2) Cells grown in a petri dish tend to divide until they form a thin layer covering the bottom of the dish.Which of the following statements explains why this occurs?
A) The cells become deficient in cyclin.
B) The petri dish inhibits the cells growth.
C) Cell division can be inhibited by the proximity of other cells of the same type, a process called contact inhibition.
D) Most cells grown in petri dishes have gone through apoptosis.
E) The cells have differentiated into more specialized cells.
Q3) In order for a person to develop properly their cells must eventually go through apoptosis?
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Meiosis and the Genetic Basis of Sexual
Reproduction
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Q1) During which stage of meiosis will the pairs of homologous chromosomes line up?
Rev: 02_06_2014_QC_44511
A) metaphase I
B) metaphase II
C) metaphase
D) anaphase I
E) prophase II
Q2) In each gamete following telophase II,how many copies of each gene is/are present?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) 8
Q3) Which of the following processes and products are paired correctly?
A) spermatogenesis - 2n zygote
B) oogenesis - 2n zygote
C) oogenesis - 1n gamete
D) meiosis - 2n zygote
E) mitosis - 1n gamete
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Chapter 10: Patterns of Inheritance
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Q1) A red-eyed male Drosophila mates with a red-eyed female Drosophila.One of the female's parents had white eyes.What proportion of the male offspring will have white eyes?
A) 0%
B) 25%
C) 50%
D) 75%
E) 100%
Q2) Which of the following is an autosomal dominant disorder?
A) Huntington's disease
B) Sickle-cell disease
C) Alkaptonuria
D) Cystic fibrosis
E) Methemoglobinemia
Q3) Which is NOT true according to Mendel's law and meiosis?
A) One factor must be dominant and one factor recessive in each individual.
B) Each individual contains two factors for each trait.
C) Factors separate from each other during gamete formation.
D) Each gamete contains one copy of each factor.
E) Fertilization restores the presence of two factors.
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Chapter 11: DNA Biology
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Q1) If an organism's DNA contains 20% adenine nucleotides,what percentage of its DNA is composed of thymine nucleotides?
A) 10%
B) 15%
C) 20%
D) 30%
E) 40%
Q2) If an organism's DNA contains 20% adenine nucleotides,what percentage of its DNA is composed of guanine nucleotides?
A) 10%
B) 15%
C) 20%
D) 30%
E) 40%
Q3) An intervening sequence of DNA that is not expressed is called a(n)
A) intron.
B) exon.
C) gene.
D) replicon.
E) promoter.
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Chapter 12: Biotechnology and Genomics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which organisms have been modified to produce insulin,blood clotting factor VIII,and human growth hormone?
A) bacteria
B) goats
C) cows
D) corn
E) soy beans
Q2) Bacteria,plants,and animals have all been used to create transgenic forms that are useful in
A) producing high-yield tomato plants.
B) creating pest resistant versions of corn.
C) cleaning up oil spills.
D) generating pharmaceuticals.
E) producing new types of high yield beef.
Q3) Organisms that have had foreign genes inserted into them are called transgenic organisms.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Genetic Counseling
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Sample Questions
Q1) An extra three nucleotides inserted into a gene will cause a frameshift mutation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Testing for a protein may help reveal whether or not an individual has a genetic disorder.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Mutations are uncommon because
A) DNA repair enzymes often repair errors.
B) physical mutagens such as X-rays seldom damage DNA.
C) DNA is able to repair itself over time.
D) frameshift mutations occur very frequently.
E) transposons are constantly moving throughout the genome.
Q4) A DNA microarray detects
A) mutant gene alleles associated with disease.
B) an individual's complete genotype, including all the various mutations.
C) chromosomal abnormalities, such as duplications or deletions.
D) fetal cells in the mother's blood.
E) viral DNA in an individual's cells.
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Chapter 14: Darwin and Evolution
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Q1) Analogous structures are evidence of common ancestry.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Bacteria that cause ear infections have increased their resistance to antibiotics over time.Which of the following is the selective agent?
A) bacteria
B) increased resistance
C) antibiotics
D) the human ear
E) the ear infection
Q3) The presence of vestigial organs supports evidence of evolution because
A) the vestigial organ is unique to one species.
B) the vestigial organ is similar to a functional organ in a related species, having been passed down from a common ancestor.
C) both the vestigial organ and the functional organ perform the same function.
D) the vestigial organ could not have been passed down from an ancestor.
E) the vestigial organs represent variation in a species.
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Chapter 15: Evolution on a Small Scale
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Q1) The usage of the insecticide DDT to control mosquitos resulted in
A) directional selection to insecticide resistance in the insects.
B) stabilizing selection to insecticide resistance in the insects.
C) disruptive selection to insecticide resistance in the insects.
D) genetic drift to insecticide resistance in the insects.
E) no change in the insect population.
Q2) If a population recovers to its original population size after experiencing a bottleneck,which statement is correct regarding this population?
A) The recovered population is as likely to go extinct as is the population prior to the bottleneck.
B) The bottleneck subjected the population to directional selection.
C) The recovered population shows less genetic diversity that the population prior to the bottleneck.
D) The recovered population shows more genetic diversity than the population prior to the bottleneck.
E) The recovered population is more likely to go extinct as is the population prior to the bottleneck
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17
Chapter 16: Evolution on a Large Scale
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Q1) In the three domain system of classification,
A) eukaryotes are more similar to the prokaryotes now classified into domain Bacteria than to those now classified into domain Archaea.
B) animals and plants are less similar to each other than to the prokaryotes now classified into domain Archaea.
C) prokaryotes are classified into two domains, with the organisms in domain Archaea more similar to eukaryotes than to the prokaryotes in the domain Bacteria.
D) cladistics alone were used to formulate the new phylogenetic tree of life.
E) by the principle of parsimony, it required fewer assumptions to divide the prokaryotes into two domains than it did to put them into a single domain.
Q2) Which of the following is not thought to have contributed to the many mass extinction events that have occurred through Earth's history?
A) plate tectonics
B) habitat loss
C) meteorite impacts
D) continental drift
E) punctuated equilibrium
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Page 18
Chapter 17: The Microorganisms: Viruses, bacteria, and Protists
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Q1) Animal viruses that have an envelope enter cells by
A) injecting their nucleic acid into the cell's cytoplasm.
B) fusing with the plasma membrane.
C) endocytosis.
D) plasmolysis.
E) either fusing with the plasma membrane or endocytosis.
Q2) Some bacteria carry out a metabolic process known as fermentation,and
A) consume acids.
B) produce acids.
C) produce oxygen.
D) consume oxygen.
E) consume both acids and oxygen.
Q3) Which of these is mismatched?
A) cilia - bacteria
B) flagella - bacteria
C) flagella - slime molds
D) flagella - water molds
E) pseudopods - amoebas
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Chapter 18: Land Environment: Plants and Fungi
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Q1) In the fern life cycle,which of these is haploid?
A) frond only
B) zygote only
C) gametophyte only
D) gametes only
E) both gametophyte and gametes
Q2) A plant has vascular tissue and true roots,stems,and leaves,but it does not produce seeds.The plant has microphylls and bears its sporangia in strobili.This plant is a A) bryophyte.
B) fern.
C) lycophyte.
D) gymnosperm.
E) angiosperm.
Q3) The gametophyte is the dominant generation in A) angiosperms.
B) gymnosperms.
C) ferns.
D) mosses.
E) all land plants.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Both Water and Land: Animals
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Q1) Which feature is present in cnidarians but lacking in sponges?
A) cellular level of organization
B) filter feeding
C) multicellularity
D) radial symmetry
E) cnidarians are classified as an animal while sponges are not animals
Q2) Nephridia are found in
A) jawless fishes.
B) echinoderms.
C) lancelets.
D) annelids.
E) cephalopods.
Q3) Which of these is a cephalopod?
A) nudibranch
B) snail
C) oyster
D) squid
E) mussel
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Chapter 20: Plant Anatomy and Growth
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Q1) Which plant system will consist of the terminal bud,blade,petiole,and node?
A) shoot system
B) root system
C) vascular system
D) epidermal tissue
E) ground tissue
Q2) Cohesion and adhesion of water molecules produces a force sufficient to move water from the roots to the shoot tip of a plant.
A)True
B)False
Q3) ____ and _____ are micronutrients in plants,while ____ and ____ are macronutrients.
A) Mn; Zn; N; O
B) Mn; O; Zn; C
C) Cu; K; O; H
D) Cu; K; B; Mn
E) Mn; Zn; B; N
Q4) Mineral transport in plants occurs through xylem tissue.
A)True
B)False
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Plant Responses and Reproduction
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Q1) Which fruit is most likely to be dispersed by the wind?
A) dandelion
B) apples
C) walnut
D) cocklebur
E) cherry
Q2) Which of the following is not an effect of gibberellins?
A) stem elongation between nodes
B) cell elongation
C) breaking of dormancy
D) ripening of fruit
E) excessive stem elongation
Q3) A plant that is dioecious is incapable of which of the following?
A) cross-pollination
B) double fertilization
C) self-pollination
D) gametophyte production
E) pollen production
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Chapter 22: Being Organized and Steady
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Q1) Homeostasis maintains various levels within a narrow range only if environmental conditions do not fluctuate much.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In the figure shown here,"2" represents ______________ which move into the blood from the digestive tract.
A) nutrients
B) oxygen
C) metabolic wastes
D) carbon dioxide
E) indigestible food particles
Q3) Which of the following is an incorrect match?
A) columnar epithelium - forms outer layers of skin
B) squamous epithelium - lines blood vessels
C) pseudostratified epithelium - lines the trachea
D) cuboidal epithelium - lines kidney tubules
E) transitional epithelium - lines the bladder
Q4) Ligaments are made up of loose fibrous connective tissue.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 23: The Transport Systems
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Q1) Which of the following collects all the venous blood from below the heart?
A) pulmonary artery
B) renal vein
C) hepatic portal vein
D) aorta
E) inferior vena cava
Q2) If blood is blocked from reaching the heart muscle and it results in chest pain
A) this indicates a heart attack has occurred due to the lack of oxygen to part of the heart muscle.
B) it is called angina pectoris.
C) this indicates a heart attack has occurred due to a stroke.
D) the likely cause is a heart murmur.
E) a probable treatment is a blood transfusion.
Q3) What is the first step in the formation of a blood clot?
A) The platelets form a plug.
B) Prothrombin activator is released.
C) Prothrombin is converted into thrombin.
D) Fibrin threads are formed.
E) Red blood cells are trapped in fibrin threads.
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Chapter 24: The Maintenance Systems
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Q1) The nephron of mammals and Malpighian tubules of insects are both involved in water and salt balance.They are also similar in that they are both
A) involved in elimination of nitrogenous wastes.
B) involved in the elimination of digestive wastes.
C) attached to the digestive system.
D) attached to the respiratory system.
E) found in the kidneys.
Q2) Without villi,a person would not be able to
A) produce vitamin K.
B) absorb enough nutrients.
C) produce pepsin.
D) swallow food.
E) produce feces.
Q3) Which of the following statements does NOT apply to edema?
A) It can lead to heart failure.
B) It is the retention of water and salts.
C) It is an imbalance in the ionic composition of body fluids.
D) It can result from kidney failure.
E) It results in kidney stones if uncorrected.
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Chapter 25: Human Nutrition
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Q1) The USDA recommends which type of food should compose the smallest percentage of our diet?
A) fruits and vegetables
B) fats and oils
C) meat, eggs, and nuts
D) breads and cereals
E) dairy products
Q2) A person's total daily intake of water must be obtained through drinking liquids.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Obesity increases the risk of diabetes type 2 and cardiovascular disease.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following foods would be considered an empty calorie food?
A) potato chips
B) broccoli
C) sweet potatoes
D) salmon
E) whole grain pasta
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Chapter 26: Defenses Against Disease
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Q1) In this figure,"B" represents ____________ which is released by "A",_________.
A) histamine; mast cells
B) histamine; neutrophils
C) antibodies; mast cells
D) pathogens; bacteria
E) antibodies; B cells
Q2) Active immunity involves all of the following except
A) exposure to a pathogen either naturally or by vaccination.
B) memory B cells responding to a second exposure to the same pathogen.
C) receiving mother's antibodies through the placenta and breast feeding.
D) passive or active mechanisms.
E) the stimulation of a nonspecific immune defense.
Q3) The immune system plays a significant role in fighting infections and cancer.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Macrophages present antigens to T cells by digesting the pathogen and placing the pathogen's antigens on the macrophage plasma membrane along with an MHC "self" protein.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 27: The Control Systems
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Q1) Which is not an anterior pituitary hormone?
A) thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
B) prolactin (PRL)
C) growth hormone (GH)
D) adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
E) antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
Q2) The exophthalmos seen in Graves disease results from hypersecretion of the A) thyroid gland.
B) parathyroid glands.
C) posterior pituitary.
D) adrenal cortex.
E) pancreas.
Q3) People who are under constant stress have a tendency to gain weight,especially in the midsection,even if they do not overeat.This is because the hypothalamus responds to the stress by stimulating the A) posterior pituitary.
B) adrenal cortex.
C) thyroid.
D) adrenal medulla.
E) pancreas.
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Chapter 28: Sensory Input and Motor Output
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Q1) A grasshopper has a(n)_____ composed mainly of chitin.
A) exoskeleton
B) hydrostatic skeleton
C) metaskeleton
D) endoskeleton
E) preskeleton
Q2) A(n)_____ eye has a single lens.
A) simple
B) compound
C) static
D) camera-type
E) eyespot
Q3) Which is not a type of taste?
A) umami
B) sweet
C) sour
D) bitter
E) hot
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Chapter 29: Reproduction and Embryonic Development
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Q1) The male gonad is the _____,and the female gonad is the _____.
A) ovary; testis
B) vagina; penis
C) testis; uterus
D) testis; ovary
E) penis; vagina
Q2) During the first half of the human ovarian cycle
A) follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) promotes the development of estrogen-secreting follicles.
B) luteinizing hormone (LH) promotes the development of a progesterone-secreting corpus luteum.
C) the corpus luteum reaches its maximum size and progesterone output then shrinks.
D) there are high levels of both estrogen and progesterone.
E) ovulation occurs on each consecutive day.
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Chapter 30: Ecology and Populations
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Q1) All of the following impact biotic potential EXCEPT
A) resource abundance.
B) the number of offspring produced each reproductive cycle.
C) chances of survivorship until sexual maturity.
D) how frequently each individual in the population reproduces.
E) the age at which reproduction ends.
Q2) The birthrate in a small town is 14 per 1,000 per year and the death rate is 5 per 1,000 per year.What is the annual growth rate for this town?
A) 9%
B) 0.9%
C) 19%
D) 1.9%
E) 0.19%
Q3) Which of the following is true about populations with a negative growth rate?
A) The death rate exceeds the birth rate.
B) The population will remain the same size for several generations.
C) The age structure diagram looks like a pyramid.
D) The population has reached its carrying capacity.
E) The majority of the population is prereproductive.
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Chapter 31: Communities and Ecosystems
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56 Verified Questions
56 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What process is occurring in Box C?
A) nitrification
B) decomposition
C) denitrification
D) nitrogen-fixing
E) nitrogen incorporation When nitrogen gas is transformed into ammonium, this is known as nitrogen fixing or nitrogen fixation.
Q2) Which of the following boxes indicates the process of denitrification?
A) Box A
B) Box B
C) Box C
D) Box D
E) Box E Denitrification converts nitrate to nitrogen gas.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT true about species diversity?
A) It includes species richness.
B) It includes species diversity.
C) It is influenced by the relative abundance of species.
D) It is influenced by the distribution of the different species.
E) It is not impacted by species richness.
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Page 33
Chapter 32: Human Impact on the Biosphere
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63 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following human behaviors is considered sustainable?
A) The use of the sun in order to produce a readily available form of energy.
B) Consumption of meat by people in the United States.
C) The use of fossil fuels as our primary form of energy.
D) Mining, processing, and use of minerals for everyday products.
E) Modern agricultural practices that require large amounts of fertilizers.
Q2) Which of the following creates the least amount of soil erosion?
A) poor landscaping practices that expose the land to excess wind
B) overgrazing by livestock
C) use of drip irrigation systems
D) deforestation
E) wetland destruction
Q3) The world today derives the majority of its energy from which of the following sources?
A) coal and oil
B) hydropower and nuclear power
C) hydropower
D) nuclear power
E) wind and solar power
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