Biology I Exam Bank
Course Introduction
Biology I is an introductory course that explores the fundamental principles of life and living organisms. The course covers a broad range of topics including cell structure and function, genetics, evolution, biological diversity, and the basics of ecology. Students will learn about the molecular and cellular foundations of life, mechanisms of heredity, and the evolutionary processes that shape species. Emphasis is placed on the scientific method, experimental design, and the development of analytical skills necessary to understand biological phenomena. This course serves as a foundational entry point for further studies in the biological sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Concepts of Genetics Books a la Carte Edition 11th Edition by William S. Klug
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Genetics
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Q1) Genetics is the study of heredity and variation.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Organisms that are well understood from a scientific standpoint and are often used in basic biological research are often called ________.
Answer: model organisms
Q3) What is meant by the term genetic code?
Answer: The genetic code consists of a linear series of three adjacent nucleotides present in mRNA molecules.
Q4) The various characteristics of organisms that result from their genetic makeup are collectively referred to as an organism's ________.
Answer: phenotype
Q5) What is a simple definition of an allele?
Answer: An allele is a variant form of a gene.
Q6) What term is applied to a variety of projects whereby genome sequences are deposited in databases for research purposes?
Answer: genomics
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Chapter 2: Mitosis and Meiosis
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Q1) An organism with a haploid number of 10 will produce 1024 combinations of chromosomes at the end of meiosis.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Living organisms are categorized into two major groups based on the presence or absence of a nucleus.What group is defined by the presence of a nucleus?
A) eukaryotic organism
B) virus
C) bacterium
D) prokaryotic organism
E) mitochondrial organism
Answer: A
Q3) The meiotic cell cycle involves two cell divisions but only one DNA replication.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) What is meant by the term chiasma?
Answer: areas where chromatids intertwine during meiosis
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Chapter 3: Mendelian Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Assuming complete dominance,a 3:1 phenotypic ratio is expected from a monohybrid sib or self-cross.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Albinism,lack of pigmentation in humans,results from an autosomal recessive gene (a).Two parents with normal pigmentation have an albino child.What is the probability that their next three children will be albino?
Answer: 1/4 × 1/4 × 1/4 = 1/64
Q3) Which types of phenotypic ratios are likely to occur in crosses when dealing with a single gene pair for which all the genotypic combinations are of equal viability?
A) 9:3:3:1, 27:9:9:9:3:3:3:1
B) 1:2:1, 3:1
C) 1:4:6:4:1, 1:1:1:1
D) 12:3:1, 9:7
E) 2:3, 1:2
Answer: B
Q4) What are two typical testcross ratios?
Answer: 1:1 and 1:1:1:1
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Chapter 4: Extensions of Mendelian Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Multiple mutations that are found to be present in a single gene are said to belong to the same ________ group.
A) phenotypic
B) allelic
C) transfer
D) complementation
E) expression
Q2) What is meant by the term epistasis? Distinguish between epistasis and dominance.Do not use examples in answering this question.
Q3) With incomplete dominance,a likely ratio resulting from a monohybrid cross would be ________.
A) 3:3
B) 1:2:2:4
C) 1:2:1
D) 9:3:3:1
E) 3:1
Q4) A 9:7 ratio indicates incomplete dominance.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Chromosome Mapping in Eukaryotes
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Q1) Describe a convenient method for determining gene order from three-point cross results.
Q2) The coefficient of coincidence reflects the frequency of observed double crossovers compared to the frequency of expected double crossovers.What is the relationship between the coefficient of coincidence and interference?
Q3) Mendel predicted that some genes will be carried in the same chromosome.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Exchanges occur between homologous chromosomes,but never between sister chromatids.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What are two commonly used DNA landmarks for mapping human genes?
Q6) (a)In a three-point mapping experiment,what three general classes of offspring are expected (assuming crossovers occur)? (b)How many different genotypic classes are expected?
Q7) If interference is complete,what would be the frequency of double crossovers?
Q8) Under what circumstance might two loci be on the same chromosome but behave as if independently assorting in crosses?
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Chapter 6: Genetic Analysis and Mapping in Bacteria and Bacteriophages
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Q1) What is the role of the F factor in bacterial recombination?
Q2) Describe how different strains of E.coli can reveal different linkage arrangements of genes in Hfr crosses.
Q3) In what way was the interrupted mating technique used to generate a genetic map in E.coli based on time?
Q4) The "interrupted mating technique" provides a genetic map in Drosophila.
A)True B)False
Q5) R plasmids often contain genes for antibody production. A)True B)False
Q6) A form of bacterial recombination that involves a viral intermediate is called
Q7) Assume that the gene trpA in an auxotrophic strain of E.coli is located at 27 minutes,whereas the gene pyrE is located at 81 minutes.
a) How are minutes arrived at in this context?
Page 8
b) Present an experimental scheme that would allow you to convert one of the auxotrophic strains to a prototrophic strain.
Q8) What is a form of recombination in bacteria that involves the F plasmid?
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Chapter 7: Sex Determination and Sex Chromosomes
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Q1) What can cause phenotypic mosaicism for X-linked genes in female mammals?
Q2) In humans,the male is the homogametic sex.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Assume that you are told that a particular organism,Drosophila,has the XO chromosome complement.You are also told that the autosomal complement is a normal 2n.You know that in humans the XO complement is female determining.Would you be correct in assuming that the Drosophila sex for XO is also female? Choose the answer that includes the correct explanation.
A) Yes, because sex determination in humans and insects is essentially the same.
B) No, sex determination in Drosophila is dependent on the presence or absence of the Y chromosome.
C) No, the chromosomal basis for sex determination in Drosophila is based on the balance between the number of X chromosomes and haploid sets of autosomes.
D) Yes, the presence of an X chromosome determines a female in both organisms.
E) No, it takes two X chromosomes to produce a female in humans and a Y chromosome to produce a male in Drosophila.
Q4) Describe three distinct genetic regions of the human Y chromosome.
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Chapter 8: Chromosome Mutations: Variation in Number and Arrangement
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Q1) Assume that a species has a diploid chromosome number of 24.The term applied to an individual with 36 chromosomes would be triploid.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Trisomy 21,or Down syndrome,occurs when there is a normal diploid chromosomal complement but one (extra)chromosome 21.While there is reduced fertility in both sexes,females have higher fertility than males.Van Dyke et al.(1995; Down Syndrome
Research and Practice 3(2):65-69)summarize data involving children born of Down syndrome individuals.Given the fact that conceptuses with 48 chromosomes (four #21 chromosomes)are not likely to survive early development,what percentage of surviving offspring would be expected to have Down syndrome if both parents have Down syndrome?
A) One-third of the surviving offspring would be expected to have Down syndrome.
B) All the children would be expected to have Down syndrome.
C) None of the surviving offspring would be expected to have Down syndrome.
D) Two-thirds of the surviving offspring would be expected to have Down syndrome.
E) One-half of the surviving offspring would be expected to have Down syndrome.
Q3) Colchicine is an alkaloid derived from plants.What is its effect on chromosome behavior?
Page 11
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Chapter 9: Extranuclear Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) List two classes of extrachromosomal inheritance and give an example of each.
Q2) Maternal-effect patterns result when nuclear gene products controlled by the maternal genotype condition the egg and influence early development.Give two examples of maternal effects.
Q3) It is safe to say that a maternal effect is caused by the genotype,not the phenotype,of the parent producing the egg.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Why is variegation in four o'clock plants determined by the phenotype of the ovule source?
Q5) To which of the following does the term heteroplasmy refer?
A) cells with a variable mixture of normal and abnormal organelles
B) heterozygous individuals with more than one gene pair involved
C) conditions in which the germ plasm is a mixture of dominant and recessive genes
D) a circumstance that is homologous to incomplete dominance
E) various stages of development of mitochondria and chloroplasts
Q6) Kearns-Sayre syndrome (KSS)results in progressive loss of vision and hearing,as well as heart defects.What is the genetic basis for this disease?
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Chapter 10: DNA Structure and Analysis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Regarding the structure of DNA,the covalently arranged combination of a deoxyribose and a nitrogenous base would be called a(n)________.
A) nucleotide
B) ribonucleotide
C) monophosphate nucleoside
D) oligonucleotide
E) nucleoside
Q2) In the 1860s,a Swiss chemist,Friedrich Miescher,isolated an acidic substance from cell nuclei.What was the name of this substance,and what was its significance?
Q3) All other factors being equal,the renaturation of the three classes of complementary nucleic acid sequences occurs in what order,from fastest to slowest?
Q4) What is the difference between a polynucleotide and an oligonucleotide?
Q5) What does it mean to say that double-stranded nucleic acids are antiparallel?
Q6) The transforming principle discovered by Griffith is RNA.
A)True
B)False
Q7) If the GC content of a DNA molecule is 60%,what are the molar percentages of the four bases ?(G,C,T,A)?
Page 13
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Chapter 11: DNA Replication and Recombination
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Q1) Compare the rate of DNA replication in prokaryotes and eukaryotes.
Q2) DNA replication occurs in the 5 to 3 direction; that is,new nucleoside triphosphates are added to the 3 end.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Meselson and Stahl determined that DNA replication in E coli is semiconservative.What additive did they initially supply to the medium in order to distinguish "new" from "old" DNA?
Q4) List four enzymes known to be involved in the replication of DNA in bacteria.
Q5) What is the name of the replication unit in prokaryotes,and how does it differ in eukaryotes?
Q6) A characteristic of aging cells is that their telomeres become shorter.
A)True
B)False
Q7) DNA strand replication begins with an RNA primer.
A)True
B)False
Q8) DNA replication in vivo requires a primer with a free 3 end.What molecular species provides this 3 end,and how is it provided?
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Chapter 12: DNA Organization in Chromosomes
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Q1) Telomerase is an enzyme involved in the replication of the ends of eukaryotic chromosomes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Describe the basic structure of a nucleosome.What is the role of histone H1?
Q3) Viral chromosomes exist in a variety of conformations and can be made up of
A) protein- or lipid-coding sequences
B) DNA only
C) DNA or RNA
D) RNA only
E) DNA, RNA, or protein
Q4) How do VNTRs relate to DNA fingerprinting?
Q5) Although mutations have been observed in many different genes,they have not been isolated in histones.Why does this seem reasonable? If one wanted to produce antibodies to histones,would it be an easy task? Explain your answer.
Q6) What similarities do bacterial chromosomes have with eukaryotic chromosomes?
Q7) What are histones,and how are they arranged in nucleosomes?
Q8) What are minisatellites and microsatellites?
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Chapter 13: The Genetic Code and Transcription
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Q1) Referring to the genetic code,what is meant by "wobble"?
Q2) Transcription factors function to help move ribosomes along the mRNA.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The genetic code is said to be triplet,meaning that there ________.
A) are three amino acids per base in mRNA
B) are three bases in mRNA that code for an amino acid
C) may be three ways in which an amino acid may terminate a chain
D) are three "nonsense" triplets
E) none of the above
Q4) Describe the function of N-formylmethionine in prokaryotes.
Q5) What is a nonsense mutation?
Q6) RNA processing occurs when amino acids are removed from nascent proteins.
A)True B)False
Q7) Describe how the sigma subunit (factor)of E.coli RNA polymerase participates in transcription.
Q8) Describe a difference between the RNA polymerases of eukaryotes and prokaryotes.
Q10) What is polycistronic mRNA? Page 16
Q9) What is meant by the term heterogeneous nuclear RNA (hnRNA)?
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Chapter 14: Translation and Proteins
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Q1) When a metabolic block occurs in a biochemical pathway,it is common for amount of the substance immediately prior to that block to increase.
A)True
B)False
Q2) List at least three posttranslational modifications known to occur as a newly synthesized protein matures.
Q3) Draw and label the spatial and polarity relationships among the following translational components: ribosome (small and large subunits),growing polypeptide chains,amino acid attachment to tRNA,mRNA,codon,and anticodon.
Q4) Regarding the protein structure,how are -pleated sheets arranged and stabilized?
Q5) What is the general ethnic distribution of the sickle-cell gene?
Q6) In what ways do the amino acid side chains interact to influence protein function?
Q7) Nutritional mutants in Neurospora can be "cured" by treating the medium with substances in the defective metabolic pathway.What determines whether the mutant strain (auxotroph)is "cured" by a particular substance?
Q8) What are polyribosomes?
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Chapter 15: Gene Mutation,dna Repair,and Transposition
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Q1) Assume that a new mutation occurs in the germ line of an individual.What finding would suggest that the new mutation is dominant rather than recessive?
Q2) When treating an organism with a mutagen,although it is possible that homozygous mutations will occur,it is more likely that most new mutations will be heterozygous or hemizygous.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Some mutagens cause genetic changes that can be "corrected" by reexposing cells to the same mutagen.Other mutagens do not behave in this way.Provide one example of each of these two types of agents and describe the mutational changes caused in DNA.Explain why some mutagens behave in one way,while others do not.
Q4) Certain base analogs such as 5-bromouracil cause mutations by chemically altering nitrogenous bases in nonreplicating DNA.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The process of error correction of mismatched bases carried out by DNA polymerases is called ________.
Q6) What are LINES?
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Chapter 16: Regulation of Gene Expression in Prokaryotes
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Q1) The table below lists several genotypes associated with the lac operon in E.coli.For each,indicate with a "+" or a "-" whether functional -galactosidase would be expected to be produced at induced levels. \(\begin{array}{llcc}
&\beta \text {-galactosidase production }\\ \underline { \text { Genotype } } &\underline {\text { No Lactose \quad \quad With Lactose}} \\
(a) \quad I+O+Z+/ F^{\prime} I-O+Z+ &\\
(b) \quad I-O c Z+/ F^{\prime} I-O+Z- \\
(c)\quad I{s} O c Z+/ F^{\prime} I+O+Z+ \\
(d) \quad I-O+Z+/ F^{\prime} I-O+Z+ \\ \end{array}\)
\(\begin{array}{l}
I^{+}=\text {wild-type repressor } \\
I^{-}=\text {mutant repressor (unable to bind to the operator) } \\
I^{s}=\text { mutant repressor (insensitive to lactose) } \\
O^{+}=\text {wild-type operator } \\
O \mathcal{C}=\text { constitutive operator (insensitive to repressor) } \end{array}\)
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Chapter 17: Regulation of Gene Expression in Eukaryotes
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Q1) The human metallothionein IIA gene (hMTIIA)is transcriptionally regulated through the interplay of regulatory elements and transcription factors.What is the function of this gene,and how is it regulated by environmental circumstances?
Q2) DNA methylation may be a significant mode of genetic regulation in eukaryotes.Methylation refers to ________.
A) altering RNA polymerase activity by DNA modifications
B) changes in DNA-DNA hydrogen binding
C) altering translational activity especially of highly methylated tRNAs
D) alteration of DNA polymerase activity by addition of methyl groups to glycine
E) residues F) addition of methyl groups to the cytosine of CG doublets
Q3) Describe three characteristics of enhancers and silencers.
Q4) Mutations in the promoter region of the -globin gene indicate that some areas are more sensitive than others.When mutations occur in consensus sequences (modular elements such as GC box,CAAT box,TATA box),does transcription usually increase or decrease?
Q5) Transcription factors appear to be important molecules relating to the regulation of gene activity.Two general classes of transcription factors exist in eukaryotes.Briefly describe each.
Q6) Provide a general set of statements that describes an enhancer.
Page 21
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Chapter 18: Developmental Genetics
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Q1) Give a brief definition of a homeobox.
Q2) Experiments involving nuclear transplantation in amphibians indicate that nuclei derived from blastula are more likely to support development of complete and normal adults compared with those derived from later stages of development.What do these experiments tell us about the process of development?
Q3) Three investigators-Nüsslein-Volhard,Wieschaus,and Lewis-won the Nobel Prize for physiology and medicine in 1995 for work they did in 1970 with Drosophila.Briefly describe their findings.
Q4) What is the significance of the homeodomain?
Q5) In Drosophila,the sequential order of the function of segmentation genes is
A) gap, segment-polarity, pair-rule
B) pair-rule, transdeterminal, gap
C) transdeterminal, gap, pair-rule
D) gap, pair-rule, segment-polarity
E) segmentational, helical, spherical
Q6) Do Hox gene clusters exist in humans? If so,how many are known to exist?
Q7) What is the general order of genes involved in determining early Drosophila development?
Page 22
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Chapter 19: Cancer and Regulation of the Cell Cycle
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Q1) As more is learned about cancer,it has become clear that cancer,with few exceptions,has no genetic basis.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Describe the cellular and molecular function of the ras gene family and the consequences of mutations in ras.
Q3) The genetic difference between familial retinoblastoma and sporadic retinoblastoma appears to be based on those with the familial form starting out being ________,whereas those with the sporadic form start out being ________.
Q4) What is the name of the protein that appears to regulate the entry of cells into an S phase? This protein is also known as the "guardian of the genome."
A) p34
B) p102
C) cyclin
D) p53
E) phosphokinase
Q5) What is a tumor-suppressor gene? What are oncogenes? What is the normal (nonmutant)cellular version of an oncogene called?
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Chapter 20: Recombinant DNA Technology
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Q1) In a typical PCR,primers are used to cleave specific regions of the DNA template. A)True B)False
Q2) Of what advantage is it to have a multiple cloning site (multiple unique restriction sites)embedded in the lacZ component of a plasmid?
Q3) In what way are specific DNA sequences of the template amplified in the polymerase chain reaction? In other words,how does one target the target?
Q4) In recombinant DNA technology,YAC,RFLP,and have identical uses.
A)True B)False
Q5) Name at least two typical characteristics of a DNA cloning plasmid?
Q6) If one wishes to clone a gene using typical restriction endonucleases,how does the restriction endonuclease recognize genes in the genome?
Q7) What is a popular approach that is often used to introduce the targeting vector into cells?
Q8) Under ideal conditions,how many copies of all the sequences of the host genome should be represented in a genomic library?
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Chapter 21: Genomics, bioinformatics, and Proteomics
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Q1) Present an overview of the gene organization in large-genome plants.
Q2) Explain the goal of the emerging discipline called systems biology.
Q3) Proteomics is the ________.
A) process of defining the complete set of proteins encoded by a genome
B) harvesting of proteins from a cell to determine their economic value
C) manipulation of amino acid sequences in proteins to alter their function
D) changing of the terminal sequences of proteins to alter their function
E) rational design of drugs based on protein structure
Q4) What is the typical gene density per kilobase in prokaryotes?
A) 426,000
B) 3000
C) 1200
D) 1
E) 12
Q5) What is meant by the term pseudogene?
Q6) Bacterial genes have introns,and eukaryotic genes lack introns.
A)True
B)False
Q7) In what way will the discipline called metagenomics contribute to human health and welfare?
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Chapter 22: Applications and Ethics of Genetic Engineering and Biotechnology
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Q1) Describe,in general terms,the aims of gene therapy.
Q2) Biotechnology has yet to produce a single useful product for a human health condition.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following characteristics do SNPs have?
A) variable amino acid substitutions, highly heterogeneous
B) variable numbers of tandem repeats, highly uniform in the population
C) variable base sequences, variable in the population
D) various nucleotides transcribed repeatedly, homogeneous
E) small noteworthy transcribed regions, lethal genes
Q4) Under strictly controlled conditions,a probe can be used that will hybridize only with its complementary sequence and not with other sequences that may vary by as little as one nucleotide.What are such probes called?
A) generation-specific probes
B) short, variable repeats
C) VNTRs
D) microsatellites
E) allele-specific oligonucleotides (ASOs)
Q5) How are gene therapy and recombinant DNA technology related?
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Chapter 23: Quantitative Genetics and Multifactorial Traits
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Q1) Which two relatively recent extensions to QTL mapping center on molecular definitions of phenotypes with quantitative traits?
Q2) Define the term broad-sense heritability (H² .What is implied by a relatively high value of H²? Express aspects of broad-sense heritability in equation form
Q3) Assume that in the F of a series of crosses,1/64 of the offspring resemble one of the parents (P).How many gene pairs are involved in producing these results?
Q4) If the proportion of F individuals resembling either of the two most extreme phenotypes (the parental phenotypes)can be determined,what formula can be applied to determine the number of gene pairs involved?
Q5) Environmental factors typically influence inheritance of ________.
A) multiple alleles
B) codominance
C) trihybrid crosses
D) polygenic traits
E) dominantly inherited traits
Q6) What is the name of the process of selecting a specific group of organisms from an initially heterogeneous population for future breeding purposes?
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Chapter 24: Neurogenetics
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Q1) Determining the genetic influence on two fairly common human behavioral disorders has eluded researchers for many years.One involves passive deficits in thinking,language,feelings,and social skills; the other includes a variety of psychotic symptoms,perceptual disorders (hearing voices),and withdrawal from reality.Evidence from pedigrees and twins indicates that these two behaviors have a genetic component.Which behaviors are being described here?
Q2) Suggest two problems with determining the genetic basis of a behavioral trait in humans.
Q3) Drosophila can learn and remember.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is a major problem that arises in the study of the genetic basis of human behavior?
A) Memories of individuals are unreliable.
B) People are too short lived.
C) Behaviors are difficult to define objectively.
D) The environment plays no role in behavioral expression.
E) The environment is the only factor that determines human behavior.
Q5) Why is cyclic AMP considered important in behavioral studies?
Q6) How are electrical impulses propagated from neuron to neuron?
Page 28
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Chapter 25: Population and Evolutionary Genetics
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Q1) Which would change allele frequencies more quickly: selection against a dominant allele or selection against a recessive allele?
Q2) In the evolutionary sense,what is meant by the term molecular clock?
Q3) A certain form of albinism in humans is recessive and autosomal.Assume that 1% of the individuals in a given population are albino.Assuming that the population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium,what percentage of the individuals in this population is expected to be heterozygous?
Q4) Define the term fitness and relate it to the meaning of selection coefficient.
Q5) What term is given to the total genetic information carried by all members of a population?
A) gene pool
B) genome
C) chromosome complement
D) breeding unit
E) race
Q6) In zoo animals,inbreeding often occurs because of a lack of a sufficient pool of breeding individuals.Under such conditions,what two characteristics are often exhibited among inbred organisms?
Q7) What does the variable 2pq represent?
Page 29
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