Biology I Chapter Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Biology I provides a comprehensive introduction to the fundamental principles of biology. This course covers the structure and function of cells, basic biochemistry, genetics, evolution, and an overview of the diversity of life. Students will explore cellular processes such as metabolism, respiration, and photosynthesis, while gaining insight into how genetic information is inherited and expressed. Emphasis is placed on understanding scientific methodology, the relationship between organisms and their environments, and the application of biological concepts to real-world issues. This foundational course is essential for students pursuing studies in the life sciences and related fields.
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Introduction to Genetic Analysis 11th Edition by Anthony J.F. Griffiths
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Chapter 1: The Genetics Revolution
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Q1) A sample of normal double-stranded DNA was found to have a guanine content of 18%.What is the expected proportion of adenine?
A)9%
B)32%
C)36%
D)68%
E)82%
Answer: B
Q2) Arabidopsis thaliana is a diploid plant model organism with 2n = 10.
a)How many copies of each gene does each Arabidopsis thaliana cell have?
b)How many sets of chromosomes does the nucleus of an Arabidopsis thaliana leaf cell contain?
c)How many pairs of homologous chromosomes does the nucleus of an Arabidopsis thaliana leaf cell contain?
Answer: a)2 b)2 c)5
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Chapter 2: Single-Gene Inheritance
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Q1) A dominant gene b<sup>+</sup> is responsible for the wild-type body color of Drosophila;its recessive allele b produces black body color.A testcross of a heterozygous b<sup>+</sup>/b female by a black b/b male gave 52 black and 58 wild-type progeny.If a black female from these progeny were crossed with a wild-type brother,what phenotypic ratios would be expected in their offspring?
A)All males will be wild type,and all females will be black.
B)All progeny will be black.
C)All progeny will be wild type.
D)75% will be wild type,25% will be black.
E)50% will be wild type,50% will be black.
Answer: E
Q2) A couple is both heterozygous for the autosomal recessive disease cystic fibrosis (CF).What is the probability that their first child will either be a boy or have CF?
A)6/8
B)5/8
C)3/8
D)2/8
E)1/8
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Independent Assortment of Genes
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Q1) Mendel's Y/y;R/r dihybrid pea plants were the F<sub>1</sub> of the cross between a double homozygous dominant and a double homozygous recessive.If we testcrossed these dihybrids,what proportion of the offspring would be recombinant and phenotypically resemble the F<sub>1</sub> dihybrid?
A)0%
B)25%
C)50%
D)75%
E)100%
Answer: A
Q2) In a trihybrid,how many different gamete genotypes can be produced with respect to the three genes of interest?
A)3
B)4
C)8
D)16
E)27
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Mapping Eukaryote Chromosomes by
Recombination
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Q1) Ascospores from a cross a \(\times\) b c (all auxotrophic markers)are analyzed.If genes b and c are linked,10 map units apart,but gene a is located on a different chromosome,what proportion of ascospores is expected to be a<sup>+</sup>b<sup>+</sup>c<sup>+</sup>?
A)about 12.5%
B)about 22.5%
C)about 25%
D)about 45%
E)about 50%
Q2) Ascospores from a cross of c \(\times\) d e (all auxotrophic markers)are analyzed.If genes c and d are linked,10 map units apart,but gene e is located on a different chromosome,what proportion of ascospores is expected to be c<sup>+</sup>d<sup>+</sup>e<sup>+</sup>?
A)about 1%
B)about 2.5%
C)about 5%
D)about 40%
E)about 50%
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Chapter 5: The Genetics of Bacteria and Their Viruses
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Q1) Two bacterial strains were obtained with the following genotypes: \(\begin{array}{|l|l|}
\hline\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad& \text { Hfr: alaleu }{ }^{+} a\_{-1} \mathrm{St}^{2} \mathrm{r}^{5} \quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\quad\\ \hline&F^{-}: \quad a l a^{+} l e u r a-l^{R} S t r^{R} \\ \hline \end{array}\)
After an uninterrupted conjugation,you want to select F<sup>-</sup> recombinants that are ala<sup>+</sup>leu<sup>+</sup>.Which of the following media would you use for this selection?
A)complete medium containing streptomycin
B)minimal medium containing streptomycin
C)minimal medium containing leucine and streptomycin
D)minimal medium containing sodium azide and leucine
E)minimal medium containing alanine,leucine,and streptomycin
Q2) Two labs calculated cotransduction frequencies for the genes A and B.Lab 1 calculated 0.63,and lab 2 calculated 0.47.Which lab reported the genes to be closer together?
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Chapter 6: Gene Interaction
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Q1) Suppose that pigmentation in rabbits is controlled by two genes (E and H).Each gene exhibits complete dominance,and the relationships between genotypes and phenotypes are listed below:
\[\begin{array} { l l }
\text { Genotype } & \text { Phenotype } \\
E /- ; H /- & \text { albino } \\
e / e ; H / - & \text { brown } \\
E / - ; h / h & \text { albino } \\
e / e ; h / h & \text { albino }
\end{array}\]
a)Two brown parents produce an albino baby rabbit.What are the genotypes of each of the parents and that of the kit (baby rabbit)?
b)What phenotypic ratio would be expected among the progeny of an intercross between dihybrid rabbits?
c)In a litter of five baby rabbits from the above cross,what is the probability that all five of the baby rabbits will be albino?
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Chapter 7: Dna: Structure and Replication
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Q1) Chargaff's rules do NOT hold for which of the following genome types?
A)yeast
B)bacteria
C)single-stranded DNA virus
D)invertebrates
E)Archaeobacteria
Q2) Which of the following is/are NOT a key structural property displayed by the heritable (transforming)material?
A)The structure must contain complex information (genetic code).
B)The structure must be composed of rare/unusual elements.
C)The structure must allow or tolerate small changes that facilitate nonlethal variation.
D)The structure must be enzymatically active,able to mediate cellular metabolism.
E)The structure must be composed of rare/unusual elements and must be enzymatically active,able to mediate cellular metabolism.
Q3) The number of proteins in the prokaryotic replisome is 13,while the number in a eukaryotic cell is 27.What are important protein components of the replisome in general? Why might a eukaryotic cell have more components?
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Chapter 8: Rna: Transcription and Processing
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Q1) Which of the following is/are TRUE for RNA compared to DNA?
A)RNA has ribose sugar in its nucleotides,rather than the deoxyribose found in DNA.
B)RNA is usually single stranded and can make more complex three-dimensional molecular shapes than double-stranded DNA.
C)RNA contain the bases A,G,C,and U,whereas DNA contain the bases A,G,C,and T.
D)RNA can catalyse biological reactions,but DNA cannot.
E)All of the answer options are correct.
Q2) The initial discovery of the spliceosome resulted from experiments focused on: A)autoimmunity in Lupus patients.
B)the isolation of large RNA/protein complexes from cells.
C)careful analysis of electron microscopy images from the cell nucleus.
D)RNAs from plant cells.
E)the cell biology of Huntington's disease.
Q3) What would the minimum word (codon)size be if the number of different bases in the mRNA were a)two;b)three;c)five.Give your reasoning.Assume that all other features of the translation of mRNA into protein are the same as what we now know.
Q4) What are the three major classes of functional RNAs? Briefly describe the role of each class of functional RNA.
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Chapter 9: Proteins and Their Synthesis
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Q1) Formation of the peptide bond could be described as:
A)a spontaneous reaction between two peptides,forming a covalent bond.
B)a ribosome-catalyzed process occurring in the nucleus.
C)a tRNA catalyzed process.
D)a ribosome-catalyzed dehydration reaction (H<sub>2</sub>0 released).
E)transcription,a key process in gene expression.
Q2) During the initiation of prokaryotic translation,a defect in IF3 function would generate:
A)inefficient association of the 30S and 50S subunits.
B)proteolysis of the 50S subunit.
C)an inability of tRNA and mRNA binding to the 30S subunit.
D)premature association of the 30S and 50S subunits.
E)normal progression of translation (no defect).
Q3) The ribosome in eukaryotes can be described as being composed of:
A)rRNAs and over 50 different proteins.
B)a 50S subunit and a 30S subunit,forming a 70S ribosome.
C)proteins in quaternary structure,binding tRNAs within the nucleus.
D)a large enzyme complex that is found only on the endoplasmic reticulum membrane.
E)rRNAs,protein subunits,ATP,and aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase.
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Chapter 10: Gene Isolation and Manipulation
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Q1) A transgenic mouse is different from a knockout mouse in that:
A)transgenic mice have DNA added to their genome.
B)transgenic mice do not have DNA added to their genome.
C)the transgene is inserted at a random (ectopic)site in the genome.
D)a knockout mouse is more healthy than a transgenic mouse.
E)the knockout mouse is sterile.
Q2) Which of the following statements about PCR is/are FALSE?
A)PCR reaction contains DNA template,primers,deoxyribonucleotide triphosphates,and heat-resistant DNA polymerase.
B)Each PCR cycle includes three steps: denaturation,annealing,and extension.
C)After each PCR cycle,amount of DNA increases in a linear manner.
D)One limitation in PCR is that it requires prior knowledge of the sequence or at least part of the sequence to be amplified.
E)PCR is a very sensitive technique and can amplify target sequences present in extremely low copy numbers.
Q3) A new restriction enzyme is discovered that recognizes an 8-base restriction sequence.About how many fragments of the Wombat genome (approximately 4.2 \(\times\) 10<sup>8</sup> in size)would you expect if you digested it with this enzyme?
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Chapter 11: Regulation of Gene Expression in Bacteria and Their Viruses
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Q1) Which of the following is/are NOT part of the lac operon?
A)lacZ
B)lacI
C)lacY
D)lacA
E)All (lacZ,lacI,lacY,and lacA)are part of the lac operon.
Q2) The trp operon is controlled by:
A)Trp repressor.
B)attenuation.
C)catabolite activator protein (CAP).
D)Trp repressor and catabolite activator protein (CAP).
E)Trp repressor and attenuation.
Q3) A super repressor mutation (I<sup>S</sup>)results in:
A)no transcription.
B)inducible transcription.
C)transcription but no translation.
D)no translation.
E)constitutive transcription.
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Chapter 12: Regulation of Gene Expression in Eukaryotes
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Q1) In the presence of the sugar galactose,the expression levels of GAL1,GAL2,GAL7,and GAL10 are ______________ as compared to the absence of galactose.
A)1000-fold higher
B)1000-fold lower
C)10-fold higher
D)10-fold lower
E)the same
Q2) What portion of a histone is typically modified by acetylation/de-acetylation?
A)acidic amino acid residues in the "head" region of the histone
B)basic amino acid residues in the "head" region of the histone
C)basic amino acid residues in the "tail" region of the histone
D)acidic amino acid residues in the "head" region and basic amino acid residues in the "tail" region
E)None of the answer options are correct.
Q3) Describe the difference between transcriptional gene regulation and post-transcriptional gene regulation in eukaryotes.
Q4) The miRNA-RISC complex is known to inhibit translation.List several possible mechanisms for translational inhibition mediated by miRNA-RISC.
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Chapter 13: The Genetic Control of Development
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Q1) Shown below is a list of molecules that function in Drosophila development (a-g)and a list of possible distribution patterns (1-5).On the line following each distribution pattern,write the letter(s)of the molecule(s)showing that type of distribution pattern.
a)toll transmembrane receptor
b)hunchback protein
c)activated SPZ ligand
d)inactive DL protein
e)active DL protein
f)NOS protein
g)Bicoid protein
1)Highest gradient is in the anterior end of the embryo.__________
2)Highest gradient is in the posterior end of the embryo.__________
3)Highest gradient is at the ventral midpoint of the embryo.__________
4)This is distributed throughout the oocyte/embryo.__________
5)This is present uniformly in the oocyte plasma membrane.__________
Q2) A scientist working in a Drosophila lab locates a mutation in an organism that caused antenna to be transformed into legs.He determines that this is a homeotic transformation.Do you agree?
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Chapter 14: Genomes and Genomics
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Q1) Genes that have been inherited from a common ancestor are called:
A)homologs.
B)orthologs.
C)paralogs.
D)heterologs.
E)alleles.
Q2) What is meant by "codon bias"?
A)Codons are specific for the amino acids they specify.
B)Certain viruses like to infect particular DNA sequences in our genome.
C)Some organisms will use specific codons for amino acids they specify.
D)Certain viruses like to infect particular DNA sequences in our genome,and some organisms will use specific codons for amino acids they specify.
E)None of the answer options are correct.
Q3) The "proteome" is defined as:
A)the sequence and expression patterns of all transcripts.
B)the sequence and expression of all proteins.
C)the complete set of all physical interactions (i.e.protein/DNA or protein/protein).
D)the complete set of all metabolites.
E)None of the answer options are correct.
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Chapter 15: The Dynamic Genome: Transposable Elements
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Q1) Retroviruses replicate using:
A)DNA polymerase.
B)RNA polymerase.
C)restriction endonuclease.
D)reverse transcriptase.
E)topoisomerase.
Q2) A nonautonomous element:
A)requires no other elements for its mobility.
B)requires additional element(s)for its mobility.
C)is only found in corn (maize).
D)is found only in plants.
E)None of the answers are correct.
Q3) In D.melanogaster,when M cytotype (lab stock)females are crossed to P cytotype (wild)males,the resulting F<sub>1</sub> progeny are:
A)normal.
B)defective.
C)normal:defective in a 1:1 ratio.
D)normal:defective in a 1:2:1 ratio.
E)normal:defective in a 3:1 ratio.
Q4) Compare and contrast autonomous and nonautonomous transposable elements.
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Mutation, Repair, and Recombination
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Q1) E.coli cells that have null mutations in the gene encoding adenine methylase will have:
A)a higher spontaneous mutation rate than wild-type E.coli.
B)the same spontaneous mutation rate as wild-type E.coli.
C)a lower spontaneous mutation rate than wild-type E.coli.
D)more double-strand breaks in their DNA than wild-type E.coli.
E)fewer double-strand breaks in their DNA than wild-type E.coli.
Q2) In a haploid fungus,a small in-frame deletion arises in the coding region of a gene necessary for the production of the amino acid leucine.The deletion removes the three base pairs corresponding to a UAC codon (encoding cysteine).This small deletion will most likely cause:
A)the production of a truncated (shortened)protein.
B)the production of a truncated (shortened)mRNA.
C)the production of a shorter mRNA and of a shorter protein.
D)no detectable phenotype.
E)inability to grow on medium that lacks cysteine.
Q3) Five different mutations were derived from base pair substitutions at a single codon.In this codon,the mutant alleles had arginine,leucine,glycine,serine,and cysteine.What was the wild-type codon?
Q4) How do mutation and DNA damage differ?
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Large-Scale Chromosomal Changes
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Q1) In corn R is a gene for red aleurone;its recessive allele r determines colorless aleurone.A cross is made between a diploid r/r female and a trisomic R/r/r male.If pollen grains with extra chromosomes are inviable,the ratio of red to colorless kernels expected in the progeny would be:
A)1 red : 5 colorless.
B)1 red : 2 colorless.
C)1 red : 1 colorless.
D)2 red : 1 colorless.
E)5 red : 1 colorless.
Q2) Which of the following diagnostic features is indicative of an inversion having occurred?
A)formation of chromosomal "loop" structures in meiosis I
B)reduced fertility
C)pseudodominance
D)formation of chromosomal loops during meiosis and reduced fertility
E)reduced fertility and pseudodominance
Q3) An allotetraploid plant with 2n = 30 is backcrossed to one of its progenitor species that has an n = 8.A sterile progeny is produced.How many chromosomes will this sterile individual possess,and what are the chromosome numbers of the two progenitor species?
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Chapter 18: Population Genetics
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Q1) Two chromosomes having the same combination of alleles at multiple loci are said to be of similar:
A)genotype.
B)haplotype.
C)phenotype.
D)sporotype.
Q2) If 64% of the people in a population are blue-eyed and the population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium,what is the percentage of heterozygotes in the population?
A)16%
B)20%
C)32%
D)36%
E)It is impossible to make an estimate from these data.
Q3) Which of the following is a question that population genetics would address?
A)How does cancer spread from one tissue to another?
B)How does the cell copy DNA?
C)How does a single nucleotide substitution cause sickle cell anemia?
D)How many people have colorblindness in Utah?
E)How does phenylketonuria affect brain development?
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Chapter 19: The Inheritance of Complex Traits
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Q1) Imagine that an association mapping study revealed a particular variant of a SNP to be strongly associated with susceptibility to insomnia.From these data,you could infer that:
A)the SNP is closely linked to a locus that plays a role in insomnia.
B)the SNP is located in a gene that determines insomnia.
C)the SNP provides evidence that insomnia is a genetic condition.
D)the variant SNP most likely causes insomnia.
E)the variant SNP plays a role in insomnia.
Q2) A large number of genetically identical tomato plants are grown in a greenhouse.The mean height in this plant population is 84 cm,and the standard deviation is 2.5 cm.The variation in height within this population is most likely due to:
A)a correlation between genotype and environment.
B)the difference between the greenhouse population mean and the whole population mean.
C)differences in the plants' microenvironment.
D)random genetic differences within the population.
E)the use of a nonrepresentative sample to compute the mean.
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Chapter 20: Evolution of Genes and Traits
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Q1) Plasmodium falciparum is a parasitic protist that can be carried among host organisms by a mosquito.Infection generates anemia via a process of:
A)infecting the bone marrow of its hosts.
B)causing uncontrolled bleeding from tissues.
C)invading red blood cells and dividing within them.
D)mosquito-based feeding upon the blood during transmission.
E)anemia is not a symptom of Plasmodium infection.
Q2) In what way can synonymous mutations still have a selective component?
Q3) Balanced polymorphism is illustrated by:
A)a situation where the selective pressure enhances the frequency of heterozygotes over homozygotes.
B)a situation where the selective pressure enhances the frequency of homozygotes over heterozygotes.
C)only situations where disease impacts allele frequency.
D)situations where allelic homozygosity is impossible.
E)All of the answer options are correct.
Q4) Describe the relationship between overall DNA change and functional change.
Q5) What will determine the rate of a molecular clock for a gene that codes for a functional protein?
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