Biology I Chapter Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Biology I is an introductory course that explores the fundamental concepts of biology, providing a comprehensive foundation in the study of living organisms. Topics covered include the structure and function of cells, basic biochemistry, genetics, principles of evolution, and an overview of diversity among organisms. Through lectures, laboratory work, and interactive discussions, students will gain an understanding of key biological processes such as metabolism, cell division, and heredity, preparing them for more advanced studies in the biological sciences.
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Discover Biology 6th Core Edition by Anu Singh
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Chapter 1: The Nature of Science and the Characteristics of Life
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Q1) Although the idea seems contradictory,science cannot prove a hypothesis to be true.Why?
A) All true hypotheses will be rejected by the scientific method because they can be proven false.
B) Future experiments or discoveries may provide data that refute the hypothesis.
C) Science is a human endeavor, and like all human endeavors, it is limited by human understanding.
D) The scientific method is limited to examination of the natural world.
Answer: B
Q2) In the scientific method,observations are most often followed by ________ and then ________.
Answer: hypotheses; experiments
Q3) Which of the following groups of organisms is NOT included in the domain Eukarya?
A) Protista
B) Prokaryotes
C) Fungi
D) Animalia
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Life
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Q1) In the equation 3H + N à 2NH ,how many molecules of hydrogen gas (H )are present?
A) 2
B) 3
C) 6
D) 12
Answer: B
Q2) The outer electron shell of a nitrogen atom can hold up to eight electrons but contains only five.As a result,nitrogen can form ________ covalent bonds.
A) Zero
B) One
C) Three
D) Eight
Answer: C
Q3) A compound that maintains the pH of a solution by taking up or releasing hydrogen ions is called a ________.
Answer: buffer
Q4) A group of monomers bonded together form a ________.
Answer: polymer
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Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Internal Compartments
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Q1) The part of the plasma membrane that is in contact with the external environment of the cell consists of ________ molecules.
A) hydrophobic portions of the constituent
B) hydrophilic portions of the constituent
C) neutral (uncharged)
D) nonpolar ends of the constituent
Answer: B
Q2) The smooth endoplasmic reticulum
A) is the site where lipids destined for other cellular compartments are manufactured.
B) produces the energy needed to run chemical reactions in the cell.
C) converts sunlight into chemical energy.
D) stores water, nutrients, and enzymes.
Answer: A
Q3) Eukaryotic cells contain membrane-bound organelles.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) During the process of photosynthesis,________ is given off as a by-product.
Answer: oxygen
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Chapter 4: Cell Membranes, Transport, and Communication
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Q1) Passive carrier molecules often require active carrier proteins to provide amino acids for transport.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A red blood cell is placed in a solution and it begins to shrink.Which of the following describes the solution?
A) hypertonic
B) isotonic
C) hypotonic
D) supertonic
Q3) Signaling molecules can affect a cell from the outside by interacting with specific receptors that are located
A) in the plasma membrane.
B) within the cell's organelles.
C) within chloroplasts.
D) on the cell wall.
Q4) The concentration of solutes is higher within the mitochondria than it is in the cytosol.Therefore,the cytosol is ________ to the inside of the mitochondrion.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Energy, Metabolism, and Enzymes
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Q1) The first law of thermodynamics states that the total energy of a living system and its surroundings remains constant.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A molecule of sugar slowly burns in a cell.Compared with the original sugar molecules,the products of these catabolic reactions are ________ and have ________.
A) less stable; more energy
B) more stable; more energy
C) more stable; less energy
D) less stable; less energy
Q3) Biosynthetic reactions require many things,including ________ and ________.
A) carbon dioxide; water
B) glucose; water
C) enzymes; ATP
D) sunlight; CTP
Q4) The gain of electrons by one atom from another atom is referred to as ________.
Q5) Almost all the chemical reactions that occur in cells are catalyzed by ________.
Q6) A catalyst is not changed during a chemical reaction,but it affects the ________ at which the reaction occurs.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Photo Synthesis and Cellular Respiration
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Q1) If plants are able to capture energy from the sun,why do they need to pass that energy through the chemical reactions that are necessary to produce ATP?
A) ATP enables the energy to be stored for later use or transferred to other chemical reactions.
B) Chloroplasts are unable to use the energy they capture from the sun.
C) Producing ATP enables the plant to destroy excess energy that was captured from the sun.
D) The mitochondria that capture the sun's energy are unable to use it for respiration.
Q2) The energy source that makes oxidative phosphorylation possible comes from A) phosphate group transfers from ATP.
B) electrons that are transferred from NADPH.
C) electrons that are transferred from NADH.
D) electrons that are removed from CO during its oxidation.
Q3) The first stable product of carbon fixation in C photosynthesis is A) CO .
B) a three-carbon compound called phosphoglyceric acid.
C) citric acid.
D) glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate.
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Chapter 7: Cell Division
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Q1) Some daughter cells are called clones; for this description to be accurate,the daughter cells must
A) show the same differentiation characteristics as the parent cell.
B) separate from each other and exist independently.
C) contain a set of DNA that is identical to that of the parent cell.
D) have been produced by meiotic cell division.
Q2) The attachment of microtubules to the centromeres of chromosomes sets the stage for the positioning of the chromosomes at the metaphase plate; the attachment of the microtubules occurs during the mitotic phase called ________.
Q3) If a skin cell of an organism has 24 chromosomes,its gametes must also have 24 chromosomes.
A)True
B)False
Q4) How many sister chromatids are in a bivalent?
A) two
B) four
C) eight
D) 16
Q5) Sister chromatids are held together at a constriction point called a ________.
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Chapter 8: Cancer and Human Health
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Q1) One or two mutations are often the cause of cancer.
A)True
B)False
Q2) To be healthy,an organism must stop all cell division activities.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Tumor suppressors cause programmed cell death.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A cure for cancer would stop all cell division in an organism.
A)True
B)False
Q5) When cells are stimulated to divide,then
A) proto-oncogenes are inactivated.
B) tumor suppressors are activated.
C) tumor suppressors are inactivated.
D) oncogenes become proto-oncogenes.
Q6) Under normal conditions,growth factors activate ________ and inactivate ________ genes.
Q7) A tumor cell has lost ________ when it breaks off from the primary tumor.
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Chapter 9: Patterns of Inheritance
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Q1) Which of the following symbols correctly represents a person who has a homozygous genotype?
A) Ww
B) WW
C) XY
D) Wx
Q2) If the influence of two alleles is fully displayed in the heterozygote without being diminished by the presence of the other allele or being suppressed by a dominant allele,the two alleles are said to be ________.
Q3) Which of the following represents all of the possible gametes that can be formed by an individual with the genetic makeup Ff GgHH ?
A) FGH, FgH, fGH, fgH
B) Ff, Gg, HH
C) FG, FH, Fg, fH, fG, fg, GH, gH
D) Ff GhHH, FFGGHH, f fgghh
Q4) The first reaction in the chain of enzyme-catalyzed chemical reactions that convert the amino acid tyrosine into eumelanin or pheomelanin is orchestrated by an enzyme encoded by the C gene.This enzyme is called ________.
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Chapter 10: Chromosomes and Human Genetics
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Q1) Which of the following processes is NOT a method of generating new combinations of alleles in the offspring of two individuals?
A) crossing-over between chromosomes
B) fertilization of an egg by a sperm
C) independent assortment of chromosomes
D) linkage of genes
Q2) Because two genes are only very rarely separated from each other by crossing-over,it can be concluded that the two genes are
A) close to each other on the same chromosome.
B) far apart from each other on the same chromosome
C) on two different chromosomes.
D) on homologous chromosomes.
Q3) Among children with parents who are both carriers of Tay-Sachs,an autosomal recessive disorder,chances are that
A) 75 percent will be carriers.
B) 50 percent will die in a few years.
C) 75 percent will not carry the recessive Tay-Sachs's allele.
D) 50 percent will be carriers.
Q4) A female who is a carrier of the sex-linked gene A has the genotype ________.
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Chapter 11: DNA and Genes
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Q1) Which of the following would NOT be a required biological property of genetic material?
A) It must be variable.
B) It must exist in paired copies.
C) It must be able to be copied accurately.
D) It must contain the information needed for life.
Q2) The 220 different cell types in the human body each contain all of the same DNA found in every other cell type.
A)True
B)False
Q3) DNA is ________ [more or less] tightly packaged during interphase when most gene expression occurs.
Q4) Borrelia burgdorferi has a genome of 0.5 million base pairs and little noncoding DNA.Borrelia burgdorferi is a ________.
Q5) The process of DNA replication is error free.
A)True
B)False
Q6) DNA is tightly packed around protein spools known as ________.
Q7) ________ DNA consists of stretches of nucleotides that separate genes.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: From Gene to Protein
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Q1) Which of the following is the best and most complete description of the function of genes?
A) They control the production of enzymes.
B) They control the production of structural proteins.
C) They control the production of all proteins.
D) They control the production of amino acids.
Q2) If a eukaryotic protein is to function properly,the initial mRNA carrying the code for its structure must be processed to remove its ________.Then,before translation occurs,the joining together of the remaining sequences of mRNA,the ________,must be accomplished.
Q3) The series of bases in mRNA that can specify a single amino acid is called a(n)________.
Q4) Which of the following is true of rRNA?
A) It is made up of base pairs.
B) It carries amino acids.
C) It is not translated.
D) It helps transcribe DNA.
Q5) Translation,a process carried out by the ribosomes,occurs in the cell ________.
Q6) The intermediary molecule that transmits information in a gene to a ribosome is ________.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: DNA Technology
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Q1) DNA fingerprinting can prove guilt without fail.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In RNA ________,the expression of a specific gene is blocked by small pieces of RNA.
Q3) Cloning is useful because it
A) repairs broken DNA.
B) mixes the DNA from two different organisms.
C) produces many copies of recombinant DNA.
D) determines the base sequence of a gene.
Q4) A scientist isolates genomic DNA from a human cell.She needs to physically separate a specific segment of that DNA away from the rest.Which technology will allow her to do this?
A) DNA microarrays
B) genetic engineering
C) restriction enzymes
D) recombinant DNA
Q5) RNA interference can only be used to treat genetic diseases.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: How Evolution Works
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Q1) Humans have bred cows that are specialized for milk production by mating female cows that produce large quantities of milk with male cows whose mothers also produced large quantities of milk.This is an example of ________ selection.
Q2) The most probable explanation for why two different species have similar features is
A) genetic drift.
B) gene flow.
C) artificial selection.
D) descent from a common ancestor.
Q3) Humans simulate the process of natural selection when they use ________ to develop new varieties of crop plants that better meet the needs of farmers.
A) artificial selection
B) cytochrome c
C) habitat changes
D) continental drift
Q4) The protein sequences and DNA sequences of organisms that share a recent common ancestor are likely to be ________ similar than those of organisms that do not share a recent common ancestor.
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Chapter 15: The Origin of Species
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Q1) The great diversity of life on Earth is caused by ________,the formation of new species.
Q2) ________ speciation occurs when a new species arises in the absence of geographic isolation.
Q3) Sympatric speciation
A) occurs only in plants.
B) is impossible, because the populations of a species must be isolated from one another for speciation to occur.
C) is always a result of polyploidy.
D) occurs when a new species emerges from a population in the absence of a geographical barrier.
Q4) Vestigial organs had a function in a previous ancestor but no longer have a function in the current species.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Some scientists believe that amphibians may be the victims of the next mass extinction.If this does occur,other classes of animals may adapt to the ecological niches vacated by the amphibians in a process called ________.
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Chapter 16: The Evolution of Biodiversity
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Q1) The first group of vertebrates that could complete their life cycle without returning to water was _____________.
A) amphibians
B) reptiles
C) mammals
D) birds
Q2) The morphological and genetic similarities that reflect the evolutionary histories of the organisms being studied by scientists are used to construct evolutionary trees that illustrate the patterns of species evolution.The field within which such studies are conducted is called ___________
Q3) A group of orders is called a(n)____________.
Q4) The coelacanth and the lungfish are the two main candidates reputed to be a close relative of the ancestral fish that first used fins to walk on land and give rise to the ____________.
Q5) Which of the following groups of animals evolved the most recently?
A) invertebrates
B) amphibians
C) reptiles
D) mammals
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Chapter 17: Biological Diversity, Bacteria, and Archaea
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Q1) Some bacteria can cause pathology by releasing a(n)________ that kills adjacent tissues.
Q2) A scientist is studying the relationship of the food sources of all the animals in a pond.He is studying A) genetic diversity. B) species diversity.
C) ecosystem diversity.
D) biome diversity.
Q3) Using the simplest methods to study the composition of intestinal microbial flora,it is necessary to collect a ________ sample from the subject.
Q4) Like any disease or parasite,viruses need to reach new hosts to extend the infective cycle,which explains why such a large number of viral infections are associated with the A) urinary and cardiovascular systems.
B) digestive and respiratory systems.
C) nervous and integumentary systems.
D) reproductive and integumentary systems.
Q5) The concept that includes all living things as well as the nonliving things they interact with is ________.
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Chapter 18: Protista, Plantae, and Fungi
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Q1) The single-celled protists are often mobile and use a variety of propulsive mechanisms,for example,the amoeba move by means of A) pseudopodia.
B) cilia.
C) flagella.
D) coccoliths.
Q2) Stomata normally open and close throughout the day; however,if unable to close,plant tissues could be damaged as
A) excess carbon dioxide reaches toxic levels within the leaf.
B) oxygen escapes, creating a hypoxia within the leaf tissues.
C) water rapidly escapes, causing dehydration.
D) pathogens such as bacteria, protists, or viruses gain access to the interior of a leaf.
Q3) The kingdom Plantae consists of four major groups; among the first to colonize the land are believed to be the ________.
A) angiosperms
B) ferns
C) gymnosperm
D) mosses
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Chapter 19: Animalia
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Q1) The evolution of the lung was a critical development in the adaptation of animals to a terrestrial lifestyle; the first vertebrates to breathe using a lung were the reptiles.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Sponges are considered the most ancient of animals; although multicellular,sponges have not developed the ________ present in all other animals.
Q3) Most gardeners are pleased to discover earthworms in their gardens because earthworms improve the soil when they
A) consume herbivorous grazers that would otherwise damage the garden plants.
B) improve soil aeration by burrowing from the surface into deeper soil layers.
C) die after mating and enrich the soil as their bodies decay.
D) burrow the pathways that the roots of garden plants follow to reach deeper nutrient-rich soil layers.
Q4) Relative brain size (brain weight/total body weight)tends to be larger in the monotremes than in either the marsupials or the eutherians.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: The Biosphere
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Q1) Although the terms climate and weather are often used interchangeably,they are not the same thing; climate differs from weather in that
A) weather includes amount of rainfall per year and climate does not.
B) climate is based on biomes, whereas weather is not.
C) climate describes long-term patterns, whereas weather describes short-term fluctuations.
D) climates are described in terms of long-term average temperature, and weather is described by other factors, such as prevailing winds.
Q2) A measure of the energy that producers are able to store as biomass is ________.
Q3) During an El Niño event,
A) sea surface temperatures in the eastern Pacific Ocean become significantly warmer.
B) a reversal of the Peru current brings Pacific Ocean water to the tip of South America where it mixes with Atlantic Ocean water.
C) the Earth's rotational axis tilts beyond its normal 23.5°.
D) sea surface temperatures in the Atlantic Ocean become significantly warmer.
Q4) Introduced species that become serious pests are often called ________ species.
Q5) An ecosystem consists of both biotic (living)and ________ (nonliving)factors.
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Chapter 21: Growth of Populations
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Q1) Which density-dependent process contributed most significantly to the recovery of the North American monarch butterfly population after the severe winter losses of 2002?
A) Unusually mild weather in the eastern United States greatly improved juvenile butterfly survival.
B) Butterfly predators starved when the monarch population dropped, and by the time it had recovered, Monarch population numbers were back up.
C) Egg production is inversely proportional to density; the surviving monarchs had ample resources and experienced maximal reproduction.
D) With fewer returning adults, there was less competition for food among the young caterpillars, and their survival rate was unusually high.
Q2) The carrying capacity of a population can be affected by weather,the daily fluctuations in temperature,rainfall,and the other factors that contribute to climate.
A)True B)False
Q3) A group of interacting individuals of the same species living within the same area comprises a(n)________.
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Chapter 22: Animal Behavior
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Q1) Genetics plays a role in learned behaviors.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A worker ant that defends the colony and gives up the ability to reproduce is exhibiting an orientation behavior.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Male red-breasted robins defend their territories against other males by physically attacking them.The fact that a male robin will attack a clump of red feathers within its territory suggests that red feathers are a(n)________ that stimulates a fixed behavior.
Q4) Animals who live in groups will most likely
A) use limited resources in a more efficient manner.
B) involve mothers hoarding food from the offspring.
C) involve males caring for the offspring of other males.
D) be defenseless against predators.
Q5) Fixed behaviors allow a more flexible response to a given situation than learned behaviors do.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 23: Ecological Communities
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Q1) If initially present,a mature community will reform immediately after a habitat disturbance.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Some algae and fungi live in associations known as lichens,which allow both to survive in a harsher environment than either could normally live in alone.This association is an example of A) parasitism.
B) mutualism.
C) consumerism.
D) competition.
Q3) The bacteria in yogurt can colonize the human intestine and participate in a symbiotic relationship called ________.
Q4) Communities always recover quickly from disturbances caused by humans.
A)True
B)False
Q5) All natural communities consist of an equivalent number of species.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 24: Ecosystems
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Q1) Coral reefs and swamps are among Earth's most productive ecosystems.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Most human-caused environmental damage can be successfully reversed and natural habitats can be reconstructed.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Rainfall naturally has a neutral pH.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Phosphorus is the only major nutrient whose cycle is ________.
Q5) Which of the following describes the ultimate disposition of most energy in an ecosystem?
A) It is used to construct the bodies of decomposers.
B) It is trapped as fossil fuels when producers die and become fossilized.
C) It is continuously recycled back into the ecosystem.
D) It eventually returns to space in the form of heat.
Q6) ________,caused by algal blooms triggered by excess nutrients in a lake,can result from excess decomposition followed by animals dying due to lack of oxygen.
Page 26
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Chapter 25: Global Change
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Q1) The best hope for slowing Earth's rapid ecological changes is to decrease the ________ impact on the biosphere to a sustainable level.
Q2) Some northern species have shifted their habitats farther north in response to global warming.However,it is difficult for Arctic species to shift their habitats in response to rising temperatures because
A) they are not as mobile as other species.
B) they have broader habitat tolerances.
C) they are more susceptible to UV radiation.
D) their habitat is shrinking.
Q3) What characteristics would we expect to find in species that will most likely prosper as projected climate change occurs?
A) organisms with narrow tolerances that can live in specialized environments
B) organisms with broad tolerances that can live in a variety of habitats
C) organisms that live in very stable environments
D) organisms that can live only if they form mutualistic relationships with other organisms
Q4) Humans are changing the way many chemicals ________ through ecosystems.
Q5) About 50 percent of the human population lives near ________ ecosystems.
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