Biology for Science Majors Solved Exam Questions - 2000 Verified Questions

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Biology for Science Majors Solved Exam Questions

Course Introduction

Biology for Science Majors provides a comprehensive exploration of the fundamental principles that govern living organisms, focusing on the molecular, cellular, and genetic basis of life. The course covers topics such as cell structure and function, metabolism, genetics, evolution, biodiversity, and the structure and function of plants and animals. Emphasis is placed on the scientific method, experimental design, and data analysis, preparing students for advanced study and research in the biological sciences. Laboratory exercises complement lectures by offering hands-on experience with techniques and tools used in biological research.

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Biological Science 4th Edition by Scott Freeman

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Chapter 1: Biology and the Tree of Life

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following would not be a good reason for studying rRNA to understand the major branches in the evolutionary history of life?

A)This molecule is found in every species.

B)It is passed on through evolutionary history with only minor modifications.

C)It is a necessary part of the cellular machinery for reproduction and other purposes.

D)It mutates very frequently.

Answer: D

Q2) On an evolutionary tree,any group that includes a common ancestor and all of its descendants is called monophyletic ("one-tribe").Recall the current evolutionary tree for Bacteria,Archaea,and Eukarya.Are prokaryotes monophyletic?

A)yes

B)no

Answer: B

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3

Chapter 2: Water and Carbon: the Chemical Basis of Life

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is a property of liquid water?

A)Its density is less than ice.

B)Its specific heat is lower than that for most other substances.

C)Its heat of vaporization is higher than that for most other substances.

D)It is nonpolar.

Answer: C

Q2) If delta G is greater than zero,_____.

A)you have decreased the amount of free energy in the system

B)you have decreased the amount of entropy in the system

C)you have decreased the total amount of energy in the system

D)you have increased the total amount of energy in the system

Answer: B

Q3) Which of the following is true of carbon?

A)It only forms polar molecules.

B)It can form a maximum of three covalent bonds with other elements.

C)It is highly electronegative.

D)It can form polar and nonpolar bonds.

Answer: D

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4

Chapter 3: Protein Structure and Function

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Sample Questions

Q1) In interstellar space,millions of ice-encrusted dust particles contain simple carbon-containing compounds.When particles like these are exposed to solar radiation,more complex organic molecules form on the surfaces of the dust.What is the significance of these findings?

A)Chemical evolution occurs only in outer space and was not possible on Earth.

B)Life began in outer space.

C)Life exists in outer space.

D)Chemical evolution can occur in outer space.

Answer: D

Q2) A series of hydrophobic side chains will congregate together as a protein folds in an aqueous solution and be stabilized by _____.

A)disulfide bonds

B)van der Waals interaction

C)hydrogen bonds

D)quaternary structure bonds

Answer: B

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Chapter 4: Nucleic Acids and the Rna World

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following chemical bonds do you think Nakano is referring to in his quote?

A)peptide

B)glycosidic

C)phosphodiester

D)ionic

Q2) In the acid-base reaction described in the preceding paragraph about Nakano's research on RNAs,a proton (H )is being transferred.What is acting as the proton acceptor?

A)cytosine

B)magnesium hydroxide

C)the virus

D)cytosine,magnesium hydroxide,or the virus

Q3) Which of the following best describes DNA's secondary structure?

A)beta-pleated sheet

B)double parallel helical strands

C)turn-loop-turn

D)double antiparallel helical strands

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6

Chapter 5: An Introduction to Carbohydrates

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Q1) The chemical formula for fat is C H O .The analogous chemical formula for carbohydrates is C H O .Given the differences in their chemical formulas,why do you think that plants generally store their energy in the form of carbohydrates,but animals generally store their energy in the form of fats?

Q2) Cell walls are used by many different organisms for protection from their environment and structural support.These cell walls must obviously be insoluble in water;otherwise,they would dissolve the first time the organism got wet.Which of the following carbohydrates would you expect to be the most soluble in water?

A)starch

B)peptidoglycan

C)cellulose

D)chitin

Q3) Which polysaccharide is an important component in the structure of many animals and fungi?

A)chitin

B)cellulose

C)peptidoglycan

D)amylose

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Chapter 6: Lipids, membranes, and the First Cells

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Sample Questions

Q1) How do phospholipids interact with water molecules?

A)The polar heads avoid water;the nonpolar tails attract water (because water is polar and opposites attract).

B)Phospholipids don't interact with water because water is polar and lipids are nonpolar.

C)The polar heads interact with water;the nonpolar tails do not.

D)Phospholipids dissolve in water.

Q2) What most distinguishes lipids from other biomolecules is _____.

A)that only lipids contain hydrogen atoms

B)their molecular weight (size)

C)their chemical properties

D)where they are found in the body

Q3) GLUT-1 is an example of what?

A)a membrane-bound pump that moves large molecules against a gradient by using ATP

B)a protein that is toxic to cells by opening channels in membranes

C)a recognition protein that identifies cells as belonging to the body

D)a transport protein that facilitates diffusion of a large molecule across cell membranes

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8

Chapter 7: Inside the Cell

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Q1) Amoebae move by crawling over a surface (cell crawling).Which one of the following processes is part of this type of movement?

A)growth of actin filaments to form bulges in the plasma membrane

B)setting up microtubule extensions that vesicles can follow in the movement of cytoplasm

C)reinforcing the pseudopod with intermediate filaments

D)cytoplasmic streaming

Q2) Flagella and cilia bend or move,imparting mobility to cells.How do these structures move?

A)The basal body at the base of the structure hydrolyzes ATP,causing a conformational change that results in movement of the cilium or flagellum.

B)Two microtubules at the core of the structure serve as motor proteins.

C)Axonemes are structured such that movement is constant.

D)Dynein is a motor protein that hydrolyzes ATP and is responsible for movement of the cilium or flagellum.

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9

Chapter 8: Cell-Cell Interactions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Pemphigus vulgaris is an autoimmune disorder in humans in which antibodies are produced against the cadherins of desmosomes.The blistering of the skin and mucous membranes characteristic of this disorder is probably a result of _____.

A)a decrease in flexibility of the cell membrane

B)an inadequate number of G-protein receptors

C)inadequate production of cytoskeletal proteins

D)a loss in cell-cell adhesion

Q2) Not all intercellular signals require transduction.Which one of the following signals would be processed without transduction?

A)a lipid-soluble signal

B)a signal that is weakly bound to a nucleotide

C)a signal that binds to a receptor in the cell membrane

D)a signal that binds to the ECM

Q3) Of the following,where would you expect to find tight junctions?

A)in the epithelium of an animal's stomach

B)between the smooth endoplasmic reticulum and the rough endoplasmic reticulum

C)between plant cells in a woody plant

D)in the plasma membrane of prokaryotes

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Chapter 9: Cellular Respiration and Fermentation

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Sample Questions

Q1) Glycolysis is active when cellular energy levels are _____;the regulatory enzyme,phosphofructokinase,is _____ by ATP.

A)low;activated

B)low;inhibited

C)high;activated

D)high;inhibited

Q2) Why might adding inorganic phosphate to a reaction mixture where glycolysis is rapidly proceeding help sustain the metabolic pathway?

A)It would increase the amount of glucose available for catabolism.

B)It would increase the oxygen supply available for aerobic respiration because each phosphate group contains four oxygen atoms as constituents.

C)The metabolic intermediates of glycolysis are phosphorylated.

D)It increases the energy level of the electrons that are transferred to the electron transport chain where ATP is produced.

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Chapter 10: Photosynthesis

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is a difference between chlorophyll a and chlorophyll b?

A)Chlorophyll a is a pigment,and chlorophyll b is the enzyme that transfers excited electrons from chlorophyll a to electron carriers of the thylakoid membrane.

B)Chlorophyll a absorbs yellow light,and chlorophyll b absorbs green.

C)Chlorophyll a contains a Mg in its ring structure,whereas chlorophyll b contains iron.

D)Chlorophyll a and b absorb light energy at slightly different wavelengths.

Q2) Chlorophylls absorb light in which colors of the visible range?

A)green and blue

B)blue and red

C)green and red

D)violet and red

Q3) The electrons of photosystem II are excited and transferred to electron carriers.From which molecule or structure do the photosystem II replacement electrons come?

A)the electron carrier,plastocyanin

B)photosystem I

C)water

D)oxygen

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Chapter 11: The Cell Cycle

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Sample Questions

Q1) The first gap in the cell cycle (G )corresponds to _____.

A)normal growth and cell function

B)the phase in which DNA is being replicated

C)the beginning of mitosis

D)the phase between DNA replication and the M phase

Q2) In the process of chromosome separation,how do microtubules maintain contact with the kinetochores and shorten at the same time?

A)Motor proteins move chromosomes down the microtubular structures of the mitotic spindle.

B)Actin microfilaments cause the microtubular proteins to slide past each other.

C)The centrosomes move apart,so the microtubular proteins do not need to shorten.

D)The centrosomes create the shortening/depolymerization of the microtubular proteins.

Q3) Metaphase occurs prior to the splitting of centromeres.It is characterized by _____.

A)aligning of chromosomes on the equator

B)splitting of the centromeres

C)cytokinesis

D)separation of sister chromatids

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Chapter 12: Meiosis

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Sample Questions

Q1) Male grasshoppers (such as the karyotype type shown here),have a single X chromosome.How many chromosomes would be in a sperm cell from this grasshopper?

A)11

B)12

C)22

D)23

Q2) In 1985 Hassold and Chiu found that the likelihood of miscarriage increased with maternal age.What is the most likely explanation for the relationship between age and miscarriage?

A)Women in their mid-thirties and older have more health problems that interfere with their ability to maintain pregnancy.

B)Older women typically have hormonal imbalances that prevent them from carrying a baby to term.

C)The DNA replication that takes place immediately prior to meiosis is less accurate in older women.

D)Ova are arrested in meiosis until ovulation.As a result,completion of meiosis in the older woman is more likely to result in aneuploidy or other chromosomal abnormalities.

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Chapter 13: Mendel and the Gene

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Sample Questions

Q1) A recessive allele on the X chromosome is responsible for red-green color blindness in humans.A woman with normal vision whose father is color blind marries a color-blind male.What is the probability that this couple's first son will be color blind?

A)25%

B)50%

C)about 66%

D)75%

E)about 33%

Q2) A man and woman are both of normal pigmentation,but both have one parent who is albino (without melanin pigmentation).Albinism is an autosomal (not sex-linked)recessive trait.What is the probability that their first child will be an albino?

A)0

B)1/8

C)1/2

D)1/4

E)1

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15

Chapter 14: Dna and the Gene: Synthesis and Repair

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Sample Questions

Q1) Bodnar et al (1998)used telomerase to extend the life span of normal human cells.Telomere shortening puts a limit on the number of times a cell can divide.How might adding telomerase affect cellular aging?

A)Telomerase will speed up the rate of cell proliferation.

B)Telomerase ensures that the ends of the chromosomes are accurately replicated and eliminates telomere shortening.

C)Telomerase shortens telomeres and thus delays cellular aging.

D)Telomerase would have no effect on cellular aging.

Q2) Hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer (HNPCC)is an inherited disorder.The genetic defect identified is an error in the mismatch repair mechanism.Which of the following would be an expected result of this mutation?

A)increased rate of errors by wild-type DNA polymerase

B)increased rate of formation of pyrimidine dimers

C)increased rate of repair of pyrimidine dimers

D)decreased ability to repair certain DNA mutations

Q3) Refer to Figure 14.3.Which of the structures in the figure breaks hydrogen bonds between complementary bases?

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Chapter 15: How Genes Work

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Sample Questions

Q1) The central dogma has been challenged on several levels (e.g. ,the discovery of RNA viruses,which use their RNA to directly synthesize proteins;and the discovery of reverse transcriptase,which makes DNA from RNA).Which of the following is another example of an exception to the central dogma?

A)DNA from viruses can insert themselves into host cell chromosomes.

B)Chaperone molecules guide the folding of protein molecules.

C)Gene mutations result in altered amino acid sequences of proteins.

D)Prions are infectious protein molecules capable of altering the folding of normal proteins.

Q2) Which of the following is not synthesized from a DNA template?

A)messenger RNA

B)amino acids

C)tRNA

D)ribosomal RNA

Q3) Codons,the three base sequences that code for specific amino acids,are part of

A)protein

B)mRNA

C)tRNA

D)rRNA

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Chapter 16: Transcription and Translation

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Q1) The ribosome-binding site of prokaryotes is also known as _____.

A)the TATA box

B)the promoter

C)the Shine-Dalgarno sequence

D)the Pribnow box

Q2) How are RNA hairpin turns related to termination?

A)The turns are formed from complementary base pairing and cause separation of the RNA transcript and RNA polymerase.

B)A three-base repeat signals a stop sequence,and the RNA transcript is released.

C)Release factors bind to sites on the hairpin turn,causing release of the RNA transcript.

D)The hairpin turn prevents more nucleoside triphosphates from entering the active site of the enzymes,effectively shutting off the process of polymerization.

Q3) Refer to Figure 16.3.What is the function of the ACC sequence at the 3' end?

A)It attaches to the amino acid.

B)It base pairs with the codon of mRNA.

C)It stabilizes the tRNA-amino acid complex.

D)It is the active site of this ribozyme.

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Page 18

Chapter 17: Control of Gene Expression in Bacteria

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Q1) Refer to the paragraph about the lac operon experiment by Cronin et al.How did Cronin et al.activate expression of tyrosinase to change the color of a white (albino)mouse to brown?

A)They add sucrose to the drinking water.

B)They fed the mice a diet rich in glucose.

C)They added IPTG,a lactose analogue,to the drinking water.

D)They added cAMP to the drinking water.

Q2) Although the expression of most genes is tightly regulated,some genes are expressed at roughly constant rates (i.e. ,constitutively).Which of the following genes would you predict to be constitutively expressed?

A)genes involved in the biosynthesis of the amino acid tryptophan

B)genes involved in the degradation of tryptophan

C)genes involved in the degradation of arabinose,a sugar

D)genes that code for ribosomal RNAs

E)genes involved in the transport of the sugar maltose

Q3) In negative control of transcription,a gene is activated when _____.

A)a kinase adds a phosphate to DNA

B)lactose is transported into the cell

C)a regulatory protein binds to DNA

D)a regulatory protein is removed from DNA

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Chapter 18: Control of Gene Expression in Eukaryotes

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Q1) Which of the following is false?

A)All individuals possess many proto-oncogenes.

B)Mutations that inactivate tumor suppressor genes are important in cancer.

C)Cancer is a single disease with one underlying molecular cause.

D)Uncontrolled cell growth alone is insufficient for the development of most cancers.

E)Most agents that cause cancer also cause mutations.

Q2) Which of the following is most critical for the association between histones and DNA?

A)Histones are small proteins.

B)Histones are highly conserved (i.e. ,histones are very similar in every eukaryote).

C)Histones are synthesized in the cytoplasm.

D)There are at least five different histone proteins in every eukaryote.

E)Histones are positively charged.

Q3) Regulatory transcription factors _____.

A)influence the binding of sigma factor to DNA

B)influence the assembly of the basal transcription complex

C)influence the degree of unwinding of DNA at the promoter

D)open the two strands of DNA so RNA polymerase can begin transcription

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Page 20

Chapter 19: Analyzing and Engineering Genes

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Q1) In a single PCR cycle consisting of 15 seconds at 94°C,30 seconds at 50°C,and 1 min at 72°C,what is happening in the step run at 50°C?

A)The DNA to be amplified is being denatured.

B)Primers are being denatured.

C)DNA polymerase is extending new DNA from the primers.

D)Primers are annealing to the DNA to be amplified.

E)DNA polymerase is being inactivated.

Q2) When constructing a cDNA library from a particular organism,the choice of tissue is _____,whereas when constructing a genomic DNA library from the same organism,the choice of tissue is _____.

A)critical;critical

B)immaterial;immaterial

C)immaterial;critical

D)critical;immaterial

Q3) Which type of disorder is most difficult to correct by gene therapy?

A)a dominant disorder

B)an incompletely dominant disorder

C)a recessive disorder

D)Disorders showing all these forms of dominance present equal challenges.

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Page 21

Chapter 20: Genomics

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Q1) Sequencing eukaryotic genomes is more difficult than sequencing genomes of bacteria or archaea because of _____.

A)the large size of eukaryotic proteins

B)the hard to find proteins

C)the high proportion of G-C base pairs in eukaryotic DNA

D)the large size of eukaryotic genomes and the large amount of eukaryotic repetitive DNA

E)the large size of eukaryotic genomes,the large amount of eukaryotic repetitive DNA,and the high proportion of G-C base pairs in eukaryotic DNA

Q2) If one wished to test the hypothesis that humans and chimps differ due to differences in the expression of a large set of shared genes,the technique to use would be _____.

A)Southern blotting

B)PCR

C)DNA sequencing

D)protein-protein interaction assays

E)DNA microarray analysis

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22

Chapter 21: Principles of Development

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Q1) Suppose you found several Drosophila mutants that possessed additional legs growing out of their head segments.The probable mutation would be found in _____.

A)segment-polarity genes

B)gap genes

C)pair-rule genes

D)homeotic genes

Q2) Suppose there was a mutation in the segment-polarity genes of Drosophila.What do you suppose might be the outcome?

A)Several segments of the embryo will be missing.

B)Every other segment of the embryo will be missing.

C)Legs will appear in the place of antennae.

D)Antennae will appear in a different part of their usual segment.

Q3) All of the following are true of embryonic stem cells except _____.

A)they can be found in human blastocysts

B)they retain the potential to become different types of cells

C)they continue to undergo mitosis when most cells have stopped dividing

D)they are terminally differentiated

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Chapter 22: An Introduction to Animal Development

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Q1) One difference between early development in humans and in Xenopus (frogs)is that

A)in humans,there is no formation of the blastula;in Xenopus,the blastula is a critical stage in early embryogenesis

B)in humans,blastocysts implant into the uterine wall;there is no implantation in Xenopus

C)in humans,gastrulation is delayed as the egg moves along the fallopian tube;in Xenopus,gastrulation takes place immediately after blastula formation

D)in humans,the yolk sac is much smaller than that seen in Xenopus

E)in humans,neurulation occurs immediately after cleavage;in Xenopus,neurulation is delayed until after gastrulation

Q2) Which of the following is the correct sequence in the development of specialized cells?

A)differentiation,pattern formation,morphogenesis,determination

B)differentiation,determination,morphogenesis,pattern formation

C)pattern formation,determination,morphogenesis,differentiation

D)pattern formation,morphogenesis,differentiation,determination

E)pattern formation,morphogenesis,determination,differentiation

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Chapter 23: An Introduction to Plant Development

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Q1) Plant and animal development share a number of features,but differ in major ways as well.Which of the following best summarizes the similarities between the two forms of development?

A)Both plants and animals develop from a process of single fertilization.

B)Both plants and animals produce specialized tissues through irreversible processes of determination and differentiation.

C)Both plants and animals produce gametes via meiosis followed by mitosis of haploid cells.

D)Both plant and animal development depend on precise control of gene expression in time and in space.

Q2) The ABC genes in Arabidopsis are considered homeotic genes.What could be a reason for this classification?

A)Each of the three genes codes for a different flower organ.

B)Each gene codes for regulatory transcription factors.

C)Each gene is similar in sequence to homeotic genes in Drosophila.

D)Each gene codes for proteins similar to Hox genes in mice.

E)Each gene directs different kinds of morphogenesis.

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Chapter 24: Evolution by Natural Selection

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Q1) The Irish "elk" described by Georges Cuvier suggests that _____.

A)organisms could not have originated by special creation

B)organisms could go extinct

C)the great flood or some other catastrophe killed many once living organisms

D)the Earth is old enough for evolution to have occurred

Q2) Which of the following situations could not lead to evolution via natural selection?

A)Some hemoglobins have a higher affinity for oxygen than do others.

B)Plants growing in soils contaminated with heavy metals upregulate production of enzymes to stop uptake of metals.

C)Bacteria in areas with high sunlight intensity begin to photosynthesize faster,making more sugar in a given time period.

D)Some plant species can absorb nitrogen better than others can.

E)Larger fungi produce more spores than smaller fungi.

Q3) Which of the following is the best modern definition of evolution?

A)descent without modification

B)change in allele frequencies in a population over time

C)survival of the fittest

D)inheritance of acquired characters

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26

Chapter 25: Evolutionary Processes

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Q1) In Kerr and Wright's experiment with 96 fruit-fly populations,only 4 males and 4 females bred in each generation.After 16 generations,73% of their populations had only one allele present for the bristle morphology gene.Which of the following would you expect to occur if they allowed 10 males and 10 females to breed in each generation?

A)About 73% of the populations would have only one allele for the bristle morphology gene.

B)More than 73% of the populations would have only one allele present.

C)Less than 73% of the populations would have only one allele present.

D)All of the populations would have only one allele present.

Q2) Genetic drift occurs in a population.Which of the following statements might be true?

A)Genetic drift increased the population's fitness.

B)Genetic drift decreased the population's fitness.

C)The population was relatively small.

D)The population experiences a decrease in genetic variation.

E)Any of the above statements might be true.

Q3) Which sex typically has more extreme sex-selected characteristics: males or females? Why? Give an example.

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Chapter 26: Speciation

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Q1) Refer to Figure 26.1.Which of the following forms a monophyletic group?

A)A,B,C,D

B)C and D

C)D,E,and F

D)E,F,and G

E)all of the above

Q2) Which of the following statements explains why animals are less likely than plants to speciate by polyploidy?

A)Animals self-fertilize less often than plants,so diploid gametes are less likely to fuse.

B)Animals have better mechanisms for repairing chromosomes than plants have.

C)Animals are more mobile,so have more effective prezygotic isolating mechanisms.

D)Animals are more mobile,so populations get separated far less often.

E)Animals use a more rigorous form of meiosis than plants,making diploid gametes much harder to form.

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Chapter 27: Phylogenies and the History of Life

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Q1) All of the following events can trigger an adaptive radiation except _____.

A)a vicariance event splitting the habitat

B)the evolution of a new morphological feature

C)the colonization of a new habitat

D)the extinction of competitors

E)gene duplication events

Q2) Which of the following organisms would be most likely to fossilize?

A)a rare worm

B)a common worm

C)a rare squirrel

D)a common squirrel

Q3) Which of the following key adaptations is found in many animals from the Burgess Shale fauna but not found in the Doushantuo and Ediacaran faunas?

A)mouthparts

B)segmentation

C)burrow formation

D)multicellularity

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Chapter 28: Bacteria and Archaea

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Sample Questions

Q1) Use of synthetic fertilizers often leads to the contamination of groundwater with nitrates.Nitrate pollution is also a suspected cause of anoxic "dead zones" in the ocean.Which of the following might help reduce nitrate pollution?

A)growing improved crop plants that have nitrogen-fixing enzymes

B)adding nitrifying bacteria to the soil

C)adding denitrifying bacteria to the soil

D)using ammonia instead of nitrate as a fertilizer

Q2) Imagine that you are given some chemoorganotrophic bacteria to grow.What should you use as a source of energy for this type of bacteria?

A)light

B)methane

C)ammonia

D)hydrogen sulfide

E)sugar

Q3) What is the right progression of steps for a direct-sequencing experiment?

A)Lyse cells,purify DNA,amplify genes by PCR,and insert genes into plasmid.

B)Lyse cells,insert genes into plasmid,purify DNA,and amplify genes by PCR.

C)Lyse cells,insert genes into plasmid,amplify genes by PCR,and purify DNA.

D)Purify DNA,amplify genes by PCR,lyse cells,and insert genes into plasmid.

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Page 30

Chapter 29: Protists

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Q1) Which of the following statements is consistent with the assertion that protists are paraphyletic?

A)Some protists evolved into other eukaryotic groups.

B)Protists all share a common set of synapomorphies.

C)Protists are all more primitive than land plants and animals.

D)Protists do not share a single common ancestor.

Q2) In an area with a high abundance of algal blooms,the introduction of _____ might alleviate the severity of the blooms.

A)dinoflagellates

B)plankton

C)primary producers

D)copepods

Q3) Which of the following monophyletic eukaryotic clades includes photosynthetic species with double-membraned chloroplasts?

A)Bikonta

B)Unikonta

C)Opisthokonta

D)Chromalveolata

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Chapter 30: Green Plants

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of these are spore-producing structures?

A)sporophyte (capsule)of a moss

B)antheridium of a moss or fern

C)archegonium of a moss or fern

D)gametophyte of a moss

Q2) Which group of seedless vascular plants was the first to develop roots?

A)club mosses

B)horsetails

C)ferns

D)whisk ferns

Q3) As you stroll through a moist forest,you are most likely to see a _____.

A)zygote of a green alga

B)gametophyte of a moss

C)sporophyte of a liverwort

D)gametophyte of a fern

Q4) Refer to the paragraph on scarlet gilia.Late in the season,when only hawk moths were present,researchers painted the red flowers white.What would you expect?

A)Unpainted red flowers would produce more fruits than white flowers would.

B)Red flowers painted white would produce more fruits than red flowers would.

C)Red and white flowers would produce the same numbers of fruits.

Page 32

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Chapter 31: Fungi

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Q1) Which fungal class is not matched with its most common habitat?

A)EMF northern coniferous forests

B)EMF warm climate forests

C)AMF tropics

D)AMF grasslands

Q2) Some fungal species can kill herbivores while feeding off of sugars from its plant host.What type of relationship does this fungus have with its host?

A)parasitic

B)mutualistic

C)commensal

D)predatory

Q3) Long,branching fungal filaments are called _____.

A)roots

B)ascus

C)septa

D)mycelia

E)hyphae

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Page 33

Chapter 32: An Introduction to Animals

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Q1) All of the following are true about choanoflagellates except _____.

A)they are suspension feeders

B)they are sessile as adults

C)they live in aquatic habitats

D)they are animals

E)they reproduce asexually

Q2) Which tissue type,or organ,is not correctly matched with its germ layer tissue?

A)nervous-mesoderm

B)muscular-mesoderm

C)stomach-endoderm

D)skin-ectoderm

E)skeletal-mesoderm

Q3) A radula is a specialized feeding organ,used to scrape material off of food for ingestion,much like a cheese grater scrapes shreds off of a block of cheese.Snails,which have this structure,are thus which kind of feeder?

A)suspension feeder

B)fluid feeder

C)deposit feeder

D)mass feeder

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Page 34

Chapter 33: Protostome Animals

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Q1) What would be the best anatomical feature to look for to distinguish a gastropod from a chiton?

A)presence of a muscular foot

B)presence of a rasp-like feeding structure

C)production of eggs

D)number of shell plates

Q2) You find what you believe is a new species of animal.Which of the following characteristics would enable you to argue that it is more closely related to a flatworm than it is to a roundworm?

A)It has a cuticle that it sheds in order to grow.

B)It is a suspension feeder.

C)Its larvae have cilia that they use for feeding and locomotion.

D)It is shaped like a worm.

E)It has a well-developed coelom.

Q3) In adult arthropods,the hemocoel performs which of the following functions?

A)provides space for the internal organs to grow and function

B)forms a cavity to protect the visceral mass of organs

C)acts as a hydrostatic skeleton for mobility

D)secretes the exoskeleton

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Page 35

Chapter 34: Deuterostome Animals

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Q1) You believe that an adult animal you are examining is a vertebrate but concede that it may be an invertebrate chordate.Which of the following would ensure that you are indeed looking at a vertebrate?

A)It is able to swim.

B)It lacks a notochord.

C)Its notochord functions as an endoskeleton.

D)It uses its pharyngeal gill slits for respiration.

E)It has a dorsal hollow nerve cord.

Q2) Which of the following is found in tetrapods and not in fish?

A)extensive parental care

B)asexual reproduction

C)internal fertilization

D)viviparity

E)production of amniotic eggs

Q3) The fishes form a(n)_____,a sequence of paraphyletic lineages.

A)clade

B)grade

C)synapomorphy

D)phylogeny

E)outgroup

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Chapter 35: Viruses

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Q1) What is the main structural difference between enveloped and nonenveloped viruses?

A)Enveloped viruses have their genetic material enclosed by a protein or phospholipid coat.

B)Nonenveloped viruses have only a phospholipid membrane,while enveloped viruses have two membranes,the other one being a protein capsid.

C)Enveloped viruses have a phospholipid membrane outside their capsid,whereas nonenveloped viruses do not.

D)Both viruses have a capsid and phospholipid membrane;but in the nonenveloped virus the genetic material is between these two membranes,while in the enveloped virus the genetic material is inside both membranes.

Q2) The virus genome and viral proteins are assembled into virions during _____.

A)both the lytic cycle and the lysogenic cycle in all host organisms

B)the lysogenic cycle only

C)the lytic cycle only

D)the lytic cycle in all host organisms but the lysogenic cycle only in bacteria

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Chapter 36: Plant Form and Function

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Sample Questions

Q1) What best describes the shape of the entire vascular cambium system in trees?

Visualizing a pine tree helps with this question.

A)hollow cylinder with a smaller diameter at the base of the tree

B)hollow cylinder with a smaller diameter at the top of the tree

C)solid column of cells with a smaller diameter at the base of the tree

D)solid column of cells with a smaller diameter at the top of the tree

Q2) Which of these statements is true about xylem and/or phloem?

A)Xylem and phloem cells are derived from the ground meristem cells.

B)Xylem is made of companion cells and vessel elements.

C)Xylem and phloem cells are derived from procambium cells.

D)Phloem cells do not contain cytoplasm.

E)All of these statements are correct.

Q3) Which type of modified stems are typical of plants that historically have needed to protect themselves from mammalian herbivores?

A)blades

B)tubers

C)stolons

D)thorns

E)rhizomes

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Page 38

Chapter 37: Water and Sugar Transport in Plants

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Q1) Most biologists consider loss of water from plant tissues to be a negative thing;and in fact,many plants have features that reduce water loss.Yet,plants still transpire.Which of the following is the least likely explanation for the fact that plants continue to transpire?

A)Transpiration drives water flow through the plant,which is necessary for uptake and distribution of essential nutrients.

B)Transpiration must be occurring for photosynthesis to take place.

C)It is difficult to produce a means of gas exchange that doesn't also allow water loss.

D)Evaporative cooling during transpiration may help prevent leaves from overheating.

Q2) Water potential in plants consists mainly of _____.

A)solute potential and osmotic potential

B)solute potential and membrane potential

C)pressure potential and solute potential

D)pressure potential and membrane potential

E)solute potential only

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Chapter 38: Plant Nutrition

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Sample Questions

Q1) To understand the role of zinc in plant growth and development,you are growing a tomato plant using hydroponics.Which plant organs do you expect to have developmental defects if you provide the plant with a solution devoid of zinc?

A)leaf development only

B)stem development only

C)above ground development

D)below ground development

E)all organs will be affected

Q2) You want to grow a plant that prefers neutral pH in a limestone soil.What should you add to the soil to improve plant growth?

A)sulfur (S + H O + 3/2 O 2 H + SO ² )

B)calcium carbonate (CaCO + H O HCO + Ca² + OH )

C)aluminum hydroxide [Al(OH) + 2 H+ Al(OH)² + 2 H O]

D)potassium nitrate (KNO K + NO )

Q3) What type of soil contains the highest amount of oxygen?

A)clay

B)sand

C)gravel

D)silt

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Page 40

Chapter 39: Plant Sensory Systems, signals, and Responses

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Sample Questions

Q1) A particular parasitoid is heterozygous for a gene that binds plant pheromones.Which of the following is true of that parasitoid?

A)It will be particularly successful at infecting plants.

B)It will be responsive to the signals released from several plants.

C)It will be unable to respond to a plant's distress call.

D)It will be able to attract more mates.

Q2) You grew reed canary grass seedlings in the dark and cut off their tips.Then you placed tips on agar blocks,one in dark and one in light.Based on your knowledge of auxin movement and stability in light,predict the concentration of auxin in the agar blocks.

A)The block in the light should have more auxin;one in the dark will have less.

B)The block in the dark should have more auxin;one in the light will have less.

C)The block in the light should have some auxin;one in the dark will have none.

D)The block in the dark should have some auxin;one in the light will have none.

E)Both blocks will have an equal amount of auxin.

Q3) Which of the following signals indicates shade to a plant?

A)light quantity

B)blue light

C)far-red light

D)red light

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Page 41

Chapter 40: Plant Reproduction

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the similarity between spores and gametes?

A)They are produced by meiosis.

B)They are haploid.

C)They divide by mitosis.

D)They can fuse with another cell to form a new organism.

E)They are made by a sporophyte.

Q2) The sperm and egg each contribute 50% of the nuclear genetic material to the zygote that becomes the embryo and the new plant.Mitochondria and plastids that become chloroplasts are passed primarily from the female parent.What feature of the male or female gametophytes accounts for this?

A)The female gametophyte is small and mobile and can pack a lot of cytoplasm into a tiny space.

B)The female gametophyte is larger and formed from one surviving megaspore.

C)The male gametophyte is formed in the anthers.

D)Meiosis is not involved in the formation of the female gametophyte.

Q3) Endosperm is a major part of monocot seeds.In most dicots,_____.

A)the same thing is true;there is a substantial amount of endosperm

B)endosperm never even starts to form after double fertilization

C)endosperm nutrients are repackaged into the cotyledons

D)endosperm replaces cotyledons in the seed

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Chapter 41: Animal Form and Function

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following statements comparing endotherms and ectotherms is false?

A)Mitochondrial density and enzyme activity are 3-4 times higher in the cells of endotherms than in the cells of ectotherms of similar size.

B)Ectotherms can use more of their energy intake for reproduction than endotherms can.

C)Endotherms and ectotherms have about the same mass-specific metabolic rate.

D)Both endotherms and ectotherms exchange heat with the environment through convection,conduction,radiation,and evaporation.

E)The food requirements for ectotherms and endotherms are similar for organisms with similar body mass.

Q2) Refer to the paragraph on crucian carp.Gills serve multiple functions in fish in addition to gas exchange.Given the large surface area of gills with lamellae,what is the most likely explanation for why crucian carp cover protruding lamellae in their gills when levels of oxygen are normal?

A)to prevent loss of heat to the surrounding water

B)to prevent loss of ions to the surrounding water

C)to prevent protein loss to the surrounding water

D)to prevent loss of oxygen to the surrounding water

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Chapter 42: Water and Electrolyte Balance in Animals

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Q1) Through studies on the Malpighian tubules,researchers found that K accumulated on the inner face of the tubule,against its concentration gradient.What can you infer about the mechanism of transport?

A)Potassium transport is a passive process.

B)Movement of potassium into the lumen of the Malpighian tubules is an energy-requiring process.

C)Potassium moves out of the tubules at a faster rate than it moves into the lumen of the tubules.

D)Sodium ions will follow potassium ions.

Q2) Figure 42.1 shows a nephron.Where does filtration take place in the nephron?

Q3) The filtrate formed in the renal corpuscle is analogous to the _____ formed in Malpighian tubules.

A)hemolymph

B)pre-urine

C)uric acid

D)hypertonic solution

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Chapter 43: Animal Nutrition

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following are the most likely to have teeth adapted for grinding and/or tearing?

A)suspension feeders

B)mass feeders

C)deposit feeders

D)fluid feeders

Q2) The active ingredient orlistat acts to decrease the amount of fat that is absorbed by attaching to enzymes that digest fat.Which of the following are potential targets of orlistat?

A)salivary amylase

B)pepsidase

C)pancreatic lipase

D)secretin

Q3) Food labels provide nutrient information,and express the amount of a given nutrient as _____.

A)a percentage of the Recommended Dietary Allowances

B)International Units

C)percent composition of the food product

D)calories

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Chapter 44: Gas Exchange and Circulation

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Q1) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors cause less movement of carbonic acid toward CO production and are used as a prophylactic treatment of altitude sickness.Altitude sickness occurs when a hiker ascends to altitudes where the density of oxygen is low.How does this decrease the symptoms of high altitude sickness?

A)The excess hydrogen ions are excreted in the urine and the resulting loss of acidity increases respiration rate.

B)The excess bicarbonate ions are excreted in the urine and the resulting loss of blood pressure increases respiration rate.

C)The excess bicarbonate ions are excreted in the urine and the resulting increase in blood acidity leads to an increase in ventilation.

D)The excess bicarbonate ions in the blood stimulate the production of more red blood cells.

E)The excess bicarbonate ions in the blood increase the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen.

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Chapter 45: Electrical Signals in Animals

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Q1) If twice as many inhibitory postsynaptic potentials (IPSPs)as excitatory postsynaptic potentials (EPSPs)arrive at a postsynaptic neuron in close proximity,is the integration of signals by the postsynaptic neuron likely to produce an action potential?

A)Yes

B)No

Q2) In multiple sclerosis the myelin sheaths around the axons of the brain and spinal cord are damaged and demyelination results.How does this disease manifest at the level of the action potential?

A)Action potentials move in the opposite direction on the axon.

B)Action potentials move more slowly along the axon.

C)Action potentials are entirely negated.

D)All of the above occurs in multiple sclerosis.

Q3) The axons of most neurons contain just one type of sodium channel,but several types of potassium channels.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 46: Animal Sensory Systems and Movement

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Sample Questions

Q1) When a doctor tests your patellar reflex by tapping the tendon on the front of your knee,your lower leg comes forward.Which muscle relaxes in this reflex?

A)hamstring (located in the back of your thigh)

B)quadriceps (located in the front of your thigh)

Q2) Training for long-distance running causes a significant increase in _____.

A)the cross-sectional area of slow-twitch muscle fibers (cells)

B)the number of myofibrils per muscle fiber (cell),increasing cell size

C)the number of slow-twitch muscle fibers (cells)

D)both the cross-sectional area of slow-twitch muscle fibers (cells)and the number of myofibrils per muscle fiber (cell),increasing cell size

E)the cross-sectional area of slow-twitch muscle fibers (cells);the number of myofibrils per muscle fiber (cell),increasing cell size;and the number of slow-twitch muscle fibers (cells)

Q3) Acidic amino acids taste sour.

A)True

B)False

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Page 48

Chapter 47: Chemical Signals in Animals

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Q1) Glucocorticoids do which of the following?

A)promote the immune response

B)promote the release of fatty acids

C)increase blood glucose levels

D)increase insulin production

Q2) Which of the following is true during a typical cAMP-type signal transduction event?

A)The second messenger is the last part of the system to be activated.

B)The hormone activates the second messenger by directly binding to it.

C)The second messenger amplifies the hormonal response by attracting more hormones to the cell being affected.

D)Adenylyl cyclase is activated after the hormone binds to the cell and before phosphorylation occurs.

Q3) Which of the following is similar in structure to cholesterol?

A)leptin and serotonin

B)luteinizing hormone and insulin

C)melanocyte-stimulating hormone and vasopressin

D)testosterone,estradiol,and cortisol

E)oxytocin and vasopressin

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Chapter 48: Animal Reproduction

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Q1) How does the Pill work to prevent pregnancy?

A)It is a barrier between the vagina and the cervix.

B)It delivers progesterone leading the ovary to discontinue ovulating a new oocyte.

C)It produces an acidic environment for sperm.

D)It discourages fertilization.

Q2) What is a difference between a viviparous and an ovoviviparous species?

A)Viviparous species give birth to live young while ovoviviparous lay a shelled egg that the young hatches from.

B)Ovoviviparous species give birth to live young that were nourished from nutrients in their mother's circulatory system while viviparous species lay shelled eggs that the young hatch from.

C)Ovoviviparous species receive nourishment from the yolk in the egg and the viviparous species receive nourishment from the mother's circulatory system.

D)The eggs of the ovoviviparous species receive additional nutrients from the mother's circulatory system while the eggs of the viviparous species do not.

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Chapter 49: The Immune System in Animals

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which lymphocytes act indirectly to produce antibodies?

A)macrophage

B)CD4+ T cell

C)CD8+ T cell

D)B cell

E)all of the above

Q2) You are playing a new video game that is based on the human immune system.The player is inside a human,and you must successfully fend off invading pathogens in a quest to find the "Golden Antibody." At level 1,your arsenal for fighting off pathogens consists only of the innate immunity leukocytes and their various secretions.If the enemy has killed off most of your neutrophils and macrophages,which of the following should you utilize to recruit more of these leukocytes to the battle?

A)histamine

B)platelets

C)reactive oxygen species

D)cytokines

E)bone marrow

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Chapter 50: An Introduction to Ecology

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which level of ecological study focuses the most on abiotic factors?

A)speciation ecology

B)population ecology

C)community ecology

D)ecosystem ecology

E)None of the above focuses on abiotic factors.

Q2) What would happen to the seasons if the Earth were tilted 35 degrees off its orbital plane instead of the usual 23.5 degrees?

A)The seasons would disappear.

B)Winters and summers would be more severe.

C)Winters and summers would be less severe.

D)The seasons would be shorter.

Q3) Which of the following organisms is likely to have the widest geographic distribution?

A)bacteria

B)Thermus aquaticus bacteria

C)polar bears

D)cheetahs

E)songbirds

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Chapter 51: Behavioral Ecology

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Q1) In Figure 51.5,which is the most logical conclusion from the data?

A)Stepparents are genetically programmed to be more abusive to their stepchildren than biological parents.

B)Young children are more at risk when living with stepparents.

C)It takes years for stepparents to become attached to their stepchildren and that explains the lower level of abuse toward older children by stepparents.

D)Males,unrelated to children they are raising,are more likely to commit infanticide than females.

Q2) You observe a species of bird that,upon hatching,has contact with its parents only while being fed.You also never hear the parents sing during the feeding process.What would you propose about song learning in this species of bird?

A)Song learning in this species is most likely learned.

B)The period of imprinting is likely later in the bird's life.

C)The males will learn song when they congregate with other males of their species during the winter.

D)Song learning in this species is most likely innate.

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Chapter 52: Population Ecology

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Q1) Given that fertility rate is defined as each woman producing exactly enough offspring to replace herself and her offspring's father,if the fertility rate is sustained for a generation _____.

A)r = 0 and there is zero population growth

B)0 < r < 1

C)r = 1

D)r > 1

E)population size is at carrying capacity

Q2) Why can't a female lizard have both high fecundity and high survival?

A)In only rare cases,lizards have both high fecundity and high survival.

B)Female lizards are able to produce only one set of offspring.

C)Competition for resources prevents this.

D)The more energy the female devotes to offspring,the less that can be devoted to her survival.

E)The females are already maximizing the number of eggs she lays and if she attempts to nest later in the season there will not be enough food for her young.

Q3) Based on the diagrams in Figure 52.10 and on the large population of baby boomers in the United States,what graph best reflects U.S.population in 20 years?

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Page 54

Chapter 53: Community Ecology

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Sample Questions

Q1) Treehoppers (a type of insect)produce honeydew,which ants use for food.Treehoppers have a major predator,the jumping spider.Researchers hypothesized that the ants would protect the treehoppers from the spiders.In an experiment,researchers followed study plots with ants removed from the system and compared them to a control plot.In Figure 53.6,what can you conclude?

A)Ants do somehow protect the treehoppers from spiders.

B)Ants eat the honeydew produced by treehoppers

C)Ants reduce the numbers of treehoppers.

D)No specific conclusions can be drawn from this figure.

E)Treehoppers do not produce honeydew in July and are not protected by the ants.

Q2) Which of the following is not an example of a mutualism?

A)fungi residing in plant roots,such as endomycorrhizae

B)bacteria fixing nitrogen in plants

C)rancher ants that protect aphids in exchange for sugar-rich honeydew

D)birds eating insects jumping out of the path of army ants

E)birds eating insects on the bodies of giraffes

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Chapter 54: Ecosystems

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41 Verified Questions

41 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/28454

Sample Questions

Q1) If plants in a northern temperate area use 26,400 kcal/m² of energy from solar radiation in photosynthesis,and the total amount of solar radiation energy reaching that area is 2,640,000 kcal/m²,what is the overall gross photosynthetic efficiency?

A)0)01%

B)0)1%

C)1%

D)100%

Q2) Which habitat types in Figure 54.3 cover the largest area?

A)tropical wet forest plus the ocean neritic zone

B)open ocean

C)algal beds and reefs plus the ocean neritic zone

D)wetlands plus the ocean neritic zone

Q3) Considering the global nitrogen cycle,how are humans altering this cycle?

A)industrial nitrogen fixation

B)nitrogen lost to the atmosphere

C)reduction of nitrogen available to terrestrial ecosystems

D)reduction of nitrogen fixation by bacteria

E)permanent burial of nitrogen in coastal environments through runoff

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Chapter 55: Biodiversity and Conservation Biology

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39 Verified Questions

39 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/28455

Sample Questions

Q1) Based on Figure 55.9,what can you conclude about land-use legacy in New England?

A)Population growth has increasingly devastated the forests.

B)A spike in lake sediments caused massive deforestation due to loss of soil nutrients.

C)Sediment spikes correlate with massive population growth.

D)Lake sediments reflect deforestation and despite reforestation,do not recover.

E)All of the above answers apply.

Q2) In looking at Figure 55.6,what can be said about edge effects?

A)Biomass declines along edges of forest fragments.

B)Biomass increases along the edges of forest fragments.

C)Species diversity decreases along the edges of forest fragments.

D)Fragmentation does not affect biomass.

Q3) Based on the species-area plot in Figure 55.7,if habitable area on an island were reduced from 10,000 km² to 1000 km²,roughly what percentage of the species would disappear?

A)0)3 percent

B)3 percent

C)30 percent

D)60 percent

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