Biology for Science Majors Review Questions
Course Introduction
Biology for Science Majors provides a comprehensive exploration of the fundamental concepts of biological science, including cellular structure and function, genetics, evolution, and ecological interactions. The course emphasizes scientific reasoning, experimental design, and the application of key biological principles to real-world scenarios. It builds a strong foundation in molecular biology, physiology, and biodiversity, preparing students for advanced study in biological and related scientific fields. Laboratory components offer hands-on experience in data collection, analysis, and interpretation, fostering practical skills essential for future scientific careers.
Recommended Textbook
Campbell Biology 2nd Canadian Edition by Jane B. Reece
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction: Evolution and Themes of Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) All the organisms on your campus make up which of the following?
A)an ecosystem
B)a community
C)a population
D)an experimental group
E)a taxonomic domain
Answer: B
Q2) Why are cilia described as an example of unity underlying the diversity of life?
A)Cilia are cells that function in locomotion.
B)Humans and Paramecium both share the same architecture of their cilia.
C)Cilia have an elaborate system of tubules.
D)Cilia provide motility to all the cells on which they reside.
E)Imprints of cilia have been found in the fossilized remains of prokaryotes.
Answer: B
Q3) Which of the following do humans and roses have in common?
A)Both are multicellular.
B)Both lack a membrane-bound nucleus inside their cells.
C)Both are prokaryotic.
D)Humans and roses have nothing in common.
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: The Chemical Context of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) The three types of subatomic particles pertinent to the study of biology are
A)electrons, protons, and neutrinos.
B)electrons, positrons, and neutrons.
C)electrons, protons, and neutrons.
D)electrons, photons, and neutrons.
E)quarks, photons, and gravitons.
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following correctly describes water's unique properties?
A)Hydrogen bonds in liquid water form a crystalline structure.
B)Water has a low heat of vaporization resulting in the evaporative cooling effect we experience when we sweat.
C)Water has a low specific heat resulting in a significant amount of heat being released when hydrogen bonds form.
D)Water is a non-polar molecule because oxygen and hydrogen have the same electronegativities.
E)Water molecules like to stick together due to hydrogen bonding.
Answer: E
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Chapter 3: Water and Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) When snow falls on Lake Superior how are the snow's water molecules impacted?
A)They absorb thermal energy.
B)They decrease their motion.
C)They increase their potential energy.
D)They release kinetic energy.
E)They move less randomly.
Answer: A
Q2) Hydrophobic substances such as vegetable oil are
A)nonpolar substances that repel water molecules.
B)nonpolar substances that have an attraction for water molecules.
C)polar substances that repel water molecules.
D)polar substances that have an affinity for water.
E)charged molecules that hydrogen-bond with water molecules.
Answer: A
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Carbon and the Molecular Diversity of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which molecules shown above will form hydrogen bonds with water?
A)Only D will form hydrogen bonds with water.
B)All of these molecules will form hydrogen bonds with water.
C)None of these molecules will form hydrogen bonds with water.
D)All of these molecules except B will form hydrogen bonds with water.
E)Only C, D, and E will form hydrogen bonds with water.
Q2) A compound contains hydroxyl groups as its predominant functional group.Which of the following statements is true concerning this compound?
A)It lacks an asymmetric carbon, and it is probably a fat or lipid.
B)It should dissolve in water.
C)It should dissolve in a nonpolar solvent.
D)It won't form hydrogen bonds with water.
E)It is hydrophobic.
Q3) Hydrocarbons are ________ because most of their bonds are ________ carbon-hydrogen links.
A)hydrophilic; polar
B)hydrophilic; charged
C)hydrophobic; polar
D)hydrophobic; non-polar
E)inorganic; not
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Chapter 5: The Structure and Function of Large Biological
Molecules
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Sample Questions
Q1) The molecule shown in the figure above is a(n)
A)polysaccharide.
B)polypeptide.
C)saturated fatty acid.
D)triacylglycerol.
E)unsaturated fatty acid.
Q2) How do phospholipids interact with water molecules?
A)The polar heads avoid water, and the nonpolar tails attract water.
B)Phospholipids do not interact with water because water is polar and lipids are nonpolar.
C)The polar heads interact with water, and the nonpolar tails do not.
D)The hydrocarbon tails form hydrogen bonds with water.
E)Both the polar head and lipid backbone from hydrogen bonds with water.
Q3) What aspects of protein structure are stabilized or assisted by hydrogen bonds?
A)primary structure
B)secondary structure
C)tertiary structure
D)quaternary structure
E)secondary, tertiary, and quaternary structures, but not primary structure
Page 7
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Chapter 6: A Tour of the Cell
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Sample Questions
Q1) Large numbers of ribosomes are present in cells that specialize in producing which of the following molecules?
A)lipids
B)glycogen
C)proteins
D)cellulose
E)nucleic acids
Q2) Suppose a young boy is always tired and fatigued.It is suspected that he suffering from a metabolic disease.Which of the following organelles is most likely involved in this disease?
A)lysosomes
B)Golgi apparatus
C)ribosomes
D)mitochondria
E)peroxisomes
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8
Chapter 7: Membrane Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which component is cholesterol?
A)A
B)B
C)C
D)D
E)E
Q2) What is the voltage across a membrane called?
A)water potential
B)chemical gradient
C)membrane potential
D)osmotic potential
E)electrochemical gradient
Q3) A bacterium engulfed by a white blood cell through phagocytosis will be digested by enzymes contained in A)peroxisomes.
B)lysosomes.
C)Golgi vesicles.
D)vacuoles.
E)secretory vesicles.
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Page 9
Chapter 8: An Introduction to Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Some bacteria are metabolically active in hot springs because
A)they are able to maintain a lower internal temperature.
B)high temperatures make catalysis unnecessary.
C)their enzymes have high optimal temperatures.
D)their enzymes are completely insensitive to temperature.
E)they use molecules other than proteins or RNAs as their main catalysts.
Q2) How do cells use the ATP cycle shown in the figure?
A)Cells use the cycle to recycle ADP and phosphate.
B)Cells use the cycle to recycle energy released by ATP hydrolysis.
C)Cells use the cycle to recycle ADP, phosphate, and the energy released by ATP hydrolysis.
D)Cells use the cycle to generate or consume water molecules as needed.
E)Cells use the cycle primarily to generate heat.
Q3) A molecule binds between two subunits and stabilizes the active form of an enzyme.What does this describe?
A)allosteric inhibition
B)allosteric activation
C)cooperativity
D)competitive activation
E)feedback activation
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Chapter 9: Cellular Respiration and Fermentation
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Q1) Why is glycolysis described as having an investment phase and a payoff phase?
A)It both splits molecules and assembles molecules.
B)It attaches and detaches phosphate groups.
C)It uses glucose and generates pyruvate.
D)It shifts molecules from cytosol to mitochondrion.
E)It uses stored ATP and then forms a net increase in ATP.
Q2) When hydrogen ions are pumped from the mitochondrial matrix across the inner membrane and into the intermembrane space,the result is the A)formation of ATP.
B)reduction of NAD .
C)restoration of the Na /K balance across the membrane.
D)creation of a proton-motive force.
E)lowering of pH in the mitochondrial matrix.
Q3) In addition to ATP,what are the end products of glycolysis?
A)CO and H O
B)CO and pyruvate
C)NADH and pyruvate
D)CO and NADH
E)H O, FADH , and citrate
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Photosynthesis
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Q1) Why are C plants able to photosynthesize with no apparent photorespiration?
A)They do not participate in the Calvin cycle.
B)They use PEP carboxylase to initially fix CO .
C)They are adapted to cold, wet climates.
D)They conserve water more efficiently.
E)They exclude oxygen from their tissues.
Q2) In photosynthetic cells,synthesis of ATP by the chemiosmotic mechanism occurs during
A)photosynthesis only.
B)respiration only.
C)both photosynthesis and respiration.
D)neither photosynthesis nor respiration.
E)photorespiration only.
Q3) Photorespiration occurs when rubisco reacts RuBP with A)CO .
B)O .
C)glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate.
D)3-phosphoglycerate.
E)NADPH.
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Chapter 11: Cell Communication
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Sample Questions
Q1) When an excess of the ligand (hormone)is poured through the column after the receptor binding step,what do you expect will occur?
A)The ligand will attach to those beads that have the receptor and remain on the column.
B)The ligand will cause the receptor to be displaced from the beads and eluted out.
C)The ligand will attach to the bead instead of the receptor.
D)The ligand will cause the bead to lose its affinity by changing shape.
E)The reaction will cause a pH change due to electron transfer.
Q2) Epinephrine signals which of the following?
A)a decrease in levels of cAMP as a result of bypassing the plasma membrane
B)lower blood glucose by binding to liver cells
C)interactions with insulin inside muscle cells
D)interactions directly with glycogen phosphorylase
E)elevation of cytosolic concentrations of cyclic AMP
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13
Chapter 12: The Cell Cycle
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the correct chromosomal condition at the prometaphase of mitosis?
A)A
B)B
C)C
D)D
E)E
Q2) What is metaphase characterized by?
A)aligning of chromosomes on the equator
B)splitting of the centromeres
C)cytokinesis
D)separation of sister chromatids
E)replication of DNA
Q3) Vinblastine is a standard chemotherapeutic drug used to treat cancer.Because it interferes with the assembly of microtubules,its effectiveness must be related to A)disruption of mitotic spindle formation.
B)inhibition of regulatory protein phosphorylation.
C)suppression of cyclin production.
D)myosin denaturation and inhibition of cleavage furrow formation.
E)inhibition of DNA synthesis.
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Meiosis and Sexual Life Cycles
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Q1) When we see chiasmata under a microscope,that lets us know which of the following has occurred?
A)asexual reproduction
B)meiosis II
C)anaphase II
D)prophase I
E)separation of homologues
Q2) Which statement best represents the connection between reproduction and evolution?
A)Plants that use sexual reproduction are rare since this type of reproduction in plants does not contribute to genetic diversity.
B)In order to increase genetic diversity for evolution in sexually reproducing organisms, mutations must occur in the zygote after fertilization.
C)Since prokaryotic organisms reproduce asexually, there is no mechanism for them to add genetic diversity for evolution.
D)Sexual reproduction increases genetic variation because random mutations can be shuffled between organisms.
E)The type of reproduction does not impact evolution.
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15
Chapter 14: Mendel and the Gene Idea
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Sample Questions
Q1) Black fur in mice (B)is dominant to brown fur (b).Short tails (T)are dominant to long tails (t).What fraction of the progeny of crosses BbTt × BBtt will be expected to have black fur and long tails?
A)1/16
B)3/16
C)3/8
D)1/2
E)9/16
Q2) A cross between a true-breeding sharp-spined cactus and a spineless cactus would produce
A)all sharp-spined progeny.
B)50% sharp-spined, 50% dull-spined progeny.
C)25% sharp-spined, 50% dull-spined, 25% spineless progeny.
D)all spineless progeny.
E)It is impossible to determine the phenotypes of the progeny.
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16
Chapter 15: The Chromosomal Basis of Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the definition of one map unit?
A)the physical distance between two linked genes
B)a 1% frequency of recombination between two genes
C)1 nanometer of distance between two genes
D)the recombination frequency between two genes assorting independently
E)1 picometer of distance between two genes
Q2) Between which two genes would you expect the highest frequency of recombination?
A)A and W
B)W and E
C)E and G
D)A and E
E)A and G
Q3) They have a daughter who is a dwarf with normal colour vision.What is the probability that she is heterozygous for both genes?
A)0%
B)25%
C)50%
D)75%
E)100%
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Chapter 16: The Molecular Basis of Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) In E.coli,there is a mutation in a gene called dnaB that alters the helicase that normally acts at the origin.Which of the following would you expect as a result of this mutation?
A)No proofreading will occur.
B)No replication fork will be formed.
C)The DNA will supercoil.
D)Replication will occur via RNA polymerase alone.
E)Replication will require a DNA template from another source.
Q2) Until the mid-1940s,which molecule was favoured as the molecule of inheritance?
A)lipid
B)carbohydrate
C)protein
D)DNA
E)RNA
Q3) Which enzyme catalyzes the elongation of a DNA strand in the 5' 3' direction?
A)primase
B)DNA ligase
C)DNA polymerase III
D)topoisomerase
E)helicase
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Chapter 17: From Gene to Protein
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Q1) If a nucleotide substitution switched an A for a U,such that the codon was read as UAA instead of AAA,what would the effect be?
A)a silent mutation
B)a missense mutation
C)a nonsense mutation
D)no mutation as nucleotides in the first position are interchangeable
E)it would initiate a tumour
Q2) The molecule that links the genotype and phenotype of an organism,is (are) A)protein.
B)mRNA.
C)tRNA.
D)receptor complexes.
E)ploidy.
Q3) A mutation results in a defective enzyme A.Which of the following would be a consequence of that mutation?
A)an accumulation of A and no production of B and C
B)an accumulation of A and B and no production of C
C)an accumulation of B and no production of A and C
D)an accumulation of B and C and no production of A
E)an accumulation of C and no production of A and B
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Chapter 18: Regulation of Gene Expression
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Sample Questions
Q1) The role of a metabolite that controls a repressible operon is to
A)bind to the promoter region and decrease the affinity of RNA polymerase for the promoter.
B)bind to the operator region and block the attachment of RNA polymerase to the promoter.
C)increase the production of inactive repressor proteins.
D)bind to the repressor protein and inactivate it.
E)bind to the repressor protein and activate it.
Q2) A very rare human allele of a gene called XLP,or X-linked lymphoproliferative syndrome,causes a small number of people from many different parts of the world to get cancer following even childhood exposure to EBV.Given the previous information,what might be going on?
A)The people must have previously had malaria.
B)Their ancestors must be from sub-Saharan Africa or southeast Asia.
C)They must be unable to mount an immune response to EBV.
D)They must have severe combined immune deficiency (SCID).
E)Their whole immune system must be overreplicating.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Viruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Will treating a viral infection with antibiotics affect the course of the infection?
A)No; antibiotics work by inhibiting enzymes specific to bacteria.
B)No; antibiotics do not kill viruses because viruses do not have DNA.
C)Yes; antibiotics activate the immune system, and this decreases the severity of the infection.
D)Yes; antibiotics can prevent viral entry into the cell by binding to host-receptor proteins.
E)Yes; antibiotics prevent viral replication.
Q2) To cause a human pandemic,the H5N1 avian flu virus would have to
A)spread to primates such as chimpanzees.
B)develop into a virus with a different host range.
C)become capable of human-to-human transmission.
D)arise independently in chickens in North and South America.
E)become much more pathogenic.
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21
Chapter 20: DNA Tools and Biotechnology
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Q1) What is the most important reason to sequence an entire genome of a model organism,such as that of C.elegans,a nematode?
A)it allows researchers to use the sequence to build a "better" nematode, which is resistant to disease.
B)it allows research on a group of organisms we do not usually care much about.
C)the nematode is a good animal model for trying out cures for viral illness.
D)a sequence that is found to have a particular function in the nematode is likely to have a closely related function in vertebrates.
E)a sequence that is found to have no introns in the nematode genome is likely to have acquired the introns from higher organisms.
Q2) Which enzyme was used to produce the molecule in the figure above?
A)ligase
B)transcriptase
C)a restriction enzyme
D)RNA polymerase
E)DNA polymerase
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Chapter 21: Genomes and Their Evolution
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Q1) What can proteomics reveal that genomics cannot?
A)the number of genes characteristic of a species
B)the patterns of alternative splicing
C)the set of proteins present within a cell or tissue type
D)the movement of transposable elements within the genome
E)the number of short tandem repeats
Q2) Which of the following variations in human DNA sequences involves duplication of relatively long stretches of chromosomes,often including the duplication of protein-coding genes?
A)copy number variants
B)single nucleotide polymorphisms
C)short tandem repeats
D)transposable elements
E)exon shuffling
Q3) Alu elements account for about 10% of the human genome.What are Alu elements?
A)noncoding regions
B)viral remnants
C)transposable elements
D)short sequences that code for RNA
E)transposons that code for RNA
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Chapter 22: Descent with Modification: A Darwinian View of Life
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Q1) In a hypothetical environment,fish called pike-cichlids are visual predators of algae-eating fish (in other words,they locate their prey by sight).If a population of algae-eaters experiences predation pressure from pike-cichlids,which of the following is least likely to be observed in the algae-eater population over the course of many generations?
A)selection for drab colouration of the algae-eaters
B)selection for nocturnal algae-eaters (active only at night)
C)selection for larger female algae-eaters, bearing broods composed of more, and larger, young
D)selection for algae-eaters that become sexually mature at smaller overall body sizes
E)selection for algae-eaters that are faster swimmers
Q2) If one wanted to find the largest number of endemic species,one should visit which of the following geological features (assuming each has existed for several millions of years)?
A)an isolated ocean island in the tropics
B)an extensive mountain range
C)a midcontinental grassland with extreme climatic conditions
D)a shallow estuary on a warm-water coast
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Chapter 23: The Evolution of Populations
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Q1) What would be the most probable cause for a population depicted in the figure above to shift both to the left and to the right?
A)when large size is important
B)when there is an extreme environmental change
C)when there are few predators
D)when there are differences in the size of food items available to members of the same species
E)when the more common alleles are lost
Q2) If the original finches that had been blown over to the Galápagos from South America had already been genetically different from the parental population of South American finches,even before adapting to the Galápagos,this would have been an example of
A)genetic drift.
B)bottleneck effect.
C)founder effect.
D)all three of these.
E)both the first and third of these.
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Chapter 24: The Origin of Species
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Q1) Which of the various species concepts distinguishes two species based on the degree of genetic exchange between their gene pools?
A)phylogenetic
B)ecological
C)biological
D)morphological
Q2) The most likely explanation for the high rate of sympatric speciation that apparently existed among the cichlids of Lake Victoria in the past is
A)sexual selection.
B)habitat differentiation.
C)polyploidy.
D)pollution.
E)introduction of a new predator.
Q3) What keeps the two populations separate?
A)temporal reproductive isolation
B)lack of hybrid viability
C)behavioural reproductive isolation
D)habitat isolation
E)C and D
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Page 26
Chapter 25: The History of Life on Earth
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Q1) Which of the statement(s)below lends support to your claim about the fossilization process?
A)Burying hides the body/carcass from scavengers.
B)Burying protects the carcass from environmental elements such as rain, snow, and wind.
C)Burying speeds up the process of decay by fungi.
D)Burying speeds up the process of decay by bacteria.
E)A and B
Q2) Which measurement(s)would help determine absolute dates by radiometric means?
A)the accumulation of the daughter isotope
B)the loss of parent isotopes
C)the loss of daughter isotopes
D)Three of the responses above are correct.
E)Two of the responses above are correct.
Q3) Which event is nearest in time to the end of the period known as snowball Earth?
A)oxygenation of Earth's seas and atmosphere
B)evolution of mitochondria
C)Cambrian explosion
D)evolution of true multicellularity
E)Permian extinction
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Chapter 26: Phylogeny and the Tree of Life
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Q1) The most important feature that permits a gene to act as a molecular clock is
A)having a large number of base pairs.
B)having a larger proportion of exonic DNA than of intronic DNA.
C)having a reliable average rate of mutation.
D)its recent origin by a gene-duplication event.
E)its being acted upon by natural selection.
Q2) Why is the Kingdom Monera no longer part of the modern classification system?
A)It is too confusing.
B)It had members in two different domains.
C)It had included both prokaryotes and eukaryotes.
D)It had included both unicellular and multicellular organisms.
E)B and C
Q3) For a proponent of PhyloCode classification,what is true of the reptile clade if birds are not included in it?
A)It becomes paraphyletic and, thus, an invalid reflection of evolutionary history.
B)It becomes a subclass, instead of a class.
C)It becomes a superclass, whereas the birds remain a class.
D)PhyloCode does not concern itself with what is, or is not, a clade.
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Chapter 27: Bacteria and Archaea
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Q1) Which of the following describe all existing bacteria?
A)pathogenic, omnipresent, morphologically diverse
B)extremophiles, tiny, abundant
C)tiny, ubiquitous, metabolically diverse
D)morphologically diverse, metabolically diverse, extremophiles
Q2) Hershey and Chase performed an elegant experiment that convinced most biologists that DNA,rather than protein,was the genetic material.This experiment subjected bacteria to the same gene transfer mechanism as occurs in A)transduction.
B)transformation.
C)conjugation.
D)binary fission.
E)endosymbiosis.
Q3) Which of the following is least associated with the others?
A)horizontal gene transfer
B)genetic recombination
C)conjugation
D)transformation
E)binary fission
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Page 29
Chapter 28: Protists
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Q1) The cysts of Giardia are most analogous to the
A)mitochondria of ancestral diplomonads.
B)nuclei of archaeans.
C)endospores of bacteria.
D)capsids of viruses.
Q2) Which protists are in the same eukaryotic supergroup as land plants?
A)green algae
B)dinoflagellates
C)red algae
D)brown algae
E)both green algae and red algae
Q3) Which of the following groups is matched with a correct anatomical feature?
A)foraminifera silicon-rich tests
B)dinoflagellata holdfast
C)diatoms tests made of cellulose
D)phaeophyta (brown algae) blade
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Chapter 29: Plant Diversity I: How Plants Colonized Land
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which problem with growing on land does not fit with the adaptation to survive dry terrestrial conditions?
A)avoiding dessication - cuticle
B)uptake of carbon dioxide - stomata
C)transport of water - rhizoids
D)reproduction with no water - pollen/seeds
Q2) Which of the following are land plants that use the same means of getting sperm to egg that algae use?
A)true mosses, hornworts, and liverworts
B)ferns, whisk ferns, and horsetails
C)all land plants
D)Two of the responses above are correct.
Q3) Structurally,phragmoplasts should be most similar to
A)the nuclear lamina.
B)the myofilaments of muscle cells.
C)the internal support structures of microvilli.
D)the cytoskeletal elements that produce cytoplasmic streaming and amoeboid motion.
E)spindle fibres.
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Chapter 30: Plant Diversity II: The Evolution of Seed Plants
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Sample Questions
Q1) Arrange the following structures,which can be found on male pine trees,from the largest structure to the smallest structure (or from most inclusive to least inclusive).
1)sporophyte
2)microspores
3)microsporangia
4)pollen cone
5)pollen nuclei
A)1, 4, 3, 2, 5
B)1, 4, 2, 3, 5
C)1, 2, 3, 5, 4
D)4, 1, 2, 3, 5
E)4, 3, 2, 5, 1
Q2) How have fruits contributed to the success of angiosperms?
A)by nourishing the plants that make them
B)by facilitating dispersal of seeds
C)by attracting insects to the pollen inside
D)by producing sperm and eggs inside a protective coat
E)by producing triploid cells via double fertilization
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Chapter 31: Fungi
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following microsporidian features are shared with many other fungi?
1)chitinous cell wall
2)two haploid nuclei per cell
3)polar filament
4)chemoheterotrophy
A)1 and 2
B)1 and 3
C)1 and 4
D)1, 2, and 4
E)2, 3, and 4
Q2) When a mycelium infiltrates an unexploited source of dead organic matter,what are most likely to appear within the food source soon thereafter?
A)fungal haustoria
B)soredia
C)fungal enzymes
D)increased oxygen levels
E)larger bacterial populations
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Chapter 32: An Overview of Animal Diversity
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is true of the deuterostomes in the molecular phylogeny (B)that is not true in the traditional phylogeny (A)?
A)Deuterostomia is a clade.
B)To maintain Deuterostomia as a clade, some phyla had to be removed from it.
C)Deuterostomia now includes the Acoela.
D)It is actually a grade, rather than a clade.
E)It diverged from the rest of the Bilateria earlier than did the Acoela.
Q2) The larvae of some insects are merely small versions of the adult,whereas the larvae of other insects look completely different from adults,eat different foods,and may live in different habitats.Which of the following most directly favours the evolution of the latter,more radical,kind of metamorphosis?
A)natural selection of sexually immature forms of insects
B)changes in the homeobox genes governing early development
C)the evolution of meiosis
D)the development of an oxidizing atmosphere on Earth
E)the origin of a brain
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Chapter 33: An Introduction to Invertebrates
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Q1) The teacher and class were especially saddened when the colonial hydrozoan died.They had watched it carefully,and the unfortunate creature never even got to produce offspring by budding.Yet,everyone was elated when Tommy (now recovered)noticed a small colonial hydrozoan growing in a part of the tank far from the location of the original colony.The teacher was apparently unaware that these hydrozoans exhibit
A)spontaneous generation.
B)abiogenesis.
C)alternation of generations.
D)ecdysis.
E)a medusa stage.
Q2) Which chemical is synthesized by some sponges and acts as an antibiotic?
A)streptomycin
B)spongin
C)calcium carbonate
D)silica
E)cribrostatin
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Chapter 34: The Origin and Evolution of Vertebrates
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Sample Questions
Q1) Regarding its position in the water column,the same thing that happens to a shark when it stops swimming also happens to a
A)physostomus fish when it gulps air.
B)physoclistus fish when it moves gas from the blood into the water.
C)physoclistus fish when it moves gas from the swim bladder into the blood.
D)physoclistus fish when it moves gas from the blood into the swim bladder.
Q2) Which extant chordates are postulated to be most like the earliest chordates in appearance?
A)lancelets
B)adult tunicates
C)amphibians
D)reptiles
E)chondrichthyans
Q3) Which of the following statements about human evolution is a common misconception?
A)Bipedalism evolved early in hominin history.
B)Brains of hominins were small compared with those of Homo sapiens.
C)Early hominins evolved from chimpanzees.
D)Earliest hominins were small in size.
E)At certain times, several species of hominins coexisted.
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Chapter 35: Plant Structure,Growth,and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) The prickly pear cactus has evolved spines that are its actual leaves.The evolutionary adaptation of these modified leaves is A)defence.
B)protection from UV radiation.
C)to increase water absorption.
D)to take in carbon dioxide for photosynthesis.
E)Two of the above statements are correct.
Q2) A woody eudicot is represented by
A)I only.
B)II only.
C)III only.
D)IV only.
E)both I and III.
Q3) Which of the following is a true statement?
A)Flowers may have secondary growth.
B)Secondary growth is a common feature of eudicot leaves.
C)Secondary growth is produced by both the vascular cambium and the cork cambium.
D)Primary growth and secondary growth alternate in the life cycle of a plant.
E)Plants with secondary growth are typically the smallest ones in an ecosystem.
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Page 37
Chapter 36: Resource Acquisition and Transport in Vascular Plants
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which structure or compartment is not part of the plant's apoplast?
A)the lumen of a xylem vessel
B)the lumen of a sieve tube
C)the cell wall of a mesophyll cell
D)the cell wall of a transfer cell
E)the cell wall of a root hair
Q2) Pine seedlings grown in sterile potting soil grow much more slowly than seedlings grown in soil from the area where the seeds were collected.This is most likely because
A)the sterilization process kills the root hairs as they emerge from the seedling.
B)the normal symbiotic fungi are not present in the sterilized soil.
C)sterilization removes essential nutrients from the soil.
D)water and mineral uptake are faster when mycorrhizae are present.
E)B and D.
Q3) Most of the water taken up by a plant is
A)used as a solvent.
B)used as a hydrogen source in photosynthesis.
C)lost during transpiration.
D)used to keep cells turgid.
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Chapter 37: Soil and Plant Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) A group of 10 tomato plants are germinated and maintained in a large tray with no drainage.After several weeks they all begin to wilt and die despite repeated watering and fertilization.The most likely cause of this die-off is
A)competition for resources.
B)anoxia.
C)organic nutrient depletion.
D)no room left for root growth.
E)buildup of toxic substances in the tray.
Q2) Leghemoglobin is produced in some root nodules to
A)transport oxygen from air in the soil to the root tissues.
B)bind oxygen in the nodule to keep the area anaerobic.
C)supply iron to the nitrogenase enzyme.
D)feed the symbiotic bacteria.
E)attract bacteria in the soil to the developing nodule.
Q3) Most of the water taken up by a plant is
A)used as a solvent.
B)used as a hydrogen source in photosynthesis.
C)lost during transpiration.
D)converted to CO .
E)used to keep cells turgid.
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Chapter 38: Angiosperm Reproduction and Biotechnology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The pollen tube (see the above figure)grows in the ________ and is directed towards the micropyle by chemical attractants of the ________.
A)style, synergids
B)style, antipodal cells
C)female gametophyte, polar nuclei
D)filament, megaspore
E)style, egg
Q2) Which of the following is a scientific concern related to creating genetically modified crops?
A)Herbicide resistance may spread to weedy species.
B)Beneficial insects may be harmed by eating pest species.
C)Their adaptive advantages would allow them to overpower natural ecosystems.
D)The monetary costs of growing genetically modified plants are significantly greater than traditional breeding techniques.
E)Genetically modified plants are less stable and may revert back to parental genotypes.
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Chapter 39: Plant Responses to Internal and External
Signals
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Sample Questions
Q1) The plant hormone involved in aging and ripening of fruit is A)auxin.
B)ethylene.
C)florigen.
D)abscisic acid.
E)gibberellin.
Q2) Which of the following statements best summarizes the acid growth hypothesis in an actively growing shoot?
A)Auxin stimulates proton pumps in the plasma membrane and tonoplast.
B)Auxin-activated proton pumps lower the pH of the cell wall, which breaks bonds and makes the walls more flexible.
C)Auxins and gibberellins together act as a lubricant to help stretch cellulose microfibrils.
D)Auxins activate aquaporins that increase turgor pressure in the cells.
E)Auxins and gibberellins are transported to the vacuoles to build up turgor pressure.
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Chapter 40: Basic Principles of Animal Form and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The cells lining the air sacs in the lungs make up a A)cuboidal epithelium.
B)simple squamous epithelium.
C)stratified squamous epithelium.
D)pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium.
E)simple columnar epithelium.
Q2) Animals with a complex body plan can maintain homeostasis in a changing environment by using all of the following except
A)sensory organs that provide information about the animal's environment.
B)internal digestive organs that break down food gradually.
C)an external skeleton that provides protection against predators.
D)a gastrovascular cavity that opens directly to the external environment.
E)filtration system that can change the composition of the interstitial and circulatory fluid.
Q3) A moth preparing for flight on a cold morning warms its flight muscles via A)acclimatization.
B)torpor.
C)evaporative cooling.
D)nonshivering thermogenesis.
E)shivering thermogenesis.
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Chapter 41: Animal Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following organs is incorrectly paired with its function?
A)stomach-protein digestion
B)oral cavity-starch digestion
C)large intestine-bile production
D)small intestine-nutrient absorption
E)pancreas-enzyme production
Q2) Cattle are able to survive on a diet consisting almost entirely of plant material because
A)they are autotrophic.
B)cattle, like rabbits, re-ingest their feces.
C)they manufacture all 15 amino acids out of sugars in the liver.
D)cattle saliva has enzymes capable of digesting cellulose.
E)they have cellulose-digesting, symbiotic microorganisms in chambers of their stomachs.
Q3) Among mammals,it is generally true that
A)all types of foods begin their enzymatic digestion in the mouth.
B)after leaving the oral cavity, the bolus enters the larynx.
C)the epiglottis prevents swallowed food from entering the trachea.
D)the esophagus is a key source of digestive enzymes.
E)the trachea leads to the esophagus and then to the stomach.
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Chapter 42: Circulation and Gas Exchange
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Sample Questions
Q1) During most daily activities,the human respiration rate is most closely linked to the blood levels of
A)nitric acid.
B)nitrogen.
C)oxygen.
D)carbon dioxide.
E)carbon monoxide.
Q2) Which of the following develops the greatest pressure on the blood in the mammalian aorta?
A)systole of the left atrium
B)diastole of the right ventricle
C)systole of the left ventricle
D)diastole of the right atrium
E)diastole of the left atrium
Q3) The production of red blood cells is stimulated by
A)low-density lipoproteins.
B)immunoglobulins.
C)erythropoietin.
D)epinephrine.
E)platelets.
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Chapter 43: The Immune System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The number of MHC protein combinations possible in a given population is enormous.However,an individual in that diverse population has a far more limited array of MHC molecules because
A)the MHC proteins are made from several different gene regions that are capable of rearranging in a number of ways.
B)MHC proteins from one individual can only be of class I or class II.
C)each of the MHC genes has a large number of alleles, but each individual only inherits two for each gene.
D)once a B cell has matured in the bone marrow, it is limited to two MHC response categories.
E)once a T cell has matured in the thymus, it can only respond to two MHC categories.
Q2) Which of the following statements is not true?
A)An antibody has more than one antigen-binding site.
B)An antigen can have different epitopes.
C)A pathogen makes more than one antigen.
D)A lymphocyte has receptors for multiple different antigens.
E)A liver cell makes one class of MHC molecule.
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Page 45
Chapter 44: Osmoregulation and Excretion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following pairs of organisms excrete nitrogenous wastes in the form of uric acid?
A)mice and birds
B)insects and birds
C)lions and horses
D)humans and frogs
E)fish and turtles
Q2) Single-celled Paramecium live in pond water (a hypotonic environment).They have a structural feature,a contractile vacuole,which enables them to osmoregulate.If you observed them in the following solutions,at which sucrose concentration (in millimolars,mM)would you expect the contractile vacuole to be most active?
A)0)0 mM sucrose
B)0)05 mM saline
C)0)08 mM sucrose
D)1)0 mM sucrose
E)1)0 mM saline
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Chapter 45: Hormones and the Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone are synthesized in the A)hypothalamus.
B)adenohypophysis.
C)anterior pituitary.
D)adrenal cortex.
E)posterior pituitary.
Q2) A disease that destroys the adrenal cortex should lead to an increase in the plasma levels of A)glucocorticoid hormones.
B)epinephrine.
C)adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH).
D)glucose.
E)acetylcholine.
Q3) The hormone responsible for inducing moulting in the developing moth is A)ecdysteroid.
B)thyroid hormone.
C)juvenile hormone.
D)oxytocin.
E)thyroxine
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Page 47
Chapter 46: Animal Reproduction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Animals with reproduction dependent on internal fertilization need not have A)any copulatory organs.
B)a receptacle that receives sperm.
C)behavioural interaction between males and females.
D)internal development of embryos.
E)haploid gametes.
Q2) In the above figure,which letter points to the corpus luteum?
A)A
B)B
C)C
D)D
E)E
Q3) In correct chronological order,the three phases of the human uterine cycle are
A)menstrual ovulation luteal.
B)follicular luteal secretory.
C)menstrual proliferative secretory.
D)follicular ovulation luteal.
E)proliferative luteal ovulation.
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Chapter 47: Animal Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Although it contributes no cells to the embryo,the formation of the primitive streak is guided by the structure known as the
A)endoderm.
B)mesoderm.
C)ectoderm.
D)neural crest.
E)hypoblast.
Q2) Compared to sea urchin eggs,those of mammals
A)complete the fertilization process more rapidly.
B)have not already completed meiosis at the time of ovulation.
C)have a more distinct animal pole.
D)have a more distinct vegetal pole.
E)have no requirement for the cortical reaction.
Q3) This condition affects development in which axis?
A)proximal-distal
B)left-right
C)anterior-posterior
D)dorsal-ventral
E)transverse
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Page 49
Chapter 48: Neurons,Synapses,and Signalling
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Sample Questions
Q1) Immediately after an action potential passes along an axon,it is not possible to generate a second action potential; thus,we state that the membrane is briefly A)hyperexcitable.
B)refractory.
C)fully depolarized.
D)above threshold.
E)at the equilibrium potential.
Q2) A graded hyperpolarization of a membrane can be induced by
A)increasing its membrane's permeability to Na .
B)decreasing its membrane's permeability to H .
C)decreasing its membrane's permeability to Cl .
D)increasing its membrane's permeability to Ca .
E)increasing its membrane's permeability to K .
Q3) An amino acid that operates at inhibitory synapses in the brain is A)acetylcholine.
B)epinephrine.
C)endorphin.
D)nitric oxide.
E)GABA.
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Page 50
Chapter 49: Nervous Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the figure,which letter points to the olfactory bulb?
A)A
B)B
C)C
D)D
E)E
Q2) Wernicke's area
A)is active when speech is heard and comprehended.
B)is active during the generation of speech.
C)coordinates the response to olfactory sensation.
D)is active when you are reading silently.
E)is found on the left side of the brain.
Q3) In a cephalized invertebrate,the system that transmits "efferent" impulses from the anterior ganglion to distal segments is the
A)central nervous system.
B)peripheral nervous system.
C)autonomic nervous system.
D)parasympathetic nervous system.
E)sympathetic nervous system.
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Page 51
Chapter 50: Sensory and Motor Mechanisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the human retina,
A)cone cells can detect colour, but rod cells cannot.
B)cone cells are more sensitive than rod cells to light.
C)cone cells, but not rod cells, have a visual pigment.
D)rod cells are most highly concentrated in the centre of the retina.
E)rod cells require higher illumination for stimulation than do cone cells.
Q2) The transduction of sound waves into action potentials takes place
A)within the tectorial membrane as it is stimulated by the hair cells.
B)when hair cells are bent against the tectorial membrane, causing them to depolarize and release neurotransmitter that stimulates sensory neurons.
C)as the basilar membrane becomes more permeable to sodium ions and depolarizes, initiating an action potential in a sensory neuron.
D)as the basilar membrane vibrates at different frequencies in response to the varying volume of sounds.
E)within the middle ear as the vibrations are amplified by the malleus, incus, and stapes.
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Chapter 51: Animal Behaviour
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Sample Questions
Q1) If mayflies lay eggs on roads instead of in water,it would indicate which of the following?
A)a defective gene
B)trial-and-error learning
C)a misdirected response to a sign stimulus
D)a natural behavioural variation in the mayfly population
E)aberrant behaviour due to insecticide poisoning
Q2) What is the lizard's bobbing dewlap (a colorful flap of skin hanging from an Anolis lizard's throat)is an example of?
A)stimulus
B)reflex
C)signal
D)innate releasing mechanism
E)response
Q3) Which of the following is true of innate behaviours?
A)Their expression is only weakly influenced by genes.
B)They occur with or without environmental stimuli.
C)They are limited to invertebrate animals.
D)They are expressed in most individuals in a population.
E)They occur in invertebrates and some vertebrates but not mammals.
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Chapter 52: An Introduction to Ecology and the Biosphere
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following choices includes all of the others in creating global terrestrial climates?
A)differential heating of Earth's surface
B)ocean currents
C)global wind patterns
D)evaporation of water from ocean surfaces
E)Earth's rotation on its axis
Q2) The distribution of species may be limited by many factors,with the exception of A)snow, length of growing season.
B)inaccessible areas.
C)predators, competitors.
D)light, temperature.
E)good dispersal ability.
Q3) Which of the following levels of ecological organization is arranged in the correct sequence from most to least inclusive?
A)community, ecosystem, individual, population
B)ecosystem, community, population, individual
C)population, ecosystem, individual, community
D)individual, population, community, ecosystem
E)individual, community, population, ecosystem
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Chapter 53: Population Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Population ecologists follow the fate of same-age cohorts to
A)determine a population's carrying capacity.
B)determine the birth rate and death rate of each group in a population.
C)determine if a population is regulated by density-dependent processes.
D)determine the factors that regulate the size of a population.
E)determine if a population's growth is cyclic.
Q2) Why do populations grow more slowly as they approach their carrying capacity?
A)Density-dependent factors lead to fewer births and increased mortality.
B)Density-independent factors lead to fewer births and increased mortality.
C)Hormonal changes promote higher death rates in crowded populations.
D)Individuals voluntarily stop mating so that overcrowding does not occur.
E)The incoming energy decreases in populations experiencing a high rate of increase.
Q3) Which of the following is characteristic of K-selected populations?
A)offspring with good chances of survival
B)many offspring per reproductive episode
C)small offspring
D)a high intrinsic rate of increase
E)early parental reproduction
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Chapter 54: Community Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) What interactions exist between a "carrier crab" and "sea urchin hitch-hiker"?
A)+/+
B)+/o
C)+/-
D)o/o
E)-/-
Q2) Of the following zoonotic diseases,which is most likely to be studied by a community ecologist?
A)mad cow disease
B)hantavirus
C)AIDS
D)avian flu
E)trichinosis
Q3) Keystone predators can maintain species diversity in a community if they A)competitively exclude other predators.
B)prey on the community's dominant species.
C)allow immigration of other predators.
D)reduce the number of disruptions in the community.
E)prey only on the least abundant species in the community.
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Page 56
Chapter 55: Ecosystems and Restoration Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why is net primary production (NPP)a more useful measurement to an ecosystem ecologist than gross primary production (GPP)?
A)NPP can be expressed in energy/unit of area/unit of time.
B)NPP can be expressed in terms of carbon fixed by photosynthesis for an entire ecosystem.
C)NPP represents the stored chemical energy that is available to consumers in the ecosystem.
D)NPP is the same as the standing crop.
E)NPP shows the rate at which the standing crop is utilized by consumers.
Q2) Nitrifying bacteria participate in the nitrogen cycle mainly by
A)converting nitrogen gas to ammonia.
B)releasing ammonium from organic compounds, thus returning it to the soil.
C)converting ammonia to nitrogen gas, which returns to the atmosphere.
D)converting ammonium to nitrate, which plants absorb.
E)incorporating nitrogen into amino acids and organic compounds.
Q3) The major role of detrivores in ecosystems is to
A)provide a nutritional resource for heterotrophs.
B)recycle chemical nutrients to a form capable of being used by autotrophs.
C)prevent the buildup of the organic remains of organisms, feces, and so on.
D)return energy lost to the ecosystem by other organisms.
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Chapter 56: Conservation Biology and Global Change
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90 Verified Questions
90 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19812
Sample Questions
Q1) Philippe Bouchet and colleagues conducted a massive survey of marine molluscs on the west coast of New Caledonia.Twenty percent of the species found were represented by a single specimen.What does that suggest about the diversity of molluscs in this area?
A)The west coast of New Caledonia is not an appropriate habitat for molluscs.
B)Many of the species from this 20 percent are probably rare.
C)They were not sampling uniformly throughout the area.
D)Many of the species from this 20 percent are most likely just dispersing through the area.
Q2) Overexploitation encourages extinction and is most likely to affect
A)animals that occupy a broad ecological niche.
B)large animals with low intrinsic reproductive rates.
C)most organisms that live in the oceans.
D)terrestrial organisms more than aquatic organisms.
E)edge-adapted species.
Q3) Which of the following ecological locations has the greatest species diversity?
A)deciduous forests
B)tropical rain forest
C)grasslands
D)islands
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