Biology for Science Majors Final Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Biology for Science Majors is an in-depth introduction to the fundamental principles of biology tailored for students pursuing scientific disciplines. The course covers essential topics such as cell structure and function, molecular genetics, principles of evolution, diversity of living organisms, plant and animal physiology, and ecological interactions. Emphasizing critical thinking and analytical skills, students engage in both theoretical learning and hands-on laboratory activities, preparing them for advanced studies in biological sciences and related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Principles of Biology 1st Edition by Robert Brooker
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Chapter 1: An Introduction to Biology
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Q1) The maintenance of cell structure requires energy.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) All tissues are composed of cells.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Whether the external temperature is hot or cold,birds maintain an internal body temperature of approximately 40<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>C.This is an example of
A)metabolism.
B)cellular respiration.
C)growth and development.
D)homeostasis.
E)proteomics.
Answer: D
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Page 3
Chapter 2: The Chemical Basis of Life I: Atoms, Molecules, and
Water
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Q1) A significant role played by pH buffers is to
A)prevent fluctuations in the acidity of solutions.
B)increase the strength of acids and bases.
C)prevent fluctuations in the salinity of solutions.
D)limit major shifts in the amount of H<sup>+</sup> and OH<sup>-</sup> in solution.
E)keep pH low.
Answer: D
Q2) The addition of a strong acid like HCl to an aqueous solution would result in
A)the release of H<sup>+</sup> into the solution.
B)an increase in pH.
C)a decrease in pH.
D)both the release of H<sup>+</sup> and an increase in pH.
E)both the release of H<sup>+</sup> and a decrease in pH.
Answer: E
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Chapter 3: The Chemical Basis of Life II: Organic Molecules
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Q1) Acetic acid gives vinegar its sour taste.The functional group of this acid is A)-OH
B)-NH<sub>2</sub>
C)-SH
D)-COOH
E)-CO
Answer: D
Q2) Fuels such as gasoline are nonpolar and have high potential energy because they are largely composed of A)sulfates. B)hydrocarbons.
C)carboxylic acids. D)amines. E)alcohols.
Answer: B
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Page 5
Chapter 4: General Features of Cells
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Q1) During a period of low water availability,the prokaryotic structure that would protect a cell from desiccation (drying out)is the A)pili.
B)plasma membrane.
C)nucleus.
D)cell wall.
Q2) In order to gain the highest resolution when looking at a cell the best type of microscopy is
A)phase-contrast light microscopy.
B)scanning electron microscopy.
C)differential-interference light microscopy.
D)confocal microscopy.
E)fluorescence microscopy.
Q3) The Endosymbiosis theory best describes the origins of peroxisomes in eukaryotes.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Materials move in and out of the nucleus via endocytosis and exocytosis.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Membrane Structure, Transport, and Cell
Junctions
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Q1) How might a plant cell compensate for the excessive membrane fluidity that occurs during prolonged exposures to elevated temperature?
A)Reduce membrane cholesterol content.
B)Alter the lipid composition to have longer fatty acyl tails and fewer double bonds.
C)Alter the lipid composition to have shorter fatty acyl tails and more double bonds.
D)Alter the lipid composition to have shorter and more unsaturated fatty acyl tails.
E)Reduce cholesterol content and alter the lipid composition to have shorter fatty acyl tails.
Q2) For heart muscles to beat in a coordinated rhythm ions must move from one cell to the next through ______.
A)desmosomes
B)gap junctions
C)focal adhesions
D)hemidesmosomes
E)adherens junctions
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Chapter 6: Energy, Enzymes, and Cellular Respiration
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Q1) You measure the amount of enzyme activity in the presence of compound X and note that as you add more substrate the amount of enzyme activity increases.This indicates that the compound X is a A)competitive inhibitor.
B)allosteric inhibitor.
C)activator.
D)enzyme.
E)non-competitive inhibitor.
Q2) Bacteria that produce nitrite ( NO<sub>2</sub><sup>-</sup> )during anaerobic respiration would use this as their final electron acceptor.
A)N<sub>2</sub>
B)O<sub>2</sub>
C)N<sub>2</sub>O
D)NO<sub>3</sub><sup>-</sup>
Q3) Oxygen is an excellent final electron acceptor because of its low electronegativity.
A)True
B)False
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8
Chapter 7: Photosynthesis
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Q1) The molecules that directly convert NADP<sup>+</sup> to NADPH is/are
A)RUBISCO.
B)plastocyanin.
C)cytochrome complex.
D)NADP reductase.
E)ferrodoxin.
Q2) Compared to red light,blue light has
A)more energy and is reflected by a green leaf.
B)less energy and is absorbed by a green leaf.
C)less energy and is reflected by a green leaf.
D)more energy and is absorbed by a green leaf.
Q3) Using <sup>14</sup>CO<sub>2</sub> as a radioactive tracer,which molecule would be the last to incorporate <sup>14</sup>C within the Calvin cycle?
A)ribulose biphosphate (RuBP)
B)glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate (G3P)
C)rubisco
D)1,3-biphosphoglycerate (1,3-BPG)
E)3-phosphoglycerate (3PG)
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Cell Communication
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Sample Questions
Q1) The production of second messengers in signal transduction offers at least two advantages,speed and A)specificity.
B)amplification.
C)one-to-one stoichiometry. D)reversibility.
E)affinity.
Q2) Cyclic AMP activates protein kinase C in producing a cell response.
A)True
B)False
Q3) If the concentration of a ligand is 100 times greater than the Kd of its receptor, A)half of the receptors will be bound to a ligand.
B)few of the receptors will be bound to a ligand. C)none of the receptors will be bound to a ligand. D)most of the receptors will be bound to a liganD.
Q4) G proteins and Ras are activated when bound to GDP. A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Nucleic Acid Structure, DNA Replication, and
Chromosome Structure
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Sample Questions
Q1) When considering the complexity of genetic material,multiple genes are found within a chromosome.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Reverse transcriptase is an enzyme that can synthesize DNA from an RNA template.What DNA sequence is produced from an RNA molecule with the sequence 5'AUUGACGGU3'?
A)3'UAACUGCCA5'
B)5'TTTCTGCCT3'
C)3'TAACTGCCA5'
D)5'ATTCAGCCT3'
E)3'TUUCTGCCU5'
Q3) Without the work of Rosalind Franklin,Watson and Crick would not have known
A)which nucleotides could pair together.
B)how many strands of DNA made up the molecule.
C)the shape of the molecule.
D)the width of the molecule.
E)nucleotide pairs,number of strands,molecular shape,and molecular width.
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Chapter 10: Gene Expression at the Molecular Level
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Q1) A single gene always encodes for an enzyme.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which amino acid would Nirenberg and Leder have found when they used the triplet UAG?
A)Isoleucine
B)Proline
C)Lysine
D)Threonine
E)None of these
Q3) Which statement about tRNA is FALSE?
A)tRNAs of both eukaryotes and prokaryotes share common features
B)the two-dimensional structure of tRNAs exhibits a cloverleaf pattern
C)tRNAs are produced in the nucleus
D)functional tRNAs have been spliced by splicesomes
E)tRNAs possess an anticodon complementary to the codon
Q4) More than one codon can specify the same amino acid.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Gene Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Different globin polypeptides are expressed at similar levels during the embryonic and fetal stages of mammalian development.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The lacP site within the lac operon is upstream of the genes that encode for lactose uptake and metabolism proteins.The lacP site is
A)the lac promoter site.
B)where RNA polymerase binds.
C)the site where genes are transcribed that encode proteins for metabolizing lactose.
D)the lac promoter site where RNA polymerase binds.
E)the lac promoter site,where genes are transcribed that encode proteins for metabolizing lactosE.
Q3) Loosely packed chromatin is said to be in an open conformation.
A)True
B)False
Q4) MicroRNAs increase the rate of mRNA translation.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Mutation, DNA Repair, and Cancer
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Q1) Women are cautioned against having children later in life because the incidence of Down syndrome (trisomy 21)increases rapidly with age.What is the best explanation for this phenomenon?
A)Somatic mutations accumulate as a woman gets older,leading to changes in the uterine environment that cause down syndrome.
B)Germ line mutations accumulate as a woman ages,so a larger percentage of her eggs have mutations.
C)Germ line mutations accumulate as a woman gets older,leading to changes in the uterine environment that cause down syndrome.
D)Somatic mutations accumulate as a woman ages,so a larger percentage of her eggs have mutations.
E)Somatic mutations accumulate as a woman ages,so the developing embryo is more likely to acquire mutations that lead to down syndromE.
Q2) _______ can convert proto-oncogenes into oncogenes.
A)Gene amplifications
B)Chromosomal translocations
C)Missense mutations
D)All of these choices are correct
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Chapter 13: The Eukaryotic Cell Cycle, Mitosis, and Meiosis
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Q1) A cell undergoing meiosis that contains sister chromatids may be either haploid or diploid.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The centromere
A)is a region of DNA where sister chromatids associate.
B)is a group of proteins that attach to the kinetochore.
C)is only present when chromosomes are highly compacted.
D)is a group of proteins that attach to the mitotic spindle.
E)is not present on the chromosomes of the daughter cells until the S phasE.
Q3) Sexual life cycles include both haploid and diploid stages.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Most human embryos that are aneuploid
A)result in Down's syndrome.
B)result in sterility.
C)are spontaneously aborted in the first trimester.
D)can develop and survive to adulthooD.
E)are usually the result of increased nondisjunction in the gametes of older men.
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Chapter 14: Patterns of Inheritance
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Q1) A modification of a gene or chromosome that occurs during gamete formation or early development that permanently alters the expression of that gene for the lifetime of the individual is called
A)maternal effect
B)epigenetic inheritance
C)epistasis
D)extranuclear inheritance
E)sex-linked inheritance
Q2) In dogs,there is a hereditary deafness caused by a recessive allele,d.A kennel owner has a male dog that she wants to use for breeding purposes if possible.The dog can hear,but the owner is unsure of the genotype.She does a testcross (crosses it to a homozygous recessive dog),and two of the five offspring are deaf.This means that the male dog
A)has the genotype Dd
B)has the genotype DD
C)has the genotype dd
D)is actually deaf
E)is still of unknown genotype since there were offspring of both deaf and hearing phenotypes
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Chapter 15: Genetics of Viruses and Bacteria
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Q1) A particle that consists of nucleic acids surrounded by protein and requires a host organism to replicate is
A)a prokaryote
B)a eukaryote
C)a plasmid
D)a virus
E)bacterium
Q2) Persons infected with HIV often die of opportunistic diseases because
A)HIV can transduce other viruses into virulent strains
B)HIV destroys T cells
C)HIV binds to antibodies
D)HIV is a retrovirus
E)HIV mutates easily
Q3) Which of the following components of a virus is not encoded by its own genome?
A)capsid
B)lipid bilayer of viral envelope
C)spike glycoproteins of viral envelope
D)bacteriophage anchoring structures
E)tail fibers
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Chapter 16: Genetic Technology
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Q1) How would you accurately summarize the process used to make Dolly the sheep?
A)Mitochondrial DNA was taken from one female and injected into the mammary glands of another female.
B)A sheep embryo was produced by in vitro fertilization.At an early stage,the cells of the embryo were separated,and each cells was put into a surrogate sheep mother.
C)A mammary cell of one sheep was fused with an enucleated egg of another sheep.The resulting diploid embryo was placed in a surrogate sheep mother.
D)A set of twins - one male and one female - were mateD.Since the twins had identical DNA,their lamb was a clone.
E)The sheep to be cloned was given a drug that induced the cells of her ovary to divide by binary fission.The resulting diploid eggs did not need to be fertilized,and were used to produce sheep embryos,including Dolly.
Q2) DNA microarrays (gene chips)are only capable of monitoring the expression of one gene at a time.
A)True
B)False
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Genomes, Repetitive Sequences, and
Bioinformatics
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Q1) Which of the following most adequately describes how the Alu element may have proliferated to constitute 10% of the human genome?
A)Multiple retroelements code the same gene.
B)Retroelements increase with every generation.
C)A single retroelement can be copied into many RNA transcripts.
D)Retroelements increase with each cell division.
E)Retroelements show self-proliferation.
Q2) What question is most likely to be answered if the goals of the Human Genome Project are met?
A)Should companies that discover disease-related genes (ex: BRCA genes)and develop tests for those genes be allowed to patent them?
B)How did plasmids evolve?
C)How many genes does the genome of Borrelia burgdorferi contain?
D)What are the functions of repetitive sequences in prokaryotic organisms?
Q3) Prokaryotic genomes often contain a circular chromosome with hundreds of thousands of genes and highly repetitive DNA.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Origin and History of Life
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Q1) You have just invented a time machine and you want to investigate the past (the dream of every paleontologist!).When is the earliest time in Earth's history that you would feel safe visiting without an oxygen tank in order to breathe normally?
A)Cambrian Period
B)Early Archaean Era
C)Late Mesozoic Era
D)Quaternary Period
E)Devonian Period
Q2) In 2004,Jun-Yuan Chen and David Bottjer found a fossil approximately 580-600 million years old.Why was this particular fossil significant?
A)It was one of the earliest fossils of a single-celled organism.
B)It helped provide a date for the emergence of vertebrates.
C)It provided evidence that the earliest life forms were autotrophiC.
D)It provided evidence that the earliest life forms were heterotrophic.
E)It helped provide a date for the emergence of bilateral symmetry in animals.
Q3) The eukaryotic genome is comprised entirely of genes derived from Archean ancestors.
A)True
B)False
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Page 20
Chapter 19: An Introduction to Evolution and Population Genetics
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Q1) Evolution,viewed on a small scale,as it relates to changes in a single gene or allele frequency in a population over time,is called
A)genetic drift.
B)Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.
C)genetic evolution.
D)phenotypic evolution.
E)microevolution.
Q2) Cacti in the deserts of southwestern North America and some euphorbs in the deserts of Africa have barrel-shaped stems,short-lived leaves,and spines,yet these two types of plants are from different evolutionary lineages.The similar morphology of the two groups of plants is an example of:
A)a developmental homology.
B)directional selection.
C)an anatomical homology.
D)convergent evolution.
E)stabilizing selection.
Q3) A population undergoing microevolution would show Hardy-Weinberg disequilibrium.
A)True
B)False
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Origin of Species and Macroevolution
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Q1) A disadvantage of using DNA or RNA sequences to identify species is that
A)it can only be used for sexually reproducing organisms.
B)it cannot be used for extinct species.
C)there is no rule for determining the number of sequence differences needed for a new species.
D)if can be misleading because many species exhibit large variation in phenotype. E)species that do not interbreed in nature may be able to successfully breed in captivity.
Q2) You discover a new species of lily that has 10 chromosomes (2n=10).Genetic testing reveals that it arose from the interbreeding of two other species of lilies,one of which has 12 chromosomes (2n=12),and one of which has 8 chromosomes (2n=8).What is the correct term for the new lily species?
A)autopolyploid
B)allopolyploid
C)allodiploid
D)allotetrapoloid
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Chapter 21: Taxonomy and Systematics
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Q1) Which of the following organisms would NOT be classified in the Domain Eukarya?
A)Canis lupis (wolf).
B)Loxodonta cyclotis (forest elephant).
C)Salmonella enterica (bacteria that causes food poisoning).
D)Aleuria aurantia (ascomycete fungi).
E)Sequoiadendron giganteum (Giant Sequoia tree).
Q2) Members of the plant family Cactaceae (cacti)are native to the Americas and thrive in dry environments.They have a number of specialized adaptations,including reduced leaves,succulent (fleshy)stems for water storage,and spines for defense against herbivores.Some members of the family Euphorbiaceae are native to Africa and resemble cacti,having similarly reduced leaves,succulent stems,and thorns.However,their common ancestor likely did not have these traits.Based on this information,what can you say about the morphological traits of Cactaceae and Euphorbiaceae indicated above?
A)They are shared primitive traits.
B)They are shared derived traits.
C)They are homologous traits.
D)They are analogous traits.
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Chapter 22: Microorganisms: The Archaea, Bacteria, and Protists
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a way that bacteria benefit humans?
A)production of foodstuffs such as cheese
B)production of antibiotics
C)breaking down wastes,toxins,explosives,and petrochemicals
D)killing harmful insects
E)transferring nutrients across intestinal membranes
Q2) The atmosphere and seas of the early Earth lacked oxygen.What kind of organisms could NOT have lived under those conditions?
A)obligate aerobes
B)obligate anaerobes
C)facultative anaerobes
D)chemoautotrophs
E)cyanobacteria
Q3) Phagocytosis is:
A)the movement of small organic molecules across the cell membrane.
B)the capture and ingestion of food particles by a cell.
C)the synthesis of organic molecules from inorganic molecules using light as an energy source.
D)the ability to use photosynthesis and osmosis or particle ingestion for nutrition.
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Plants
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Q1) Which statement best describes the relationship between a carpel and a pistil?
A)The two terms are merely two names for the same thing.
B)A pistil is part of a male component of the flower whereas a carpel is part of a female component.
C)A pistil can be composed of either a single carpel (in which case the two terms are synonymous)or of two or more carpels fused together.
D)A pistil is a reproductive part of a flower whereas a carpel is a showy vegetative part.
E)A pistil is part of the female component of a flower and a carpel is not even a flower part at all.
Q2) Flowers,fruits,and endosperm are defining characteristics of the angiosperms.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The fruits of legumes:
A)are fleshy and sweet and are dispersed by birds
B)are winged and dispersed by wind
C)split down both sides and the seeds fall out
D)have corky hulls that make them buoyant and are dispersed by water
E)have hooks that cling to mammals and are dispersed by them
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Chapter 24: Fungi
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Q1) You are tutoring another student on the fungi.Fungal taxonomy is something that is very confusing to your pupil.Summarize the current standing of fungal taxonomy so your pupil has an overview of where fungal taxonomy currently stands.
A)Although it is a complicated framework,fungal taxonomy is complete and well agreed on.
B)Fungal taxonomy is incomplete,but the true fungi,nonopisthokont protists are monophyletic.
C)Fungal taxonomy is relatively simple and represents a monophyletic grouping of organisms.
D)Major fungal groups have yet to be formally nameD.
Q2) How would you describe the body of a fungus?
A)tiny threadlike septa collectively make up the mycelium
B)tiny threadlike mycelia collectively make up the septa
C)tiny threadlike mycelia collectively make up the hypha
D)tiny threadlike hyphae collectively make up the mycelium
E)tiny threadlike mycelia collectively make up the dikaryote
Q3) Lichens are monophyletic.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 25: Animal Diversity: Invertebrates
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Q1) Your colleague is studying a newly-discovered organism.She is becoming increasingly convinced that the organism is an arthropod.You find that you must respectfully disagree when you note that the organism has a set of distinctly non-arthropod characteristics.The features that cause you to exclude the organism from the arthropod grouping are
A)jointed legs,ecdysis,and an exoskeleton.
B)antennae,six legs,and mandibles.
C)compound eyes,book lungs,and a hemocoel.
D)Malpighian tubules,ommatidia,and tagmata.
E)pseudocoel,closed circulatory system,and ventral heart.
Q2) The invertebrate group most closely related to the vertebrates is the A)EchinodermatA.
B)Urochordata.
C)Cephalochordata.
D)Ophiouroidea.
E)Notochordata.
Q3) The diversification of insects is related to the diversification of food sources in the environment.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 26: Animal Diversity: Vertebrates
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Q1) What are the closest ancestors of humans (genus Homo)?
A)chimpanzees
B)australopithecines
C)prosimians
D)gibbons
Q2) Hagfish are classified as vertebrates,but they do not have a vertebral column.
A)True
B)False
Q3) You are charged with differentiating a snake and a lizard.Which of the following statements allows you to make this distinction without any doubt?
A)All snakes lack scales and all lizards have scales.
B)All snakes produce amniotic eggs while all lizards do not.
C)Some snakes are venomous but lizards usually are not venomous.
D)All snakes lack a kinetic skull,but all lizards have a kinetic skull.
Q4) Eutherian mammals are uniquely defined by
A)having a placentA.
B)longer gestation periods because of more highly developed placentas.
C)having fur.
D)the young developing in a pouch.
E)laying eggs.
Page 28
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Chapter 27: An Introduction to Flowering Plant Form and Function
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Q1) Flowers develop as a result of determinate shoot growth.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Where would one find the leaf axillary bud?
A)in the internode of the stem
B)near the terminal bud
C)between the leaf petiole and the stem
D)between the leaf petiole and the leaf blade
E)between leaflets on a compound leaf
Q3) Where is the primary meristem located?
A)dermal tissue
B)vascular tissue
C)woody stem
D)root and stem tips
E)stem tip only
Q4) Root hairs are specialized
A)connective tissues.
B)epidermal cells.
C)conductive tissues.
29
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Chapter 28: Flowering Plants: Plant Behavior
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Q1) Ethylene has the effect of causing fruits to:
A)enlarge
B)ripen
C)shrink
D)elongate
E)increase in juice content
Q2) In Barrow,Alaska,the sun does not set for several months in the summer.Based on what you know about photoperiodism,what type of plant is most likely to flower during the summer in Barrow?
A)Long-day plants
B)Short-day plants
C)Day-neutral plants
Q3) Plant behavior is defined as response to stimuli.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Brassinosteroids produced by plants are closely related chemically to animal steroid hormones.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 29: Flowering Plants: Nutrition and Transport
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Q1) Atmospheric levels of carbon dioxide have rapidly increased since the industrial revolution.Although bad for global warming,one positive outcome of this increase is that:
A)plants may no longer need light for photosynthesis.
B)some crops such as tomatoes and cucumbers may experience enhanced growth rates.
C)plants may be able to absorb carbon dioxide even with their stomata closed.
D)C<sub>4</sub> photosynthesis may become more important than C<sub>3</sub> (standard)photosynthesis.
Q2) You want to calculate the relative water content of a sapling.You measure the fresh weight to be 11.95g,the turgid weight to be 12.5g,and the dry weight to be 11.5g.What is the RWC of this plant,and is it likely to live or die?
A)55%;live
B)45%;live
C)45%;die
D)55%;die
E)100%;live
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Chapter 30: Flowering Plants: Reproduction
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Q1) Which of the following events must occur before fertilization can happen?
A)Double meiosis
B)Mitosis
C)Haploidization
D)Pollination
E)Carpellization
Q2) You are working with a scientist to classify new plants.You find a new plant that has flowers.You can conclude what about its reproduction?
A)It reproduces sexually.
B)It reproduces by apomixis.
C)It reproduces by somatic embryogenesis.
D)We do not have sufficient information about this plant to indicate how it reproduces.
Q3) Double fertilization is important to the reproductive process because it produces:
A)both the zygote and the endosperm.
B)a reaction that keeps the plant from dying.
C)a double portion of endosperm.
D)nutrition for the seeD.
E)None of these is truE.
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Chapter 31: Animal Bodies and Homeostasis
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Q1) The readout recorded in Pavlov's experiments on learning and feedforward regulation was:
A)amount of food the dogs ate.
B)how quickly the dogs ate.
C)how long the metronome ticked.
D)amount of saliva collecteD.
Q2) It's your birthday and you splurge with a big slice of chocolate cake,heavy on the icing.Shortly afterwards,your blood glucose levels rise until an endocrine mechanism (secretion of insulin)counteracts this rise and glucose levels decline.The initial change in blood glucose and insulin response that follows is an example of:
A)physiological constancy.
B)diffusion.
C)homeostasis.
D)positive feedback.
E)lack of homeostasis.
Q3) When body temperature drops below normal,a person starts shivering uncontrollably.This is an example of negative feedback.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 32: Neuroscience I: Structure, Function, and
Evolution of Nervous Systems
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Q1) The same neurotransmitter may produce either excitatory or inhibitory effects on postsynaptic neurons depending on the specific receptor type it binds.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which organisms have a CNS? Check all that apply.
A) Jellyfish
B) Oak trees
C) Frogs
D) Eagles
E) Elephants
Q3) New neuron synapses do not appear in the brain of adult vertebrate animals.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The mammalian circadian pacemaker is located in the A)hypothalamus.
B)brainstem.
C)somatosensory cortex.
D)adrenal glanD.
E)hippocampus.
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Chapter 33: Neuroscience II: Sensory Systems
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Q1) What did Richard Axel and Linda Buck discover about the way in which we are able to perceive many different types of odors?
A)Many different types of odors bind to just a few different types of receptor molecules.
B)Vertebrate animals make a large number of distinct types of receptor proteins,each of which binds a particular odorant molecule or small group of such molecules.
C)Odors are distinguished by the way in which they bind both olfactory and taste receptors-it is the overall "picture" generated this way that we perceive.
D)None of these choices are correct.
Q2) The olfactory receptors discovered by Richard Axel and Linda Buck are members of a large family of similar receptor molecules termed
A)G-protein coupled receptors.
B)ligand-gated ion channels.
C)voltage-gated ion channels.
D)intracellular receptors.
E)serine/threonine proteases.
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Chapter 34: Muscular-Skeletal Systems
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Q1) What is the correct sequence of events in cross-bridge cycling?
A)Myosin cross-bridge binds to actin,the powerstroke moves the thin filament relative to the thick filament,ATP binds to myosin and cross-bridge detachment occurs,ATP is hydrolyzed and the myosin head is "cocked"
B)The powerstroke moves the thin filament relative to the thick filament,myosin cross-bridge binds to actin,ATP binds to myosin and cross-bridge detachment occurs,ATP is hydrolyzed and the myosin head is "cocked"
C)Myosin cross-bridge binds to actin,ATP is hydrolyzed and the myosin head is "cocked," the powerstroke moves the thin filament relative to the thick filament,ATP binds to myosin and cross-bridge detachment occurs
D)Myosin cross-bridge binds to actin,ATP binds to myosin and cross-bridge detachment occurs,the powerstroke moves the thin filament relative to the thick filament,ATP is hydrolyzed and the myosin head is "cocked"
E)These events can occur in any sequence without affecting muscle function.
Q2) You would expect to find more mitochondria in glycolytic muscle fibers than in oxidative muscle fibers.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 35: Digestive Systems and Nutrition
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Q1) The large intestine concentrates undigested material by A)ingestion of excess salts and water by intestinal bacteriA.
B)transporting excess salts and water back to the small intestine for absorption.
C)storing excess salts and water in the cecum.
D)absorption of salts and water across the epithelial surface of the lumen.
Q2) Insulin is a product of the A)pancreas.
B)stomach.
C)brain.
D)kidney.
E)liver.
Q3) All sugars are absorbed via secondary active transport.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A mechanism shared by both extracellular and intracellular digestion is
A)the ability to phagocytose food particles.
B)a slow speed of digestion.
C)the presence of a digestive cavity.
D)the ability to consume both large and small food items.
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Chapter 36: Circulatory Systems
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Q1) During their diastole,the heart chambers are contracting.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Standing still and at attention for long periods can result in inadequate venous return.The effects of this can be seen when even young and healthy soldiers sometimes faint when standing at attention for long periods.Which of the following is NOT occurring to promote return of blood from the venous system in this situation?
A)sympathetic activation of smooth muscle in large veins
B)skeletal muscle activity compressing veins and forcing blood flow
C)one way flow in the venous system due to valves
D)ventricular contraction
Q3) In cardiovascular disease,"M.I" refers to
A)a stroke.
B)a heart attack.
C)narrowed arteries.
D)high blood cholesterol.
Q4) Frogs have two atria,but only a single ventricle.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 37: Respiratory Systems
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Q1) Smaller mammals typically have higher ventilation rates than large mammals.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Air rushes into the lungs of humans during inhalation because
A)the volume of the thoracic cavity increases.
B)pressure in the alveoli increases.
C)the diaphragm contracts and pushes upward on the chest cavity.
D)smooth muscle lining the trachea,bronchi and bronchioles contracts and causes their volume to increase.
E)pulmonary muscles contract and pull on the outer surface of the lungs.
Q3) During a particular period of physiological crisis,imagine that your carbon dioxide levels increase sharply,and consequently your blood pH decreases.Predict what will happen to the affinity of your hemoglobin for oxygen in this situation.
A)The affinity for oxygen by hemoglobin is constant - it does not change.
B)The affinity for oxygen by hemoglobin will increase to correct this situation.
C)The affinity for oxygen by hemoglobin will decrease to correct this situation.
Q4) Fishes exhibit a method of ventilating their gills termed "tidal ventilation."
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 38: Excretory Systems and the Homeostasis of Internal Fluids
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Q1) Diabetes mellitus results from a disorder of glucose uptake by systemic cells and can result in a number of symptoms including high levels of blood glucose and the presence of glucose in the urine .Which of the following is a reasonable explanation for the presence of glucose in the urine?
A)The reabsorption capacity of the kidney for glucose is exceeded.
B)A lack of sodium in the filtrate blocks the function of the Na<sup>+</sup>/glucose symport protein.
C)High levels of glucose interfere with ADH function.
D)The high levels of glucose induce a "dehydrated" state that promotes production of a large amount of dilute urine.
E)None of the choices given are a logical explanation for this observation.
Q2) The filtrate that leaves the proximal convoluted tubule is much more concentrated than the blood in humans.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Sweat has a higher salt concentration than the blood does in humans.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 39: Endocrine Systems
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Q1) What hormone regulates milk production in mammals?
A)growth hormone
B)prolactin
C)thyroid-stimulating hormone
D)adrenocorticotropic hormone
E)luteinizing hormone
Q2) This hormone does not play a role in the female reproductive system.
A)estradiol
B)progesterone
C)gonadotropin-releasing hormone
D)follicle-stimulating and luteinizing hormones
E)insulin
Q3) This hormone is secreted from the posterior pituitary and regulates muscle contraction.
A)antidiuretic hormone
B)prolactin
C)adrenocorticotropic hormone
D)oxytocin
E)epinephrine
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Chapter 40: Animal Reproduction and Development
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Q1) Place the events of parturition in the correct order.
(1)Stretch-sensitive neurons send signals to the hypothalamus.
(2)Oxytocin receptors increase in the uterus.
(3)Prostaglandin levels increase.
(4)Estradiol levels increase.
(5)Oxytocin levels increase.
(6)Uterine muscles start to contract.
A)1,2,4,5,3,6
B)4,2,1,5,6,3
C)5,2,4,1,3,6
D)1,6,4,2,5,3
E)4,3,1,2,5,6
Q2) Sexual reproduction
A)allows more offspring to be produced per individual.
B)allows a parent to pass on 100% of their genes to offspring.
C)increases genetic variation.
D)results in the formation of a haploid zygote.
E)only occurs in vertebrates.
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Chapter 41: Immune Systems
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Q1) Specific immunity in the extracellular fluid is provide by mainly
A)IgG and IgM
B)IgM and IgD
C)IgA and IgE
D)IgD and IgA
E)IgE and IgG
Q2) The protection provided through transfer of antibodies from mother to fetus is an example of
A)active immunity.
B)passive immunity.
C)cell-mediated immunity.
D)clonal selection.
E)autoimmunity.
Q3) Strategies to fight HIV include
A)inhibition of the reverse transcriptase enzyme.
B)inhibition of virus assembly.
C)prevention of HIV entering healthy cells.
D)prevention of other infections.
E)a combination of all of the abovE.
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Page 43
Chapter 42: Animal Behavior
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Q1) In what type of mating system is marked sexual dimorphism unlikely?
A)monogamy
B)polygyny
C)polygamy
D)polyandry
E)polygamy and polyandry
Q2) According to kin selection and Hamilton's rule,a person should die to save the life of
A)one full brother.
B)two half brothers.
C)four grandparents.
D)one parent.
E)nine cousins.
Q3) The use of pheromones to attract a mate is an example of what type of communication?
A)visual
B)tactile
C)chemical
D)auditory
E)genetic
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Chapter 43: Ecology and the Physical Environment
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Q1) The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change reported in 2007 that atmospheric carbon dioxide levels will nearly double by the end of this century.If this happens,what will be the atmospheric concentration of carbon dioxide?
A)2.0 ppm
B)3.5 ppm
C)385 ppm
D)560 ppm
E)700 ppm
Q2) Which of the following is a characteristic of tundra?
A)temperate climate
B)dry climate
C)more than 100 cm of rain a year
D)long growing season
E)found at low latitudes
Q3) The sea heats and cools
A)more quickly than the land.
B)more slowly than the land.
C)at the same rate as the land.
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Chapter 44: Population Ecology
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Questions
Q1) If you were given the task of choosing a biological control agent for a reed from China that has become invasive in the southeastern U.S. ,what do you think would be the best choice? Consider both the effectiveness and the safety of the agent you be releasing.
A)A beetle that feeds upon both native and non-native reed species,and can consume massive quantities of the Chinese reed in a few weeks.
B)A nematode (microscopic worm-like organism),native to China,that only eats the invasive reed species,but can take up to two years to kill a plant.
C)A caterpillar,native to the U.S. ,that normally feeds upon a close relative of the invasive Chinese reed,but has been found in lab trials to prefer the Chinese reed.
D)A fungal pathogen from China that is only known to infect the Chinese reed and can kill a plant in a few months.
Q2) Two species that occupy identical ecological niches will not be able to co-exist for an extended period of time.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 45: Community Ecology
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Q1) A forest community consists of not only the trees and shrubs,but also the animals and microorganisms.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Based on what you know about various species richness hypotheses,a large,tropical continent would likely have __________ species richness.
A)intermmediate
B)low
C)uneven
D)variable
E)high
Q3) Community ecology is best defined as the study of
A)plant distributions in a given region.
B)mutual benefits between organisms at all scales in a region.
C)the relationship between abiotic and biotic factors.
D)how groups of species interact in the same place at the same time
E)global scale influences of major disturbances such as volcanos.
Q4) The time hypothesis suggests communities diversify with age.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 46: Ecosystem Ecology
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Q1) In subarctic saltmarshes,scientists have found that the addition of calcium has no effect on productivity,but additional iron does increase productivity.In this example,iron
A)is a precursor to calcium.
B)stimulates evapotranspiration.
C)biomagnifies in the marsh plants.
D)is a limiting factor.
E)blocks the effect of calcium.
Q2) Ecosystem ecology is primarily concerned with A)ecosystem stability.
B)species interactions in various types of ecosystems.
C)the synthesis of nutrients within ecosystems.
D)patterns of species diversity within ecosystems.
E)movement of energy and materials through ecosystems.
Q3) In food webs,chain lengths
A)are long and complex.
B)have at least five links.
C)tend to be short.
D)range between five and ten links.
E)are usually two links.
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Chapter 47: Biodiversity and Conservation Biology
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Q1) According to the diversity-stability hypothesis:
A)Genetic diversity is the most important part of ecosystem stability.
B)A loss of any species from an ecosystem leads to an approximately equal decline in stability.
C)The loss of a few species from an ecosystem does significantly affect ecosystem functioning.
D)Losing even a few species from an ecosystem causes a drastic decline in ecosystem stability.
E)Every species has an important role in ecosystem function,but we cannot predict the effect of species loss.
Q2) The extinction rate of mammal species has gone up as human populations have increased,while the extinction rate of birds has declined.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The biodiversity crisis refers to
A)an area in the tropics where extinction rates are high.
B)the global elevated loss of species over the last several hundred years.
C)recent extinctions due to human-induced climate change.
D)the difficulty in restoring disturbed habitats.
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