Biology for Science Majors Final Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Biology for Science Majors is an introductory course designed to provide a comprehensive foundation in biological principles for students pursuing science degrees. The course covers fundamental topics such as cell structure and function, genetics, evolution, ecology, and the diversity of life forms. Emphasis is placed on scientific methodology, experimental design, and the critical analysis of biological data. Through lectures, laboratory work, and hands-on activities, students gain practical experience and an understanding of how biological systems interact, adapt, and evolve, preparing them for advanced studies in biological and health-related sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Biological Science 2nd Canadian Edition by Scott; Sharp
Available Study Resources on Quizplus
55 Chapters
2275 Verified Questions
2275 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1346
Page 2
Chapter 1: Biology and the Tree of Life
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26832
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following best reflects a phylogenetic conclusion regarding chimpanzees and baboons?
A)They are grouped together because they both have opposable thumbs.
B)They are grouped together because they both feed their young breast milk.
C)They are grouped together because they have a common ancestor in recent history.
D)They are grouped together because they live in similar habitats.
Answer: C
Q2) Environments all over the world are changing as a result of global warming.Could this influence natural selection?
A)No.The environment is always changing.Global warming is nothing new.
B)Yes.Traits that help individuals produce more offspring in warmer environments will increase in frequency.
C)No.The only change will be that species from hot environments will expand their ranges.
D)Yes.Mutations occur more frequently in hot environments.
Answer: B
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
3
Chapter 2: Water and Carbon: the Chemical Basis of Life
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
51 Verified Questions
51 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26833
Sample Questions
Q1) Chemical evolution refers to which of the following?
A)Large molecules tended to break apart because of the intense sunlight and heat from volcanoes.
B)Water condensed to form the first oceans.
C)Small molecules reacted to form larger,more complex molecules.
D)Earth's crust solidified,even as massive bombardment from outer space continued.
Answer: C
Q2) You need to write down information about a molecule that gives the most accurate picture of the relative sizes of the atoms involved and their relationship in space.Which representation would work best?
A)molecular formula
B)structural formula
C)ball-and-stick model
D)space-filling model
Answer: D
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
4
Chapter 3: Protein Structure and Function
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
54 Verified Questions
54 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26834
Sample Questions
Q1) HIV is the virus that causes AIDS.In the mid-1990s,researchers discovered an enzyme in HIV called protease.Once the enzyme's structure was known,researchers began looking for drugs that would fit into the active site and block it.If this strategy for stopping HIV infections were successful,it would be an example of what phenomenon?
A)vaccination
B)poisoning
C)allosteric regulation
D)competitive inhibition
Answer: D
Q2) What type of interaction is directly responsible for the formation of secondary structure?
A)peptide bonds between adjacent amino acids
B)peptide bonds between nonadjacent amino acids
C)hydrogen bonds between sections of the polypeptide backbone
D)hydrogen bonds between side chains of amino acids
Answer: C
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 4: Nucleic Acids and the Rna World
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26835
Sample Questions
Q1) If DNA is heated to 95°C,the bonds between complementary strands break,resulting in two single strands of DNA.In this process,which bases will separate first because they have less hydrogen bonds between them?
A)adenine and cytosine
B)adenine and thymine
C)guanine and cytosine
D)guanine and thymine
Q2) Which factors contributed to the lack of credit often given to Rosalind Franklin in the discovery of the structure of DNA?
A)Wilkins showed her photographs to Watson and Crick without her knowledge or permission.
B)She died at an early age so her career was shortened.
C)She was a woman working in a field dominated by men when sexism was more common.
D)All of the above apply.
Q3) Is Nakano's quote consistent with the textbook's claim that RNA is a good candidate for the first life-form?
A)yes
B)no
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 6
Chapter 5: An Introduction to Carbohydrates
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26836
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following polysaccharides is made up of highly branched helices?
A)glycogen
B)chitin
C)cellulose
D)peptidoglycan
Q2) Which of the following enzymes catalyzes the hydrolysis of -glycosidic linkages in starch?
A)amylase
B)phosphorylase
C)glycolase
Q3) Which of the following carbohydrates contains a peptide bond?
A)Carbohydrates don't contain peptide bonds;only proteins do.
B)cellulose
C)chitin
D)peptidoglycan
E)glycogen
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 7
Chapter 6: Lipids, membranes, and the First Cells
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
54 Verified Questions
54 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26837
Sample Questions
Q1) Which characteristic would be expected in the plasma membranes of a plant that can survive winters in Northern Ontario,compared to a plant growing in a warmer region?
A)a higher percentage of saturated fatty acids
B)a higher percentage of unsaturated fatty acids
C)higher levels of cholesterol
D)additional glycerol molecules packed in between fatty acid tails
Q2) Which of the following best describes how gramicidin functions?
A)It acts by active transport.
B)It causes membranes to fuse with one another.
C)It forms a channel in the membrane.
D)It removes electrical charges from solutes.
Q3) Which of the following is not true of osmosis?
A)It is a special case of diffusion.
B)It is an energy-demanding or "active" process.
C)Water moves from areas of high water concentration to areas of low water concentration.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 7: Inside the Cell
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26838
Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most likely role of a cell that contains an extensive smooth ER?
A)It plays a role in storage.
B)It synthesizes large quantities of lipids.
C)It actively exports protein molecules.
D)It plays a role in immune function.
Q2) To what does the 9 + 2 arrangement of microtubules,typical of cilia and eukaryotic flagella,refer?
A)the arrangement of dynein arms with respect to each microtubule
B)the arrangement of microtubules within the axoneme
C)the length of the structures
D)the relationship between the basal body and the axoneme
Q3) As part of our immune system,neutrophil cells engulf micro-organisms or foreign particles.The process by which the neutrophil does this is known as A)exocytosis.
B)pinocytosis.
C)phagocytosis.
D)receptor-mediated endocytosis.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 9
Chapter 8: Cell-Cell Interactions
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26839
Sample Questions
Q1) Anorganic bone matrix (ABM)is a material commonly used in bone grafts.Scientists compared ABM with ABM-peptide.The peptide that was bound to ABM was 15 amino acids long,derived from the extracellular matrix molecule,collagen.The researchers found that anchorage-dependent cells were more likely to adhere to and grow on the ABM-peptide than on ABM alone.What conclusion might be drawn from this research?
A)Anorganic bone matrix is not an effective material for use in bone grafts.
B)Attaching the peptide to ABM enhances the likelihood of success of the bone graft.
C)The immune system is more likely to reject the ABM-peptide than the ABM.
D)The peptide would have no effect on the success of the bone graft.
Q2) Hormones are chemical substances produced in one organ that are released into the bloodstream and affect the function of a target organ.For the target organ to respond to a particular hormone,it must
A)have the same genetic makeup.
B)be from the same cell type as the organ that produced the hormone.
C)be experiencing a disruption in homeostasis.
D)have receptors that recognize and bind the hormone molecule.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
10
Chapter 9: Cellular Respiration and Fermentation
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26840
Sample Questions
Q1) The enzyme phosphofructokinase is the major regulatory enzyme of glycolysis.It catalyzes
A)the first of the 10 reactions of glycolysis.
B)the isomerization of glucose 6-phosphate to fructose 6-phosphate.
C)the phosphorylation of fructose 6-phosphate.
D)the substrate-level phosphorylation reaction whereby phosphoenolpyruvate is converted to pyruvate.
Q2) ATP production by ATP synthase,requiring a proton gradient across a membrane,occurs in which of the following?
A)substrate-level phosphorylation.
B)oxidative phosphorylation
C)photophosphorylation
D)Both A and B.
E)Both B and C
Q3) C H O (glucose)+ 6O 6 CO + 6H O Where is most of the water in this reaction produced?
A)glycolysis
B)Krebs cycle
C)fermentation
D)electron transport chain
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 11
Chapter 10: Photosynthesis
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26841
Sample Questions
Q1) The absorption spectrum of a plant shows what wavelengths of light the plant absorbs.The absorption spectrum depends on
A)the wavelengths of light that hit the plant.
B)wavelengths of light that are transmitted by the plant.
C)wavelengths of light to which the plant's pigments respond.
D)the thickness of the plant's leaves.
Q2) Which of the following statements about photosynthesis and cellular respiration is TRUE?
A)Photosynthesis is a catabolic process;cellular respiration is an anabolic process.
B)Photosynthesis occurs in plants and some prokaryotes;cellular respiration occurs in animals,but not plants.
C)Organelles are required to carry out photosynthesis and cellular respiration in eukaryotes.
D)Both photosynthesis and cellular respiration require CO as an input.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 11: The Cell Cycle
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26842
Sample Questions
Q1) The first gap in the cell cycle (G )corresponds to A)normal growth and functioning.
B)the phase in which DNA is being replicated.
C)the beginning of mitosis.
D)the phase between DNA replication and the M phase.
Q2) For cells to divide more rapidly,increased production would likely be required of each of the following proteins EXCEPT A)p53.
B)cyclins.
C)activated MPF.
D)PDGF.
Q3) Myosin is a motor protein involved in animal cell cytokinesis.It binds to ATP or ADP,causing the myosin to move with respect to actin.What is the effect of the interaction between myosin and actin?
A)Vesicles containing plasma membrane constituents are transported to the metaphase plate,where cytokinesis takes place.
B)Excess cytoplasm is removed.
C)The cleavage furrow deepens.
D)It triggers the reformation of the daughter nuclei.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 13
Chapter 12: Meiosis
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26843
Sample Questions
Q1) What happens when an individual has an odd number of chromosome sets (e.g.,triploidy)?
A)They produce offspring with an even number of chromosome sets (e.g.,tetraploid,hexaploid).
B)Their offspring are often sterile.
C)They go through three sets of meiosis (meiosis I,meiosis II,and meiosis III)
D)Their cells are unable to complete meiosis.
Q2) Chromosomes and their homologues align at the equator of the cell during A)prophase I.
B)metaphase I.
C)prophase II.
D)metaphase II.
Q3) At what stage of meiosis does DNA replication take place?
A)DNA replication does not take place in cells destined to undergo meiosis.
B)prophase I
C)between meiosis I and meiosis II
D)None.DNA replication occurs before meiosis I begins.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
14
Chapter 13: Mendel and the Gene
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26844
Sample Questions
Q1) Mendel crossed yellow-seeded and green-seeded pea plants and then allowed the offspring to self-pollinate to produce an F generation.The results were as follows: 6022 yellow and 2001 green (8023 total).The allele for green seeds has what relationship to the allele for yellow seeds?
A)dominant
B)incompletely dominant
C)recessive
D)semidominant
Q2) Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency (G6PD)is inherited as a recessive allele of an X-linked gene in humans.A woman whose father suffered from G6PD marries a normal man.(a)What proportion of their sons is expected to be G6PD? (b)If the husband was not normal but was G6PD deficient,would you change your answer in part (a)?
A)(a)100%;(b)no
B)(a)1/2;(b)yes
C)(a)2/3;(b)no
D)(a)1/2;(b)no
E)(a)zero;(b)no
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 15
Chapter 14: Dna and the Gene: Synthesis and Repair
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26845
Sample Questions
Q1) In the polymerization of DNA,a phosphodiester bond is formed between a phosphate group of the nucleotide being added and ________ of the last nucleotide in the polymer.
A)ATP
B)C
C)the 3 OH
D)a nitrogen from the nitrogen-containing base
Q2) Identify the lagging strand in Figure 14.2.
A)a
B)b
C)c
D)d
Q3) Which of the following are important in reducing the errors in DNA replication in E.coli organisms?
A)proofreading activity of the epsilon subunit of DNA polymerase III
B)mismatch repair
C)nucleotide excision repair
D)All of the above minimize errors in DNA replication in E.coli.
Q4) Refer to Figure 14.3.Which structure is responsible for stabilizing DNA in its single-stranded form?
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 16
Chapter 15: How Genes Work
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26846
Sample Questions
Q1) Homogentisic acid would accumulate under which of the following conditions?
A)a deficiency of p-hydroxyphenolypyruvate
B)defective enzyme 1
C)defective enzyme 2
D)a deficiency of 4-maleylacetoacetic acid
Q2) The proteome is all the proteins produced by an organism.The genome is the totality of all genes of an organism.If the proteome is much larger than the genome,which of the following statements would be accurate?
A)This finding lends support to the one gene-one enzyme hypothesis.
B)The number of monomeric subunits found in proteins is fewer than the number of monomeric subunits found in genes.
C)At least in some cases,a single gene must code for more than one protein.
D)Noncoding DNA is important in determining the proteome.
Q3) What feature makes organisms less vulnerable to small mutations in DNA replication that are not corrected?
A)alternative splicing
B)redundancy in the genetic code
C)differential gene expression
D)pleiotropy
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 17
Chapter 16: Transcription, RNA Processing, and Translation
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26847
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following occurs in prokaryotes,but not eukaryotes?
A)post-transcriptional splicing
B)concurrent transcription and translation
C)translation in the absence of a ribosome
D)gene regulation
Q2) Refer to Figure 16.5.The mutation resulting in sickle cell anemia is an example of a
A)point mutation.
B)frameshift mutation.
C)silent mutation.
D)deletion.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT one of the steps in initiation of translation?
A)binding of the large ribosomal subunit to the small ribosomal subunit
B)binding of tRNA carrying formyl methionine to the start codon and small ribosomal subunit
C)recognition and binding of mRNA by the small ribosomal subunit
D)formation of a polypeptide bond
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
18
Chapter 17: Control of Gene Expression in Bacteria
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26848
Sample Questions
Q1) The tyrosinase gene used by Cronin et al.contained the protein-coding sequence and the normal mouse regulatory sequences.These regulatory sequences provide positive control of tyrosinase transcription.If nothing else is done to this DNA and it is introduced into a mouse,tyrosinase will always be expressed.Because the goal was to regulate expression of tyrosinase,what portion of the lac operon do you think was added to this mouse gene?
A)the lacZ gene
B)the lacY gene
C)the lacI gene
D)the lac operator
E)CAP
Q2) A distinct part of a protein that often has a distinct function is a A)substrate.
B)domain.
C)primary structure.
D)footprint.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 18: Control of Gene Expression in Eukaryotes
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26849
Sample Questions
Q1) If cells of an individual contain the same set of genes,how do these cells become different from each other during development?
A)Different cell type-specific regulatory elements in DNA are created during development.
B)Different cell type-specific regulatory elements in DNA are selectively lost during development.
C)Differences in extracellular signals received by each cell lead to differences in the types of regulatory proteins present in each cell.
D)Differences develop in promoter sequences that lead to different signals being produced by each type of cell.
Q2) Which of the following is most critical for the association between histones and DNA?
A)Histones are small proteins.
B)Histones are highly conserved (i.e.,histones are very similar in every eukaryote).
C)Histones are synthesized in the cytoplasm.
D)There are at least five different histone proteins in every eukaryote.
E)Histones are positively charged.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 20
Chapter 19: Analyzing and Engineering Genes
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
41 Verified Questions
41 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26850
Sample Questions
Q1) For applications in gene therapy,what is the most favorable characteristic of retroviruses?
A)Retroviruses have an RNA genome.
B)Retroviruses possess reverse transcriptase.
C)DNA copies of retroviral genomes become integrated into the genome of the infected cell.
D)Retroviruses cause many serious diseases,including AIDS and cancer.
Q2) Which of the following is in the correct order for one cycle of PCR?
A)Denature DNA;add fresh enzyme;anneal primers;add dNTPs;extend primers.
B)Add fresh enzyme;denature DNA;anneal primers;add dNTPs;extend primers.
C)Anneal primers;denature DNA;extend primers.
D)Extend primers;anneal primers;denature DNA.
E)Denature DNA;anneal primers;extend primers.
Q3) The general term for the manipulation of organisms to create products or cure disease is
A)recombinant DNA technology.
B)biotechnology.
C)gene cloning.
D)plasmid-mediated transformation.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 21
Chapter 20: Genomics
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
41 Verified Questions
41 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26851
Sample
Questions
Q1) Like DNA microarrays,Northern blots analyze the levels of mRNA.However,Northern blots are almost always prepared with a probe tagged with one label,whereas DNA microarrays almost always use two groups of probes,each one tagged with a different fluorescent label.What advantage is conferred by using two labels for the microarray probes?
A)The two labels increase the sensitivity of the microarray.
B)The two labels allow the analysis of the expression of more genes.
C)The two labels allow simultaneous assay of levels of DNA and RNA.
D)The two labels allow comparison of gene expression between two samples.
E)Probing the array with two labels is equivalent to doing two experiments at once.
Q2) Which of the following questions is asked in functional genomics research?
A)What is the number of Drosophila genes?
B)How does the GC content of human DNA vary across the genome?
C)What is the pattern of gene expression during mouse development?
D)How many introns exist in the human CFTR gene?
E)How closely related are the visual pigment genes of mouse and human?
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 22
Chapter 21: Principles of Development
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26852
Sample Questions
Q1) Suppose the protein specified by bicoid were injected into Drosophila embryos,so that a high concentration was present everywhere in the embryo.What might be the result of such an experiment?
A)The embryos would grow larger than normal.
B)The embryos would show no development of posterior regions.
C)The embryos would show no development of anterior regions.
D)The embryos would halt their development.
Q2) Which of the following human cells contains the gene for alcohol dehydrogenase,a liver enzyme that processes alcohol?
A)sperm and egg cells
B)liver cells
C)heart cells
D)Only the cells in A and B contain the gene for this enzyme.
E)All of the cells in A,B,and C contain the gene for this enzyme.
Q3) When is a cell considered differentiated?
A)when a cell first becomes irreversibly committed to a particular fate
B)when a cell begins its pattern formation
C)when a cell manufactures proteins that are specific to a particular cell type
D)when a cell is part of recognizable tissues or organs
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 23
Chapter 22: An Introduction to Animal Development
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26853
Sample Questions
Q1) What is a major difference between the development of Drosophila or Xenopus and that of humans?
A)Drosophila and Xenopus do not undergo gastrulation;humans do.
B)Drosophila and Xenopus undergo metamorphosis;humans do not.
C)Drosophila and Xenopus do not show development of germ layers;humans do.
D)In Drosophila and Xenopus,the notochord remains;in humans,it disappears.
E)Drosophila and Xenopus do not undergo blastula formation;humans do.
Q2) When a somite matures,the fact that it will become a specific cell type is referred to as which of the following?
A)cell specification
B)cell determination
C)cell differentiation
D)cell gastrulation
Q3) During organogenesis,the first organ system to begin forming in animal embryos is
A)the digestive system.
B)the nervous system.
C)the endocrine system.
D)the circulatory system.
E)the excretory system.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 24
Chapter 23: An Introduction to Plant Development
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
37 Verified Questions
37 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26854
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following axes in the plant are analogous to the anterior-posterior axis in an animal?
A)lateral axis
B)adaxial-abaxial axis
C)proximal-distal axis
D)apical-basal axis
Q2) Many flowering plant species have elaborate mechanisms to prevent an individual's pollen from fertilizing its own egg cells.Why?
A)to prevent inbreeding
B)to prevent polyspermy
C)to prevent cross-species fertilization and the production of dysfunctional hybrid offspring
D)to prevent double fertilization and the formation of endosperm
Q3) Which of the following would be attributed to a lack of meristems?
A)MONOPTEROS would no longer be activated leading to underdeveloped hypocotyls.
B)The roots and shoots would only respond to certain environmental cues (i.e.a lack of water).
C)Further growth of the plant would not occur.
D) Cells would only differentiate into vascular and epidermal tissue.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 25
Chapter 24: Evolution by Natural Selection
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26855
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following scientists argued that variation among individuals allows evolution to occur?
A)Aristotle
B)Lamarck
C)Linnaeus
D)Wallace
Q2) Tourist companies start visiting Island X,where the new colony of medium ground finches (see previous question)feeds on the tough-fruited Tribulus cistoides.The tourist companies set up reliable feeding stations with a variety of bird seeds (different types and sizes),so that tourists can get a better look at the finches.Which of these events is now most likely to occur to finch beaks on Island X?
A)evolution of yet larger,deeper beaks over time,until all birds have relatively large,deep beaks
B)evolution of smaller,pointier beaks over time,until all birds have relatively small,pointy beaks
C)increased variation in beak size and shape over time
D)no change in beak size and shape over time
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 26
Chapter 25: Evolutionary Processes
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
50 Verified Questions
50 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26856
Sample Questions
Q1) The frequency of theB allele (for an autosomal gene)in a population that is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is 0.2 and the frequency of the B allele is 0.8.The phenotype of allele B is dominant to that of B .If females make up exactly half of the population,what is the frequency of the B allele in the female population alone?
A)0)1
B)0)2
C)0)4
D)0)8
Q2) A hurricane sweeps across the southern tip of Florida,killing salamanders randomly.Salamander colour is genetic,and,after the storm,scientists notice that the frequency of yellow-brown salamanders and green-brown salamanders has changed significantly.This is an example of a ________ and we would predict that 20 generations after the storm the population would show ________.
A)founder effect;a lot of genetic variation
B)founder effect;speciation
C)founder effect;little genetic variation
D)bottleneck effect;little genetic variation
E)bottleneck effect;many useful adaptations to surviving floods
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 27
Chapter 26: Speciation
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
41 Verified Questions
41 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26857
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following reproductive barriers would prevent a mating attempt?
A)behavioural isolation
B)mechanical isolation
C)hybrid sterility
D)gametic isolation
E)sexual selection
Q2) Which of the following does not tend to promote speciation?
A)the founder effect
B)gene flow
C)natural selection
D)polyploidy
Q3) The sister populations on opposite sides of the isthmus are true species under which species concept?
A)the morphospecies concept
B)the biological species concept
C)the phylogenetic species concept
D)both A and C
E)all of the above
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 28
Chapter 27: Phylogenies and the History of Life
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
43 Verified Questions
43 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26858
Sample Questions
Q1) In the phylogenetic trees above,numbers represent species and the same species are shown in both trees.Which two species are represented as sister species in Tree 2 but are not shown as sister species in Tree 1?
A)1 and 2
B)2 and 3
C)3 and 4
D)6 and 5
E)The two trees show all the same phylogenetic relationships.
Q2) The cladistic approach to estimating phylogenetic trees is most like the approach of which species concept?
A)morphospecies concept
B)biological species concept
C)phylogenetic species concept
Q3) The phenetic approach to estimating phylogenetic trees is most like the approach of which species concept?
A)morphospecies concept
B)biological species concept
C)phylogenetic species concept
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
29
Chapter 28: Bacteria and Archaea
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26859
Sample Questions
Q1) Bacteria participate in the nitrogen cycle through which mechanism?
A)nitrogen fixation
B)nitrification
C)denitrification
D)decomposition
E)all of the above
Q2) Which of the following groups is characterized by unusual flagella contained within a structure called the outer sheath?
A)Spirochaeles
B)Proteobacteria
C)Firmicutes
D)Chlamydiales
E)Euryarchaeota
Q3) What is the major goal of cellular respiration?
A)reduce an electron acceptor molecule
B)supply cell with fixed carbon
C)produce ATP
D)generate O
E)All of the above answers apply.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 30
Chapter 29: Protists
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26860
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following would be considered a carbon sink that could potentially reduce atmospheric carbon dioxide to help alleviate global warming?
A)calcium carbonate
B)petroleum
C)sedimentary rocks
D)all of the above
Q2) You isolate a previously undescribed protist species from the soil outside your residence.Which of the following technique(s)would provide useful data for describing,classifying,and naming this new species?
A)PCR
B)light microscopy
C)gene sequence comparison
D)electron microscopy
E)all of the above
Q3) Which of the following protists causes the human disease malaria?
A)Giardia
B)Plasmodium
C)Trichomonas
D)Leishmania
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 31
Chapter 30: Green Algae and Land Plants
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
54 Verified Questions
54 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26861
Sample Questions
Q1) The closest relatives of the familiar pine and spruce trees are
A)ferns,horsetails,lycophytes,and club mosses.
B)hornworts,liverworts,and mosses.
C)gnetophytes,cycads,and ginkgoes.
D)elms,maples,and aspens.
Q2) According to the fossil record,plants colonized terrestrial habitats
A)in conjunction with insects that pollinated them.
B)in conjunction with fungi that helped provide them with nutrients from the soil.
C)from marine habitats.
D)only about 150 million years ago.
Q3) In general,liverworts have a cuticle and pores.However,some species do not have pores.What would you predict concerning the cuticle of these species and why?
A)The cuticle would be the same as in those species with pores.
B)The cuticle would be thicker than in those species with pores.
C)The cuticle would be thinner than in those species with pores.
D)There is not enough information to make a prediction.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 32
Chapter 31: Fungi
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26862
Sample Questions
Q1) The fungus Saccharomyces cerevisiae is a model eukaryotic cell for genetic studies.Which of the following is an important attribute that makes this organism ideal for this purpose?
A)It is multicellular.
B)It is resistant to culturing.
C)It has an interesting and highly complex genome and morphology.
D)It divides rapidly under good conditions.
E)All of the above apply.
Q2) Fungi are most closely related to which of these groups?
A)plants
B)green algae
C)animals
D)red algae
Q3) Why is it reasonable to hypothesize that lichens might predict air quality?
A)because of their absorptive life style (receive mineral nutrition from dust and substrate)
B)because of their flat morphology (high ratio of surface area to volume)
C)both of the above
D)neither of the above
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 33
Chapter 32: An Introduction to Animals
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26863
Sample Questions
Q1) Dll is a gene known to direct limb development in the fruit fly.Researchers studying this gene have found that it is also expressed in developing appendages in animals from many other phyla as well,supporting the hypothesis that all animal appendages may be homologous.However,suppose researchers looking at Dll activity had instead found the results shown in Figure 32.4. What would these results suggest?
A)Dll is not actually involved in appendage development.
B)Appendages evolved separately in protostomes and deuterostomes.
C)Appendages coevolved with segmentation.
D)All animal appendages are homologous.
Q2) Which one of the following objects most closely resembles the pattern of the tube-within-a-tube body plan?
A)a bowling ball (with finger holes drilled)
B)a pipe with a straw inside
C)a cup with a straw in it
D)a soda can with the tab removed
Q3) If humans were characterized as undergoing metamorphosis,infant humans would be described as A)nymphs.
B)larvae.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 34
Chapter 33: Protostome Animals
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26864
Sample Questions
Q1) Which mollusc group can be described as having several calcium carbonate plates along their dorsal side?
A)bivalves
B)gastropods
C)chitons
D)cephalopods
Q2) Which of the following attributes is not true for both arthropod exoskeletons and mollusc shells?
A)They completely replace the hydrostatic skeleton.
B)They provide protection from predators.
C)They help retain moisture in terrestrial habitats.
D)None of the above answers apply.
Q3) What is not true of all arthropods?
A)They metamorphose during development.
B)They have jointed limbs.
C)They grow by molting.
D)They have segmented bodies.
E)They have an exoskeleton or cuticle.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
35
Chapter 34: Deuterostome Animals
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
43 Verified Questions
43 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26865
Sample Questions
Q1) Why do adult urochordates (tunicates)lack notochords,even though larval urochordates have them?
A)Larvae use notochords to aid in swimming;adults are sessile and,thus,no longer need notochords.
B)Larvae use notochords to stiffen their bodies;in adults,the notochord is replaced by a column of bone.
C)Larvae use notochords to induce tissue differentiation;in adults,tissue is already differentiated.
D)Larvae use notochords to organize their nervous systems;adults' nervous systems are fully developed and do not change.
Q2) How did the development of the jaw contribute to evolutionary diversification of early vertebrate lineages?
A)It allowed for more modes of communication.
B)It allowed vertebrates to grow a bony skull.
C)It increased their mobility.
D)It allowed vertebrates to feed on a wider variety of food sources.
E)It provided for an appreciation of a wider variety of foods.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 36
Chapter 35: Viruses
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26866
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements applies to the lysogenic cycle?
A)Viral proteins are used to replicate the viral genome.
B)Viral particles are produced continuously.
C)The viral genome integrates into the host cell's genome.
D)When the cell divides,the daughter cells are no longer infected.
Q2) Which of the following is the most important reason that developing treatments and vaccines,as well as staging an effective immune response for HIV infections,has been so difficult compared with other viruses?
A)The virus evades the immune system and drugs by hiding inside cells of the immune system,such as helper T cells.
B)The virus has few,if any,replication-correcting enzymes,and consequently mutates at a high rate.
C)The virus has no recognizable antigens and,thus,cannot be identified easily by the host's immune system.
D)Researchers probably have not yet identified the actual cause of AIDS and,thus,cannot target their drug development accordingly.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 36: Plant Form and Function
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26867
Sample Questions
Q1) The main source of water necessary for photosynthesis to occur in the leaf mesophyll is
A)soil via the xylem.
B)soil via the phloem.
C)the atmosphere through the cuticle and stomata.
D)all of the above.
Q2) Which of the following structure-function pairs is correct?
A)chloroplasts-give shape and support to the cell
B)plasmodesmata-store pigments and fluids
C)cell walls-help support plants
D)vacuoles-link one cell to another
E)pigments-digest waste products
Q3) Which of these is not an example of a parenchyma cell?
A)stem cells that form a callus in the making of cuttings
B)cells that can form clones in tissue culture of plants
C)support cells near the outside of nonwoody stems
D)edible cells in fruits and vegetables
E)tissue in leaves that photosynthesizes
Q4) Explain why it is possible for big old hollow trees to live and grow for many years,still producing green leaves.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 38
Chapter 37: Water and Sugar Transport in Plants
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26868
Sample Questions
Q1) Irrigation reduces soil quality and rains usually don't.Why?
A)Rains deliver less water to soil than irrigation does.
B)Water used for irrigation contains fertilizer and pesticides that affect soil quality.
C)Rainwater contains less inorganic material.
D)The fast water flow during irrigation removes organic material from soil.
E)The fast water flow during rains is able to remove toxic materials from topsoil.
Q2) Which of the following would not be expected to contribute to high rates of transpiration?
A)high atmospheric CO concentration
B)bright sunlight
C)warm air temperature
D)brisk wind
E)high soil moisture
Q3) How does a flaccid cell differ from a turgid cell?
A)Flaccid cell has higher pressure potential.
B)Flaccid cell has lower pressure potential.
C)Flaccid cell has higher solute potential.
D)Flaccid cell has lower solute potential.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 38: Plant Nutrition
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
37 Verified Questions
37 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26869
Sample Questions
Q1) Researchers are interested in improving crop plants to enable them to form a symbiotic relationship with nitrogen-fixing bacteria.What genes would you need to transfer to a plant that does not associate with rhizobia to enable it to do so?
A)genes responsible for the synthesis of flavonoids and receptor for Nod factors
B)genes responsible for the synthesis of Nod factors and receptor for flavonoids
C)receptor for Nod factors and leghemoglobin gene
D)genes responsible for the synthesis of Nod factors and receptor for flavonoids and leghemoglobin gene
E)None of the above is sufficient,since many more genes need to be transferred.
Q2) What is the charge on the inside of a plant cell plasma membrane?
A)positive
B)negative
C)neutral
Q3) What type of soil contains the highest amount of oxygen?
A)clay
B)sand
C)gravel
D)silt
Q4) Give two reasons that relatively few plants thrive in bogs.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 40
Chapter 39: Plant Sensory Systems, signals, and Responses
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
65 Verified Questions
65 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26870
Sample Questions
Q1) Upon exposure to blue light,plants not only begin to grow toward the light,but move their chloroplasts to the sunny side of each cell.Why would it be advantageous to move chloroplasts within cells?
A)to maximize light absorption by the chloroplasts for photosynthesis
B)to add weight to the sunny side of the plant so the plant will bend
C)to maximize heat absorption by the chloroplasts for cellular respiration
D)to reduce stomatal opening on the sunny side of the plants
E)all of the above
Q2) A certain bacterium infects a plant's upper leaves.A few days later,bacteria of the same species attempt to infect the same plant's roots but are unsuccessful.What process is responsible for the plant's ability to prevent this infection?
A)antivirulence response
B)pathogenesis resistance
C)systemic acquired resistance
D)sequential immunity
E)none of the above
Q3) Plant C is a long-day plant.
A)true
B)false
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 41
Chapter 40: Plant Reproduction
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
41 Verified Questions
41 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26871
Sample Questions
Q1) Endosperm is a major part of monocot seeds.In most dicots,
A)the same thing is true;there is a substantial amount of endosperm.
B)endosperm never even starts to form after double fertilization.
C)endosperm nutrients are repackaged into the cotyledons.
D)endosperm replaces cotyledons in the seed.
Q2) Most plants are adept at asexual reproduction.What is the probable explanation for the energy spent for sexual reproduction?
A)Photosynthesis produces so much sugar and oxygen,they need to be used.
B)Sexual reproduction ensures that the same genes will be passed on to offspring.
C)Sexual reproduction mixes up genes,contributing to variation in a species.
D)Sexual reproduction is a sign of good health of the organism.
Q3) It is estimated that animal- or insect-pollinated plants produce 1000 pollen grains for each ovule;wind-pollinated plants produce 1,000,000 pollen grains for each ovule.What does that indicate about pollination systems?
A)Wind-pollinated plants rarely produce seeds.
B)Wind pollination is more efficient than animal-assisted pollination.
C)Wind pollination is less efficient than animal-assisted pollination.
D)Wind pollination is costlier to the plant than animal-assisted pollination.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 42
Chapter 41: Animal Form and Function
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26872
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a function of an effector in the homeostatic regulation of temperature in mammals?
A)constriction of skin blood vessels to decrease heat loss
B)shivering to generate heat in muscles
C)comparing sensory input to the set point
D)stimulating sweat glands to increase evaporation
E)both A and D
Q2) Epithelial tissues have polarity,with an apical side that faces the environment and a basolateral side that faces the interior of the animal.Because of the harsh environmental exposure on the apical side,epithelial cells have a short life span of 2-6 days.Which of the following is the most likely reason that the tissue as a whole does not wear away,despite the short life spans of the cells?
A)The epithelial tissue is unusually thick.
B)The degraded tissue is recycled and restored to its original site.
C)The tissue has cells that actively undergo mitosis and cytokinesis to replace the lost cells.
D)New cells are transported in the blood to the site where old cells have worn away.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 43
Chapter 42: Water and Electrolyte Balance in Animals
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
41 Verified Questions
41 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26873
Sample Questions
Q1) Terrestrial organisms lose water through evaporation.Why are desert locusts and flour beetles good organisms to use in studying mechanisms to regulate water loss?
A)They have a relatively large surface area/volume relationship.
B)They live in environments where little to no water is available.
C)They are unable to ingest adequate amounts of sodium and chloride.
D)They have stoma that regulate water loss.
Q2) Which of the following is an example of osmoregulation?
A)two solutions that are isotonic
B)the contractile vacuole of a Paramecium
C)type 2 diabetes mellitus
D)all of the above
Q3) The products of filtration in the renal corpuscle enter the renal tubule through which of the following structures?
A)the proximal convoluted tubule
B)the loop of Henle
C)the collecting duct
D)Bowman's capsule
Q4) Where does filtration take place in the figure above?
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 44
Chapter 43: Animal Nutrition
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
43 Verified Questions
43 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26874
Sample Questions
Q1) From the information contained on the label above,you can infer that apple juice is a good source of which of the following?
A)vitamin A
B)vitamin C
C)calcium
D)sodium
Q2) Following a meal high in starch,digestive processes break the starch into ________,which when absorbed into circulation cause a release of the hormone
A)amino acids;glucagon
B)free fatty acids;cholecystokinin
C)glucose;glucagon
D)glucose;insulin
Q3) Fangs,like those found in wolves,are designed to A)grind and chew.
B)tear flesh.
C)swallow the prey whole.
D)filter feed.
Q4) Refer to Figure 43.1.Which of the mouthparts shown in the figure above are specialized for crushing and grinding?
45
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 44: Gas Exchange and Circulation
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
46 Verified Questions
46 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26875
Sample Questions
Q1) On the ECG above,which waveform represents ventricular relaxation?
A)1
B)2
C)3
Q2) In what way does hemoglobin act as a buffer against changes in blood pH?
A)Subsequent binding of oxygen is drastically reduced after the first one is bound.
B)Hemoglobin binds some of the excess protons released by carbonic acid.
C)Hemoglobin produces protons or hydroxide ions as needed to alter the blood pH.
D)Hemoglobin removes excess protons from the red blood cells so that they can be excreted through the kidneys.
E)All of the above answers apply.
Q3) Which of the following best describes the process of ventilation?
A)the movement of oxygen gas through the blood of the circulatory system
B)the movement of carbon dioxide gas through the blood of the circulatory system
C)the movement of air through lungs or gills
D)the diffusion of gases into and out of the circulatory system
E)the diffusion of gases into and out of tissues where cellular respiration occurs
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 45: Electrical Signals in Animals
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26876
Sample Questions
Q1) Which nervous pathway does sensory information travel through to elicit a response in the effector cells?
A)CNS afferent division CNS interneuron PNS efferent division effector
B)PNS efferent division CNS interneuron PNS afferent division effector
C)CNS efferent division CNS interneuron PNS afferent division effector
D)PNS afferent division CNS interneuron PNS efferent division effector
Q2) Functional studies of the human brain have involved
A)lesion studies of individuals with damage to particular brain regions.
B)direct electrical stimulation of regions of cerebral cortex.
C)recording from single neurons during memory tasks.
D)both A and B.
E)all of the above.
Q3) If you experimentally increase the concentration of K inside a cell,while maintaining other ion concentrations as they were,what would happen to the cell's membrane potential?
A)The membrane potential would become more negative.
B)The membrane potential would become less negative.
C)The membrane potential would remain the same.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 46: Animal Sensory Systems and Movement
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
43 Verified Questions
43 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26877
Sample Questions
Q1) Which sequence of events below best describes how sensory receptors within the lateral line of many fish provide information about stimulus intensity to the brain?
A)Depolarization leads to a small change in membrane potential,inducing a high frequency of action potentials.
B)Hyperpolarization leads to a small change in membrane potential,inducing a high frequency of action potentials.
C)Depolarization leads to a large change in membrane potential,inducing a high frequency of action potentials.
D)Hyperpolarization leads to a large change in membrane potential,inducing a low frequency of action potentials.
Q2) Corneal surgery is now routinely performed to improve vision.This surgery
A)improves the circulation of nutrients to the eye.
B)improves the focusing of light onto the retina.
C)increases the amount of light entering the eye.
D)increases the sensitivity of the photoreceptors.
E)answers B and C both apply.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 47: Chemical Signals in Animals
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26878
Sample Questions
Q1) You have three strains of mice: A,B,and C.You experimentally manipulate each strain and find that all three show increased secretion of molecule X.Now you perform a parabiosis experiment with the three combinations of these mice: AB,AC,and BC.You perform the same experimental manipulation as above on one mouse of each pair without directly affecting the other mouse and look for effects on the other mouse.You find no detectable effect on the unmanipulated partner in any of the combinations.What is the logical conclusion based on these results?
A)The effect on molecule X is not mediated by hormones.
B)The effect on molecule X is not mediated by nerves.
C)The effect on molecule X was just an artifact of the first experiment.
D)The effect on molecule X is controlled by higher integrative centers of the brain.
Q2) In the cAMP pathway,a signalling molecule binds to and activates the cell surface receptor but the adenylyl cyclase remains inactivated.What is the most likely reason for this?
A)GDP was not replaced by GTP on the G protein.
B)Phosphodiesterase did not convert cAMP to AMP.
C)Protein kinase A was not activated.
D)The cell surface receptor did not undergo a conformational change.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 49
Chapter 48: Animal Reproduction
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26879
Sample Questions
Q1) Which embryonic tissue is responsible for forming the membrane that can be found completely surrounding the embryo while in utero?
A)ectoderm
B)mesoderm
C)endoderm
D)epiderm
Q2) Following spermatogenesis,sperm are stored in the
A)prostate gland.
B)seminal vesicles.
C)epididymis.
D)van deferens.
Q3) Which of the following hormones would you use if you want to induce ovulation in a few days?
A)estradiol (estrogen)
B)progesterone
C)luteinizing hormones (LH)
D)human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
Q4) All vertebrates rely exclusively on sexual reproduction.
A)true
B)false
Page 50
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 49: The Immune System in Animals
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26880
Sample Questions
Q1) What major advantage is conveyed by having a system of acquired immunity?
A)It enables a rapid defense against an antigen that has been previously encountered.
B)It enables an animal to counter most pathogens almost instantly.
C)It allows for extremely precise specificity for defense against antigens.
D)All of the above answers are correct.
E)Answers A and C are both correct.
Q2) Home blood typing kits reveal an individual's blood type by interpreting how blood reacts when exposed to antibodies.Which of the following is studied to interpret the results using these types of kits?
A)complementation
B)agglutination
C)hypersensitivity
D)autoimmunity
Q3) Which of the following statements about epitopes is false?
A)B-cell receptors bind to epitopes.
B)T-cell receptors bind to epitopes.
C)There can be 10 or more different epitopes on each antigen.
D)There is a one-to-one correspondence between antigen and epitope.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 50: An Introduction to Ecology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
41 Verified Questions
41 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26881
Sample Questions
Q1) Based on the figure above,and knowing what you know about cattle,what is the most logical conclusion?
A)Cattle distribution is primarily affected by temperature.
B)Tsetse flies somehow negatively affect cattle.
C)Cattle distribution is primarily affected by grass distribution.
D)Cattle somehow affect the reproduction of the tsetse fly.
Q2) Based on the data in Figure 50.2,which of the following statements is false?
A)Area 1 has more average precipitation than area 2.
B)Area 1 would be considered a desert because of its high average temperature.
C)Area 2 would be considered a desert because of its low average precipitation.
D)Area 2 has a large annual temperature variation.
Q3) Wetlands are standing bodies of freshwater,just like lakes and ponds.However,wetlands are different from lakes and ponds because
A)wetlands have shallow water.
B)wetlands have emergent vegetation.
C)wetlands have oxygen-poor water.
D)answers A and B both apply.
E)answers B and C both apply.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 52
Chapter 51: Behavioural Ecology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26882
Sample Questions
Q1) In Figure 51.1,in which quadrant would the egg-rolling behavior of a goose be plotted?
A)quadrant A
B)quadrant B
C)quadrant C
D)quadrant D
Q2) How would self-sacrifice of male redback spiders be an adaptive behaviour?
A)Males only use self-sacrificing behaviour once they have mated with several females and have exhausted their sperm supplies.
B)The chance of a male meeting more than one female is quite low;self-sacrifice maximizes mating time with and sperm transfer to any female the male finds.
C)Males are able to mate with one female,then mate with another female nearby,before being devoured by the first female.
D)When males meet a female and self-sacrifice,it activates enzymes that make his sperm more fit and able to fertilize more eggs.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 52: Population Ecology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
49 Verified Questions
49 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26883
Sample Questions
Q1) The definition of a generation is
A)20 years.
B)the average time between a mother's first offspring and her daughter's first offspring.
C)the average time between a father's first offspring and his son's first offspring.
D)the average time between parents' first offspring and their child's first offspring.
Q2) Which of these terms defines how the organism allocates resources to growth,reproduction,and activities or structures related to survival?
A)resource allocation
B)life history
C)energy budget
D)demography
Q3) Which of the two graphs in the figure above shows a population of organisms that has a strong population cycle?
A)(a)
B)(b)
C)both show identical cycles
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 54
Chapter 53: Community Ecology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26884
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not an example of a mutualism?
A)fungi residing in plant roots,such as endomycorrhizae
B)bacteria fixing nitrogen in plants
C)rancher ants that protect aphids in exchange for sugar-rich honeydew
D)birds eating insects jumping out of the path of army ants
Q2) According to the figure above,which species is more successful in competing for seeds?
A)species 1
B)species 2
C)These species do not compete for seeds.
D)This figure does not illustrate which species is more successful.
Q3) Which are the only two interaction types to depend on density and effective defense to determine the short-term impact?
A)competition and consumption
B)consumption and parasitism
C)parasitism and mutualism
D)mutualism and commensalism
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 54: Ecosystems
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
41 Verified Questions
41 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26885
Sample Questions
Q1) At the Hubbard Brook Experimental Forest in New Hampshire,how did large amounts of energy leave the decomposer food web?
A)Energy was lost through incomplete decomposition.
B)Detritus was washed away into streams during heavy rain.
C)Detritus was sublimated by increased solar radiation.
D)Large numbers of decomposers emigrated from the area.
Q2) Which habitat type in the figure above covers the largest area on Earth?
A)tropical wet forest
B)open ocean
C)algal beds and reefs
D)wetlands
Q3) Based on the experiment in the figure above,all of the following are plausible reasons for the result except that
A)nutrients evaporate now that vegetation is absent.
B)nutrients dissolve in the water running through the watershed.
C)nutrients are attached to small particles of sand or clay that leave the watershed.
D)plant roots that held soil particles in place are no longer there.
Q4) How are the components in the figure above linked by the flow of energy?
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 56
Chapter 55: Biodiversity and Conservation Biology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26886
Sample Questions
Q1) Based on the species-area plot in the figure above,if habitable area on an island were reduced from 10,000 km² to 1,000 km²,roughly what percentage of the species would disappear?
A)0)3%
B)3%
C)30%
D)60%
Q2) According to the figure above,what is the least likely explanation for the data after 1985?
A)emigration
B)immigration
C)introduction of new individuals to the population
D)increased resources in the area
Q3) In looking at the species-area plot in the figure above,what can be concluded?
A)Number of bird species increases linearly with island area.
B)Number of bird species is different on various islands.
C)Diversity is independent from island area.
D)Number of bird species increases exponentially with island area.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.