Biology for Non-Majors
Textbook Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Biology for Non-Majors is an introductory course designed for students from diverse academic backgrounds who are not specializing in biological sciences. The course covers fundamental concepts of biology, including cell structure and function, genetics, evolution, ecology, and the interdependence of living organisms and their environments. Emphasis is placed on the relevance of biological principles to everyday life, public health, and contemporary issues such as biotechnology and environmental conservation. This course aims to foster scientific literacy and critical thinking, providing students with a solid foundation to make informed decisions related to biological topics in their personal and professional lives.
Recommended Textbook
Essentials of Biology 3rd Edition by Sylvia Mader
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Chapter 1: A View of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Kevin is studying predator-prey interactions. One day he notices a spider eating a cricket caught in its web. Later that day, a bird eats the spider. How many populations are included in his study?
A) 0
B) 1
C) 2
D) 3
E) 4
Answer: D
Q2) Linda is studying the interaction between porcupines, pinion pine trees, and pine bark beetles. Over the course of her study in northern Texas, she observes the behaviors of 25 porcupines, records the location of 151 pinion pines, and traps 332 beetles. Her study encompasses _________ population(s) and ___________ organisms.
A) 1; 508
B) 3; 3
C) 508; 508
D) 3; 508
E) 508; 3
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: The Chemical Basis of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) The pH scale is a mathematical indicator of ________.
A) the concentration of H<sup>+</sup> present in a solution
B) the concentration of OH<sup>-</sup> present in a solution
C) the total amount of all ions in a solution
D) the ability of a solution to buffer
E) the ability to dissolve in water
Answer: A
Q2) Radioactive isotopes are useful in biological studies because
A) an organism will take in a molecule with the isotope and use it normally but the radioactive decay can be detected.
B) an organism will take in a molecule with the isotope but will only use it in a few specific reactions not the normal ones.
C) an organism will take in the molecule with the isotope and then remove the isotope and send it through the excretory system while replacing the isotope with a normal atom.
D) they are easily visible and normal atoms are not.
E) they are easy and inexpensive to use in studies.
Answer: A
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4
Chapter 3: The Organic Molecules of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which formula is a hydrocarbon?
A) COÂ<sub>2</sub>
B) CH<sub>4</sub>
C) NaCl
D) CaCl<sub>2</sub>
E) H<sub>2</sub>O
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following is an organic molecule?
A) CO<sub>2</sub>
B) H<sub>2</sub>CO<sub>3</sub>
C) Na<sub>2</sub>CO<sub>3</sub>
D) MnCO<sub>3</sub>
E) CaCO<sub>3</sub>
Answer: B
Q3) When starch is digested, an -OH group and an -H group from a water molecule is used in hydrolysis to split the monosaccharide subunits.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Inside the Cell
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Sample Questions
Q1) The main structural component of a plant cell wall is A) cytoskeleton.
B) cellulose.
C) extracellular matrix.
D) plasmodesmata.
E) middle lamella.
Q2) Mitochondria are found in
A) plant cells.
B) animal cells only.
C) both plant cells and animal cells.
D) neither plant or animal cells.
E) animal cells and bacterial cells only.
Q3) In which way are vesicles different from vacuoles?
A) They are not made from membranes.
B) They are smaller.
C) They can be specialized.
D) They are most often involved in storage.
E) They are primarily found in plant cells.
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6
Chapter 5: The Dynamic Cell
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following terms best describes entropy?
A) order
B) disorder
C) potential energy
D) kinetic energy
E) energy conversions
Q2) Metabolic pathways are known for all of the following except
A) the use of energy in small amounts.
B) linking between pathways.
C) controlled formation of products.
D) feedback inhibition.
E) enzymes to help raise the energy of activation.
Q3) Which is an example of potential rather than kinetic energy?
A) an apple made up of energy-rich macromolecules
B) a firefly using light flashes to attract a mate
C) a skier at the bottom of a hill
D) a pile of leaves that have been burnt
E) a candle giving off light
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Chapter 6: Energy for Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) The reaction center of each photosystem
A) splits water to release electrons.
B) funnels electrons to a central chlorophyll a molecule.
C) produces NADPH.
D) gives off oxygen when stimulated by light.
E) combine hydrogen ions with an electron to form water.
Q2) The enzyme-rich solution found within the chloroplast is called the ________.
A) granum
B) chlorophyll
C) cytoplasm
D) stroma
Q3) ATP and NADPH are both used during the Calvin cycle. What is the function of each?
A) ATP supplies energy and NADPH supplies electrons for reducing power.
B) ATP supplies energy and NADPH fixes CO<sub>2</sub> so it can enter the cycle.
C) Both ATP and NADPH supply energy to the Calvin cycle.
D) NADPH supplies energy and ATP supplies electrons for reducing power.
E) ATP and NADPH are joined into the starter molecule, RuBP, to form glucose.
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Chapter 7: Energy for Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) A family took their newborn to the doctor. They were worried something was wrong because she seemed to be in constant pain. The baby had large amounts of lactic acid accumulating in his muscles cells. Doctors figured out that the child had a rare disease in which mitochondria are missing from skeletal muscle cells. Which of the following statements explains what they found?
A) The cells had been going through fermentation to produce energy.
B) The muscles required small amounts of sugar to function.
C) The muscles require extremely high levels of oxygen to function.
D) The muscle cells can not split glucose into pyruvic acid.
E) The cells had died as a result of no mitochondria.
Q2) During hibernation the rate of cellular respiration in a mammal is typically less than half the rate measured when the mammal is not hibernating. This slowed cellular respiration is probably accompanied by which of the following.
A) unchanged pulse rate and reduced body temperature
B) reduced pulse rate and reduced body temperature
C) reduced pulse rate and increased body temperature
D) unchanged pulse rate and increased body temperature
E) unchanged pulse rate and unchanged body temperature
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Cellular Reproduction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is correct regarding the events of the cell cycle?
A) DNA is duplicated during the G<sub>1</sub> and G<sub>2</sub> phases.
B) DNA replicates during cytokinesis.
C) The M phase is usually the longest phase.
D) Interphase consists of G<sub>1</sub>, S, and G<sub>2.</sub>
E) The cell stops growing in G<sub>2</sub> phase.
Q2) If cells in the process of dividing are subjected to colchicines, a drug that interferes with the functioning of the spindle apparatus, at which stage will mitosis be arrested?
A) telophase
B) anaphase
C) metaphase
D) interphase
E) prophase
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Chapter 9: Sexual Reproduction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Following meiosis I, the daughter cells are ______; following meiosis II, the daughter cells are ______; and following mitosis, the daughter cells are _______.
A) diploid; haploid; diploid
B) diploid; diploid; haploid
C) haploid; haploid; diploid
D) haploid; haploid; haploid
E) diploid; diploid; diploid
Q2) Which of the following statements is correct?
A) Meiosis involves 2 divisions and produces 4 non-identical daughter nuclei.
B) Meiosis involves 1 division and produces 2 non-identical daughter nuclei.
C) Mitosis involves 1 division and produces 2 non-identical daughter nuclei.
D) Mitosis involves 2 divisions and produces 4 identical daughter nuclei.
E) Meiosis involves 2 divisions and produces 4 identical daughter nuclei.
Q3) Which of the following human syndromes is a monosomy?
A) Turner syndrome
B) Klinefelter syndrome
C) Down syndrome
D) Swyer syndrome
E) Barr body syndrome
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Patterns of Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) The allele for white eyes is located at loci 12 while the allele for hairy body is located at loci 16 on one chromosome. The allele for red eyes is located at loci 15 while the allele for normal body is located at loci 17 on a second chromosome. Which allele combination has the greater map distance?
A) white eyes and hairy body
B) white eyes and normal body
C) red eyes and normal body
D) red eyes and hairy body
E) white eyes and red eyes
Q2) Morgan breeds and sells snakes. He knows that he can make the most money by breeding and selling albino snakes. Albinism is a recessive trait. His female albino corn snake just produced 6 offspring. Two displayed normal coloration and 4 were albino. What is the chance that another offspring produced by the same parents will be albino?
A) 0%
B) 25%
C) 50%
D) 75%
E) 100%
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Chapter 11: DNA Biology and Technology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is most likely to cause no difference in phenotype between two individuals?
A) variation of order of bases within a gene
B) a transposon inserted into a gene
C) possessing an extra copy of a gene
D) a frameshift mutation within a gene
E) variation of order of bases within an intergenic sequence
Q2) The stages of translation are
A) transcription, mRNA processing, and termination.
B) DNA replication, transcription, and termination.
C) initiation, transcription, elongation cycle, and termination.
D) initiation, elongation cycle, and termination.
E) initiation, transcription, mRNA processing, and termination.
Q3) If RNA polymerase malfunctions,
A) one of the subunits of rRNA will not be transcribed from DNA.
B) amino acids will not be joined to their tRNA.
C) mRNA cannot bind to rRNA.
D) an mRNA will not be formed.
E) mRNA cannot copy itself.
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Gene Regulation and Cancer
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Sample Questions
Q1) Inheritance of mutant forms of some genes may lead to a predisposition to develop cancer. Which of the genes listed below has not been linked to hereditary forms of cancer?
A) BRCA-1
B) RB
C) RET
D) ras
E) DScam
Q2) If the maternal X chromosome is inactive and seen as Barr body in one cell, then it is the maternal X chromosome that is inactive and seen as a Barr body in every cell of that woman's body.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Cancer cells have abnormal chromosomes because they express telomerase when they should not.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Cancer will occur if one copy of a mutant tumor suppressor gene is inherited. A)True
B)False
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Genetic Counseling
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Sample Questions
Q1) A man carrying a translocation may appear normal, but runs the risk of having children with a syndrome because his children
A) may inherit both abnormal chromosomes from the father and would thus carry a deletion.
B) may inherit one abnormal chromosome with one normal one from the father, and would carry a deletion or duplication.
C) will inherit one abnormal chromosome from both the mother and father.
D) may inherit both normal chromosomes from the father and an abnormal one from the mother.
E) carry the same translocation as the father.
Q2) Testing for a protein may help reveal whether or not an individual has a genetic disorder.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A translocation chromosomal mutation is the exchange of segments between two homologous chromosomes.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Darwin and Evolution
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Q1) Which one of the following statements is true?
A) Organisms always evolve the characteristics they need to survive.
B) Some individuals within the population must die for natural selection to occur.
C) Darwin used molecular biology as evidence of evolution.
D) Natural selection can only work on variation that already exists.
E) Convergent evolution produces homologous structures.
Q2) What characteristics of Archaeopteryx tell us that it is a link to reptiles and birds?
A) feathers
B) tail with vertebrae
C) teeth
D) teeth and a tail with vertebrae
E) feathers and teeth
Q3) The wing of a penguin and the wing of an eagle are
A) homologous structures.
B) analogous structure.
C) identical structures.
D) vestigial structures.
E) not comparable in any way.
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16
Chapter 15: Evolution on a Small Scale
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is most likely an example of a founder effect event?
A) A random small group of a bird population migrates to an island and then returns to breed.
B) A random large group of a bird population migrates to an island and then returns to breed.
C) A selected small group of a bird population migrates to an island and then returns to breed.
D) A random small group of a bird population migrates to an island and does not return to breed.
E) A random large group of a bird population migrates to an island and does not return to breed.
Q2) Why does the malaria disease persist in the human population?
A) Too few humans have died of malaria to end the disease.
B) Multiple phenotypes survive in a balanced polymorphism.
C) Malaria is a recessive disease and few humans are ever sick.
D) Humans are protected from the malaria parasite.
E) The disease is under stabilizing selection.
Q3) Dominance causes an allele to become more common.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Evolution on a Large Scale
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Q1) A major difference between allopatric and sympatric speciation is whether
A) resulting species are reproductively isolated or not.
B) gene flow continues to occur or not.
C) two or three species result.
D) geographic isolation is required or not.
E) the new species are separated by a prezygotic or postzygotic isolating mechanism.
Q2) In the figure shown here, which of the following organisms would have the same shared derived trait?
A) W, Y, and Z
B) W, X, Y, and Z
C) V, W, X, and Y
D) X, Y, and Z
E) U, V, W, and Z
Q3) A shared ancestral characteristic used in cladistics is found
A) in only the two most recent ancestors.
B) only among the members of the ingroup.
C) in both the outgroup and the ingroup.
D) in two of the outgroups.
E) only in the most distant ancestor.
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Page 18
Chapter 17: The Microorganisms: Viruses, Bacteria, and Protists
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Q1) Retroviruses _____________.
A) contain DNA
B) contain reverse transcriptase
C) produce RNA from DNA
D) only invade plants
E) produce protein directly from DNA
Q2) Viroids and prions are alike in that both are infectious ________.
A) cell types
B) proteins
C) molecules
D) DNA
E) RNA
Q3) Which similarity is not shared between algae and plants?
A) Algae are eukaryotes.
B) Algae are photoautotrophs.
C) Algae are producers.
D) Algae were once classified as plants.
E) Most algae have some form of locomotion.
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Chapter 18: Land Environment: Plants and Fungi
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Q1) Which of these were the first to have well-developed vascular tissue?
A) charophytes
B) bryophytes
C) lycophytes
D) ferns
E) gymnosperms
Q2) Which statement about the plant alternation of generations life cycle is incorrect?
A) Spores are produced by meiosis.
B) The zygote is diploid.
C) The zygote undergoes mitosis to produce the sporophyte plant.
D) Gametes are only produced by meiosis.
E) Both gametes and spores are haploid.
Q3) In a fungal life cycle, which of the following is/are diploid?
A) the zygote only
B) the spores only
C) the hyphae only
D) the hyphae and spores but not the zygote
E) the zygote, spores, and hyphae
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Chapter 19: Both Water and Land: Animals
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Q1) Which of these worms are segmented?
A) annelids
B) planarians
C) roundworms
D) flukes
E) All worms are segmented
Q2) Which of these is a unique characteristic of mammals?
A) hair
B) four-chambered heart
C) extraembryonic membranes
D) endothermic
E) cephalization
Q3) Which of these is mismatched?
A) tunicate-has all chordate characteristics as an adult
B) ray-finned fish-has a swim bladder
C) lamprey-lacks jaws
D) cartilaginous fish-has jaws
E) lobe-finned fish-has a lung
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21
Chapter 20: Plant Anatomy and Growth
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Q1) Primary growth occurs from the A) pericycle.
B) nodes.
C) axils.
D) terminal bud.
E) root hairs.
Q2) Which of the following is not a function of stems?
A) photosynthesis
B) water storage
C) food storage
D) nitrogen fixation
E) attachment and support
Q3) Stomata are derived from A) parenchyma.
B) epidermis.
C) vascular cambium.
D) collenchyma.
E) sclerenchyma.
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Chapter 21: Plant Structure and Function
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Q1) Monocot seeds differ from eudicot seeds because in monocot seeds,
A) the cotyledons absorb the stored food of the endosperm.
B) the endosperm is retained.
C) there are two cotyledons instead of one.
D) there is no seed coat.
E) the endosperm develops into the embryo.
Q2) In a eudicot seed, the zygote becomes the _____, while the _______ is derived from the endosperm.
A) embryo; seed coat
B) cotyledons; embryo
C) embryo; cotyledons
D) embryo; stored food
E) stored food; seed coat
Q3) Plants undergo an alternation of generations. The _______ produces spores, which develop into the ______.
A) sporophyte; gametophyte
B) gametophyte; sporophyte
C) sporophyte; seeds
D) flowers; gametophyte
E) sporophyte; flowers
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Chapter 22: Being Organized and Steady
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Q1) If the lymphatic system did not function correctly
A) fluids would collect within body tissue.
B) oxygen would not reach all the cells of the body.
C) urea would build up in the liver.
D) nutrients would not reach the liver.
E) carbon dioxide would not reach the lungs.
Q2) Skeletal muscle and cardiac muscle are similar in that they are both
A) under voluntary control.
B) under involuntary control.
C) made of highly branched cells.
D) striated.
E) made of long parallel cells.
Q3) Which of the following lists types of connective tissue from least rigid to most rigid?
A) hyaline cartilage - loose fibrous - bone - blood
B) blood - loose fibrous - hyaline cartilage - bone
C) loose fibrous - blood - bone - hyaline cartilage
D) bone - hyaline cartilage - blood - loose fibrous
E) blood - bone - hyaline cartilage - loose fibrous
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Chapter 23: The Transport Systems
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Q1) You are a doctor and an individual comes into your office. During the routine exam you listen to the patient's heart sounds and notice that the first heart sound or "lub" is not as sharp or crisp as it should be. Your diagnosis of the patient's condition is
A) atherosclerosis
B) a heart murmur
C) angina pectoris
D) thromboembolism
E) hypertension
Q2) In the cardiac cycle, the diastole is
A) the relaxation of heart muscle.
B) the contraction of the atria.
C) the closing of the atrioventricular valves.
D) the opening of the semilunar valves.
E) the contraction of the ventricles.
Q3) Formation of plaques in atherosclerosis can lead to hypertension, blood clots, stroke, and heart attacks.
A)True
B)False
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25
Chapter 24: The Maintenance Systems
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Q1) The primary role in digestion of the structure indicated by "C" in the figure shown here is
A) the mixing of ingested food with digestive juices.
B) the production of saliva.
C) the absorption of water and formation of feces.
D) the majority of chemical digestion and absorption.
E) the production of digestion enzymes which are released into the small intestine.
Q2) Without villi, a person would not be able to
A) produce vitamin K.
B) absorb enough nutrients.
C) produce pepsin.
D) swallow food.
E) produce feces.
Q3) Which of the following is not a function of the digestive system?
A) eliminate nitrogenous waste
B) eliminate dead bacteria
C) eliminate non-digestible food
D) eliminate bile pigments from breakdown of hemoglobin
E) absorb nutrients
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Page 26
Chapter 25: Human Nutrition
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Q1) Mark is 72 inches tall and weighs 180 pounds. According to Mark's BMI, he is
A) at a healthy weight.
B) overweight.
C) moderately obese.
D) morbidly obese.
E) underweight.
Q2) Which of the following is an incorrect match?
A) trans fat - margarine
B) saturated fat - beef
C) unsaturated fat - olive oil
D) saturated fat - cold water fish
E) unsaturated fat - canola oil
Q3) Dietary supplements
A) are always safe because they are natural.
B) can be harmful.
C) can accumulate to toxic levels.
D) can be harmful and accumulate to toxic levels.
E) are regulated by the federal government.
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Chapter 26: Defenses Against Diseases
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Q1) After organ transplantation, drugs such as cyclosporine are given which
A) stimulate T cell response to cytokines.
B) increase the production of histamines.
C) inhibit T cell response to cytokines.
D) both stimulate T cell response to cytokines and increase the production of histamines.
E) stimulate phagocytosis by macrophages.
Q2) One way the complement system acts is by producing
A) proteins that assist neutrophils in recognizing a pathogen.
B) mast cells that attack pathogens' membranes.
C) histamines that stimulate B cell formation.
D) kinins that bind to the surface of pathogens.
E) macrophages that phagocytize bacteria.
Q3) Which of the following is not correct in describing the spleen?
A) It contains red pulp and white pulp.
B) It is an essential organ for survival.
C) It can be involved in fighting cancer.
D) It is spongy, containing many sinuses.
E) It is easily ruptured by a severe blow or infection.
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Chapter 27: Control Systems
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Q1) Which of these is a second messenger?
A) cAMP
B) ATP
C) a peptide hormone
D) a steroid hormone
E) DNA
Q2) Long, myelinated nerve fibers are called _____ in the PNS and _____ in the CNS.
A) tracts; nuclei
B) nerves; ganglia
C) ganglia; nuclei
D) nerves; tracts
E) ganglia; tracts
Q3) Which two hormones are produced by the adrenal medulla?
A) aldosterone and cortisol
B) acetylcholine and norepinephrine
C) luteinizing hormone and follicle-stimulating hormone
D) antidiuretic hormone and oxytocin
E) epinephrine and norepinephrine
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29
Chapter 28: Sensory Input and Motor Output
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Q1) Which of these puts the steps of sliding filament model of muscle contraction in the correct order?
A) ATP is hydrolyzed as myosin heads bind the actin filament myosin heads bind ATP ADP + P are released and the myosin heads pull the actin filament
B) Myosin heads bind ATP ATP is hydrolyzed as myosin heads bind the actin filament ADP + P are released and the myosin heads pull the actin filament.
C) ADP + P are released and the myosin heads pull the actin filament ATP is hydrolyzed as myosin heads bind the actin filament myosin heads bind ATP.
D) Myosin heads bind ATP ADP + P are released and the myosin heads pull the actin filament ATP is hydrolyzed as myosin heads bind the actin filament.
E) ATP is hydrolyzed as myosin heads bind the actin filament ADP + P are released and the myosin heads pull the actin filament myosin heads bind ATP.
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Chapter 29: Reproduction and Development
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55 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The fingerlike projections of the oviducts are the A) fimbriae.
B) chorionic villi.
C) labia.
D) follicles.
E) acrosomes.
Q2) What is the assisted reproductive technology that involves the placement of harvested sperm in a woman's vagina by a physician?
A) IVF
B) AID
C) GIFT
D) ICSI
E) IUD
Q3) If a woman has been diagnosed with genital warts, she should be examined regularly for
A) cervical cancer.
B) liver cancer.
C) pelvic inflammatory disease (PID).
D) gummas.
E) skin cancer.
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Chapter 30: Ecology and Populations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Above is a life history table for a minnow (small fish). Based on this table, how many years until the population drops to less than 50% of its original population?
A) < 1
B) > 1
C) 1-2
D) 2
E) 3
Q2) During a recent hurricane, 25 individuals of the same butterfly species were blown onto a barrier island in southern Florida. During the first year, 80 caterpillars hatched from eggs laid by the butterflies and only 5 individuals in the population died. What is the growth rate for the population during this period?
A) 1%
B) 3%
C) 10%
D) 30%
E) 400%
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Chapter 31: Communities and Ecosystems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a community?
A) a group of walrus on a beach
B) hummingbirds at a feeder
C) trout and the lake they inhabit
D) squirrels and the oak trees they live in
E) a herd of elephants in the Namib desert
Q2) All of the following are reservoirs EXCEPT ________.
A) oil
B) calcium carbonate
C) coal
D) natural gas
E) bicarbonate
Q3) Which of the following is an example of the competitive exclusion principle?
A) two different species occupying the same ecological niche
B) two species competing for food and territory
C) competition of mates between two different species
D) two species sharing the same habitat
E) one species outcompeting another species in a particular niche
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Chapter 32: Human Impact on the Biosphere
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Sample Questions
Q1) Desertification is primarily caused by which of the following activities?
A) overgrazing of livestock
B) overplanting of crops
C) overuse of farm machinery
D) lack of rainfall
E) restoration of wetlands
Q2) Beach erosion is often caused by structures built to prevent erosion.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Forests help to regulate the global climate by
A) releasing oxygen.
B) absorbing carbon dioxide.
C) preventing soil erosion.
D) absorbing pollutants.
E) emitting ozone.
Q4) Extensive irrigation may contribute to global climate change because it may cause droughts in some semi-arid regions of the world.
A)True
B)False
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