Biology for Non-Majors Test Questions
Course Introduction
Biology for Non-Majors is an introductory course designed for students who are not specializing in biological sciences. The course provides a broad overview of fundamental biological principles including cell structure and function, genetics, evolution, ecology, and the diversity of life. Emphasis is placed on real-world applications of biology in everyday life, environmental issues, and human health. Through engaging lectures, discussions, and hands-on activities, students will develop scientific literacy and critical thinking skills, enabling them to make informed decisions about biological topics encountered as citizens in a rapidly changing world.
Recommended Textbook
Biology A Guide to the Natural World 5th Edition by David Krogh
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Chapter 1: Science As a Way of Learning: a Guide to the Natural World
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Q1) Biology developed as a science later than physics because:
A)biology is less complex than physics.
B)it is more difficult to come up with ways of describing nature.
C)biologists had to invent rules of the living world before they could describe the forms. D)the living world is tremendously diverse compared to the non-living world.
Answer: D
Q2) Explain the difference between a theory and a hypothesis,and give an example of each.
Answer: A hypothesis is a statement of fact yet to be proven,whereas a theory is based on much work and compelling evidence.Student examples will vary.Theories could include the Big Bang,evolution,atomic theory,relativity,etc.
Q3) Observation of a natural event by more than one human or scientific instrument is the basis of the scientific method.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) The scientist who demonstrated that the Earth moves around the sun was
Answer: Copernicus
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Chapter 2: Fundamental Building Blocks: Chemistry, water, and Ph
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Q1) A single covalent chemical bond represents a sharing of ________ electrons between two atoms.
Answer: two
Q2) The number of neutrons in the nucleus of an atom gives it a unique chemical nature.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) The number of atoms coming out of a chemical reaction must equal the number of atoms going into a chemical reaction.This follows the principle of:
A)the law of conservation of energy.
B)chemical bonding.
C)atomic theory.
D)the law of conservation of mass.
Answer: D
Q4) A signal molecule will ________ to a receptor if the molecules' shapes match,similar to a key in a lock.
Answer: bind
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Chapter 3: Lifes Components: Biological Molecules
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Q1) Ribosomes are made up of protein and ________. Answer: RNA
Q2) Your muscles contract using contractile proteins to produce movement.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) The active site of an enzyme is a product of its ________.
Answer: three-dimensional shape or conformation
Q4) Nucleotides are the building blocks for:
A)disaccharides.
B)ATP, DNA, and RNA.
C)proteins.
D)lipids.
E)steroids.
Answer: B
Q5) The chitin that makes up the exoskeleton of insects is a polymer of amino acids.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 4: Lifes Home: the Cell
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Q1) Actin forms cytoskeletal fibers called ________.
Q2) Without photosynthesis,most animal life on the Earth could not survive.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Prokaryotic cells include:
A)bacteria and animal cells.
B)bacteria and plant cells.
C)bacteria and archaea.
D)archaea and fungi.
Q4) A secretory protein that exits from the ER within a vesicle will head directly to the: A)nucleus.
B)cytosol.
C)mitochondria.
D)Golgi complex.
E)plasma membrane.
Q5) Vesicles that contain digestive enzymes are called lysosomes.
A)True
B)False
Q6) mRNA carries a code from the ________ to make a particular polypeptide.
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Chapter 5: Lifes Border: the Plasma Membrane
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Q1) The functioning of the immune system depends on recognition proteins.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The fatty-acid tails of a phospholipid are:
A)hydrophilic.
B)proteins.
C)polar.
D)hydrophobic.
E)carbohydrates.
Q3) Cholesterol helps to maintain the correct fluidity of the plasma membrane.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A substance moving down the concentration gradient is an example of active transport.
A)True B)False
Q5) The phospholipid bilayer forms because fatty-acid tails do not dissolve in water. A)True B)False
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Chapter 6: Lifes Mainspring: an Introduction to Energy
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Q1) Where do substrates bind to enzymes?
A)in the active site
B)anywhere
C)in the substrate groove
D)in the effector site
Q2) Cells can harvest the energy released during exergonic reactions to drive endergonic reactions.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is endergonic?
A)cells breaking down glucose into CO
B)the burning of wood
C)the digestion of proteins in the stomach
D)breaking bonds in starch to produce glucose
E)the synthesis of glucose from carbon dioxide and water
Q4) Which of the following is true of energy?
A)It can be stored in chemical bonds.
B)It can be released by forming chemical bonds.
C)It can be transferred from one form to another with 100 percent efficiency.
D)It can be created from nothing.
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Chapter 7: Vital Harvest: Deriving Energy From Food
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Q1) How many pyruvic acid molecules are generated during the oxidation of one glucose molecule during cellular respiration?
A)three
B)two
C)zero
D)one
E)four
Q2) Which of the following statements is true of aerobic respiration?
A)Fats proceed through aerobic respiration in exactly the same manner as glucose.
B)Proteins proceed through aerobic respiration in exactly the same manner as glucose.
C)Glucose will be completely broken down even if oxygen is not present.
D)Glucose, fats, and proteins can be oxidized by aerobic respiration
Q3) Before starch can be used for cellular respiration,it must be broken down into: A)pyruvate.
B)fatty acid.
C)oxaloacetatic acid.
D)amino acids.
E)glucose.
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Chapter 8: The Green Worlds Gift: Photosynthesis
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Q1) The transfer of electrons from chlorophyll a molecules to the primary electron acceptor is an example of a/an:
A)redox reaction.
B)synthesis reaction.
C)light reaction.
D)absorption reaction.
Q2) When sunlight hits chlorophyll,the electrons are excited out of the chlorophyll; the electrons go ________ an energy hill,and as they pass through the electron transport chain they go ________ an energy hill.
Q3) Which of the following types of plants would most likely be found in the Mojave Desert?
A)CAM
B)C
C)C
D)CAM, C , and C would all be equally likely in this environment.
Q4) Oxygen is required to carry out photosynthesis.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe how cellular respiration and photosynthesis are different.
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Chapter 9: The Links in Lifes Chain: Genetics and Cell Division
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Q1) The number of genes in the human genome is estimated to be:
A)20,000 to 25,000.
B)3 billion.
C)3 to 6 million.
D)1 million.
Q2) The "gap" phases of the cell cycle are devoted to:
A)moving chromosomes to their correct positions.
B)normal cell operations, growth, and preparation for cell division.
C)DNA replication.
D)creating new nuclei.
Q3) What is the relationship between genes and proteins,including the function of each?
Q4) When a dividing human cell reaches telophase,23 nuclear membranes must form,one for each pair of chromosomes.
A)True
B)False
Q5) During which phase of mitosis are the chromosomes aligned along the equator of the cell? Predict what would happen if a cell completed mitosis without first lining up all the chromosomes in the middle of the cell.
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Chapter 10: Preparing for Sexual Reproduction: Meiosis
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Q1) Suppose a researcher claims to be able to make a hybrid animal that is a cross between a human and a rhesus monkey.The normal diploid number for humans is 46,and the normal diploid number for rhesus monkeys is 48.Based on normal meiosis,how many chromosomes would the human gamete have,and how many chromosomes would the rhesus monkey have? Given these numbers,how many chromosomes would you expect the hybrid embryo to contain?
Q2) In metaphase I ________ are aligned along the metaphase plate,and in metaphase II ________ are aligned along the metaphase plate.
A)pairs of sister chromatids; homologous chromosomes
B)maternal chromosomes; paternal chromosomes
C)homologous chromosomes; tetrads
D)homologous chromosomes; pairs of sister chromatids
Q3) A human egg contains:
A)23 autosomes and an X or a Y chromosome.
B)22 autosomes and an X or a Y chromosome.
C)46 chromosomes, as 23 pairs.
D)22 pairs of autosomes and two X chromosomes.
E)22 autosomes and one X chromosome.
Q4) ________ have both male and female reproductive parts.
Q5) Once produced,a zygote will divide by ________ to develop into a whole organism.
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Chapter 11: The First Geneticist: Mendel and His Discoveries
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Q1) The physical characteristics of an organism,or its ________,are determined by its genetic makeup,referred to as its ________.
Q2) Mendel postulated that individuals have genetic elements that exist in pairs,which determine a single phenotype.What do we now know these pairs of elements to be?
A)two haploid sets of chromosomes
B)two alleles of a gene on homologous chromosomes
C)pairs of sister chromatids
D)pairs of centromeres
E)a sperm and an egg
Q3) A and a are dominant and recessive alleles,respectively,of the same gene.Which genotype(s)would result in an individual with the dominant phenotype?
A)AA and aa
B)Aa and aa
C)only AA
D)AA and Aa
E)only Aa
Q4) What is the difference between a monohybrid and a dihybrid cross?
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Chapter 12: Units of Heredity: Chromosomes and Inheritance
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Q1) If a daughter expresses an X-linked recessive gene,she probably inherited the trait from:
A)her mother.
B)her father.
C)both parents.
D)neither parent.
E)her grandmother.
Q2) A single nondisjunction event results in some gametes with more chromosomes and some gametes with fewer chromosomes.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The last members of the Russian Royal Family were executed during the Russian Revolution.Assume the revolution never took place and Alexis,son of Czar Nicholas II and Alexandra,survived and married into the British Royal Family.What is the probability that his children would have hemophilia? What is the probability his children would be carriers for hemophilia?
Q4) A person with only one allele for a recessive condition who does not have the condition is called a ________.
Q5) Explain what causes aneuploidy.
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Chapter 13: Passing on Lifes Information: Dna Structure and Replication
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Q1) Suppose you are a biologist trying to discover the process by which DNA copies itself.You grow cells in a culture that contains a special isotope of nitrogen,N-15,which will become part of any new DNA the cell makes.After one generation,you analyze the DNA and find all the DNA has some N-15 in it.You then take those cells and grow them for another generation in a culture with the normal isotope of nitrogen,N-14,and find that half of the DNA has some N-15 in it and half of it has only N-14.From this information,what can you infer is the process by which DNA replicates?
Q2) Watson and Crick's model of the structure of DNA was published in: A)1953. B)1961. C)1923. D)1949. E)1975.
Q3) Individuals who have a disease such as melanoma do not necessarily have offspring with melanoma.However,individuals with Huntington disease often do pass it on to their offspring.What accounts for the difference in the heritability of the two diseases?
Q4) Mutations will not be passed on to the next generation if they occur in ________ cells.
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Chapter
14: How Proteins Are Made: Genetic Transcription, translation, and Regulation
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Q1) If we create the figure: DNA RNA Polypeptide [Protein],what do the arrows indicate?
A)replication
B)transcription
C)translation
D)replication and transcription
E)transcription and translation
Q2) Transcription:
A)occurs on the ribosome.
B)is the final process in the assembly of a protein.
C)is the synthesis of RNA from a DNA template.
D)is catalyzed by DNA polymerase.
E)occurs in the cytoplasm.
Q3) Which component of transcription or translation has the anticodon?
A)mRNA
B)RNA polymerase
C)tRNA
D)rRNA
E)ribosome
Q4) How does the protein synthesis occur?
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Chapter 15: The Future Isnt What It Used to Be: Biotechnology
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Q1) Much of the food crops in the United States are transgenic.This primarily has been done to give the crops what properties?
A)a decrease in the need for chemical fertilizers
B)the ability to produce human growth hormone
C)the ability to resist insects and herbicides
D)the need for greater irrigation
Q2) Stem cells are said to be pluripotent.This means they have the ability to:
A)form blastocysts.
B)be reprogrammed through recombinant DNA technology.
C)make more of themselves in culture.
D)specialize into any other type of cell.
E)specialize into only a few different types of cells such as nerves and muscle cells.
Q3) In reproductive cloning,a sperm is not used,but an egg is still required.Why?
A)Udder cells will fuse only with egg cells.
B)Egg chromosomes are required for embryonic development.
C)Egg proteins are required for embryonic development.
D)Surrogate mother animals will develop only embryos derived from their own eggs.
Q4) Define recombinant DNA.
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Chapter 16: An Introduction to Evolution: Charles Darwin, evolutionary Thought, and the Evidence for Evolution
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Q1) Charles Lyell's publication on human population growth was important to Charles Darwin developing the theory of evolution.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The various lines of evidence for evolution together support the core principles of evolution because:
A)they are internally consistent and agree with each other.
B)they only occasionally are falsified.
C)they are internally consistent even though they don't agree with each other.
D)scientists ignore the inconsistencies and choose the best lines of evidence to support their opinions.
Q3) Evolution can be used to explain all of the following except:
A)the appearance of antibiotic-resistant strains of bacteria.
B)the separate creation of each species.
C)common characteristics of related species.
D)constant change in populations of organisms.
Q4) Darwin studied a small group of finches on the ________ during his round-the-world trip.
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Q5) The use of radioactive elements to date geological specimens is called ________.
Chapter 17: The Means of Evolution: Microevolution
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Q1) Which of the following males in a given population would be considered the most fit in an evolutionary sense?
A)one that produced 1,000 offspring, of which 100 survived but 99 did not reproduce
B)one that produced 100 offspring, of which 10 survived but 9 did not reproduce
C)one that produced 1,000 offspring, all of which died before reaching reproductive age
D)one that produced two offspring, both of which survived and produced offspring of their own
Q2) In order for migration to alter allele frequencies in another population:
A)a large portion of the population must die off.
B)a large portion of the population must leave as new individuals arrive.
C)the gene pool of the migrating population must be different from the population it is joining.
D)the gene pools of the populations involved must be very similar.
Q3) The original source of variation within a population comes from ________.
Q4) ________ characters are continuously variable.
Q5) The basic units that evolve are species.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: The Outcomes of Evolution: Macroevolution
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Q1) Structural features that serve the same function in completely unrelated organisms are said to be ________ structures.
Q2) Insect wings,bat wings,and the flaps of tissue between the limbs and body of "flying" squirrels are:
A)homozygous.
B)homologous.
C)analogous.
D)abrupt.
Q3) If the apple and haw flies no longer interbreed due to the different ripening times of apples and hawthorns,this would be an example of what kind of reproductive isolating mechanism?
A)ecological isolation
B)temporal isolation
C)behavioral isolation
D)mechanical isolation
E)gametic isolation
Q4) When an insect arrives on an island and evolves into a new species that is different from its ancestor on the mainland,the two species are kept apart by ________ isolation.
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Chapter 19: A Slow Unfolding: the History of Life on Earth
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Q1) Which of the following would support a hypothesis that insects preceded amphibians on land and were flourishing when the first amphibians evolved?
A)Amphibians and insects both have lungs in their terrestrial stage.
B)Amphibians and insects have many adaptations in common.
C)Amphibians and insects share a recent common ancestor.
D)Many amphibians are insectivores in their terrestrial stage.
Q2) Some rock strata associated with coal seams in Illinois,Ohio,and Pennsylvania can be shown to have the same mixture of pollen grain types.This suggests that these rocks are/were:
A)the same age.
B)equally radioactive.
C)deposited from a common source material.
D)the same type of rock.
Q3) An organelle that probably evolved from an independent organism that moved inside and began to live within a eukaryotic cell is the:
A)mitochondrion.
B)nucleus.
C)Golgi apparatus.
D)endoplasmic reticulum.
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Chapter 20: Arriving Late,traveling Far: the Evolution of Human Beings
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Q1) To what does the term "mosaic pattern" refer in terms of evolution?
A)Natural selection is no longer operating on modern humans.
B)Different features developed at different times in different species.
C)Every species was subject to a different form of natural selection.
D)Fossils are found in a mosaic pattern at a paleontological site.
Q2) The hominid group of primates has existed on Earth for approximately 6-7 million years.
A)True B)False
Q3) Several lines of evidence,including fossils and a genetic analysis of different groups of modern humans,suggest that our species originated and spread out from:
A)north Africa.
B)east Africa.
C)central Europe.
D)India.
Q4) Most hominin evolution took place in south Africa and Australia.
A)True B)False
Q5) Modern humans are classified as belonging to the species ________.
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Diversity of Life 1
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Q1) Based upon the environment in which you found these life-forms,how would you categorize them?
A)thermophiles
B)halophiles
C)anaerobes
D)methanogens
Q2) The simplest eukaryotes are the bacteria.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which statement about the relationship between bacteria and the human body is most accurate?
A)Although many tissues are kept bacteria-free, around 100 trillion bacteria live on or in us.
B)About one-tenth of our body weights are due to bacteria
C)Bacteria are found in the mouth, stomach, and intestines in about equal amounts.
D)Most bacteria are transient; that is, they come for brief periods and then are gone.
Q4) Defend the position that bacteria are both beneficial and detrimental to humans.
Q5) Methanogens are in the ________ category of extremophile.
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Chapter 22: Fungi: the Diversity of Life 2
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Q1) A feature unique to some fungi is:
A)a lack of chlorophyll.
B)cells with three haploid nuclei.
C)dikaryotic cells.
D)diploid cells.
Q2) As part of your independent study of pond water samples,you notice one of the flagellated organisms latch on to a pollen grain and eventually release spores.You initially thought you were looking at a group exclusively made of protists,but upon further observation,you realize the organism you have been observing is classified with the fungi.In which group would you place this organism?
A)basidiomycetes
B)ascomycetes
C)zygomycetes
D)chytrids
Q3) Nearly all fungi reproduce using mushrooms as their reproductive structure.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Spores are reproductive cells of a fungus.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 23: Animals: the Diversity of Life 3
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Q1) Corals exhibit the polyp body form only.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which statement about the vertebrates is most accurate?
A)They are the dominant phylum in the animal kingdom.
B)There are more vertebrate species than flatworms or cnidarians but fewer than there are insects.
C)They are the only group to have evolved aquatic, terrestrial, and flying lifestyles.
D)They evolved from echinoderms.
E)They evolved from molluscs.
Q3) Which would be a fact supporting the hypothesis that echinoderms such as sea stars evolved into radial symmetry from bilateral symmetry?
A)Their larvae have bilateral symmetry.
B)They use their appendages in a bilateral manner.
C)Their brains show the mirror image development of bilateral symmetry.
D)They swim like animals with bilateral symmetry.
Q4) Sponges acquire food by ________ as water passes through.
Q5) What are the benefits and challenges of an exoskeleton?
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Chapter 24: Plants: the Diversity of Life 4
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Q1) You are a naturalist traveling with a group of explorers in a valley of the Amazon rainforest.In a particularly wet area,you see a beautiful carpet of small plants.You notice tiny flowers on most of the plants.To which group do these plants belong?
A)hornworts
B)mosses
C)seedless vascular plants
D)gymnosperms
E)angiosperms
Q2) In plant life cycles,meiosis produces spores.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The missing label indicated by a "3" corresponds to the:
A)multicellular sporophyte.
B)multicellular gametophyte.
C)gametes.
D)spores.
Q4) The story of plant evolution could be described as a story of how plants broke their dependence on aquatic existence.Explain how you could support this statement.
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Chapter 25: The Angiosperms: Form and Function in Flowering Plants
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Q1) The female gametophyte generation of angiosperms is represented by: A)pollen grains.
B)embryo sacs.
C)seeds.
D)pollen tubes.
Q2) The structure that attaches a leaf to the rest of the plant is the: A)blade.
B)stoma.
C)petiole.
D)stem.
Q3) The structures in which xylem and phloem tubes are found are called ________.
Q4) Ground tissue forms the bulk of the primary plant.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The major advantage provided to plants by root hairs is:
A)needle-like points for drilling through hard or rocky soil.
B)ability to produce new taproots.
C)underground asexual reproduction.
D)greatly increasing absorptive surface area.
Q6) ________ provides the force that moves water up xylem. Page 27
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Chapter 26: Body Support and Movement: the
Integumentary, skeletal, and Muscular Systems
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Q1) A 25-year-old friend tells you her mom was diagnosed with advanced osteoporosis.Your friend seems dispirited,feeling resigned to the same fate.Using the material you learned about the skeletal system,what supportive advice can you give your friend for ways she can guard against her risk of osteoporosis?
Q2) Glands are part of the ________ tissue category.
Q3) Which of the following statements best describes epithelial tissue?
A)It is found only in the skin.
B)It is always at least several layers thick.
C)It covers internal and external surfaces.
D)It produces blood cells.
E)It only covers surfaces exposed to the internal environment.
Q4) Smooth muscle may be moved by either voluntary or involuntary control depending on location in the body.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Bone and cartilage are examples of ________ tissues.
Q6) The two organ systems that are involved in removing wastes from the cells and eliminating them from the body are the ________ system and ________ system.
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Chapter 27: Communication and Control 1: the Nervous System
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Q1) When a neuron is at its "resting potential," which of the following is true about the concentration of sodium ions?
A)Sodium ions have a greater concentration inside the neuron's cell membrane.
B)Sodium ions have a greater concentration outside the neuron's cell membrane.
C)The sodium concentration is the same outside and inside the neuron's cell membrane.
Q2) The portion of the nervous system that most directly controls skeletal muscles is the: A)somatic.
B)autonomic.
C)sympathetic.
D)parasympathetic.
E)afferent.
Q3) The brain and the spinal cord make up the central nervous system (CNS).
A)True
B)False
Q4) When a neuron is resting,it has a higher concentration of Na ions inside the cell membrane than outside.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 28: Communication and Control 2: the Endocrine System
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Q1) Which endocrine gland is associated with proper development of certain white blood cells?
Q2) A consequence of the way hormones,as compared to neurotransmitters,get to their target cells is that hormones:
A)must be larger molecules.
B)must be proteins.
C)can be lipids.
D)would be slower to act.
E)cannot maintain homeostasis.
Q3) Human growth hormone is composed of 191 amino acids.This would place it in which class of hormone?
Q4) Release of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)from the pituitary is inhibited when:
A)the metabolic rate of cells decreases.
B)T and T levels are low.
C)T and T levels are high.
D)blood sugar levels are low.
E)blood sugar levels are high.
Q5) What gland and hormone control the release of cortisol from the adrenal cortex?
Q6) Where are the parathyroid glands located?
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Chapter 29: Defending the Body: the Immune System
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Q1) The figure above shows antibody-mediated immunity.The cells indicated by a "2" are:
A)bacterial cells.
B)cytotoxic T cells.
C)helper T cells.
D)memory cells.
E)plasma cells.
Q2) Antibodies are produced by plasma cells and regulatory T cells.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following would best be defined in part as an immune system overreaction?
A)autoimmune disease
B)chronic disease
C)allergies
D)cell-mediated response
E)cytotoxic T cell action
Q4) Stomach acid is one of our natural defenses against bacteria in food.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 30: Transport and Exchange 1: Blood and Breath
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Q1) Discuss the effects of holding one's breath for more than a minute.
Q2) Prepare an argument for why the following statement is incorrect: The formed elements are the only important part of blood,and plasma is just the water they're carried in.
Q3) The trachea branches into left and right bronchioles.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which blood vessels carry blood away from the heart?
Q5) The movement of air in and out of the lungs is called:
A)cellular respiration.
B)ventilation.
C)external respiration.
D)internal respiration.
Q6) Ions in plasma are also known as electrolytes.
A)True
B)False
Q7) When the thoracic cavity gets smaller,the pressure inside the lungs increases.
A)True
B)False
Page 33
Q8) What technique is used to separate blood into plasma and formed elements?
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Chapter 31: Transport and Exchange 2: Digestion, nutrition, and Elimination
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Q1) Which layer of the digestive tract is actually in contact with the food?
A)muscularis externa
B)submucosa
C)serosa
D)mucosa
Q2) What is the first part of the small intestine that receives food from the stomach?
A)duodenum
B)ileum
C)jejunum
D)cecum
Q3) Which organ,A,B,or C,produces digestive enzymes and chemical buffers?
Q4) Place the following in order of the movement of urine through the urinary system: (1)urethra,(2)ureter,(3)kidney,(4)urinary bladder.
A)1, 2, 3, 4
B)3, 4, 1, 2
C)1, 3, 2, 4
D)2, 3, 4, 1
E)3, 2, 4, 1
Q5) The functional units of the kidneys are the ________.
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Chapter 32: An Amazingly Detailed Script: Animal Development
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Q1) What is the significance of the homeobox sequence studied in animal species?
A)Certain genetic instructions for development have changed very little over time.
B)Certain genetic instructions for development have changed a great deal over time.
C)Certain genetic instructions vary based on structural differences.
D)Certain genetic instructions vary based on phyla.
Q2) Versions of homeobox genes have been found in plants and fungi.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Cell death during development will always have negative,possibly fatal,effects on normal development.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Without cell adhesion,the primitive gut probably wouldn't develop during gastrulation.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The capacity of some embryonic cells to direct the development of other embryonic cells is called ________.
35
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Chapter 33: How the Baby Came to Be: Human Reproduction
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Q1) Which item,A,B,C,D,or E,is a secondary spermatocyte?
Q2) Which of the following is considered a gamete?
A)embryo
B)child
C)oocyte
D)zygote
Q3) In humans,females contribute more resources to reproduction and development than males.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Propose reasons to explain why the female reproductive system evolved a menstrual cycle,but the male system does not adhere to any kind of true cycle.
Q5) Implantation occurs in the ________ of the uterus.
Q6) Human embryos do not go through a morula stage of development as do most other animals.
A)True
B)False
Q8) Enzymes are carried in the ________ of a sperm. Page 36
Q7) The release of an oocyte from an ovary is called ________.
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Chapter 34: An Interactive Living World 1: Populations in Ecology
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Q1) Which of the following would be a characteristic of a K-selected species?
A)Most K-selected species live until older age.
B)All K-selected species live very long life spans.
C)Individuals tend to die at all ages in the life span.
D)Most die at relatively young ages.
Q2) Most insects would be typical of which survivorship curve category?
A)early-loss species
B)constant-loss species
C)late-loss species
D)late-gain species
E)early-gain species
Q3) Which of the following is true of logistic growth?
A)Logistic growth occurs when predators are very limited in population size.
B)Logistic growth may start in a way that resembles exponential growth but slows and stabilizes.
C)Logistic growth describes the growth of a population in an environment with an unlimited carrying capacity.
D)Logistic growth is plotted as a J-shaped curve.
Q4) An "S" shaped curve would be indicative of ________ growth.
Q5) Why are K-selected species also known as equilibrium species?
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Chapter 35: An Interactive Living World 2: Communities in Ecology
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Q1) When two species,such as bees and angiosperms,both benefit from their interdependent relationship,this is referred to as ________.
Q2) The number of prey species is one of several factors determining the number of predators that can live in an area.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Barnacles are filter-feeding molluscs that live by filtering plankton from seawater.This is a description of the barnacles': A)community.
B)habitat.
C)niche.
D)ecosystem.
Q4) A chameleon avoiding predation by being colored similarly to its surroundings demonstrates which strategy?
Q5) Kudzu replacing native plants is a type of predation. A)True B)False
Page 39
Q6) What is the relationship between a biodiversity and geographic diversity?
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Chapter 36: An Interactive Living World 3: Ecosystems and Biomes
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Q1) The "rain shadow" effect occurs because:
A)cloud shadows move from east to west, dropping moisture on the east of mountain ranges in the northern hemisphere.
B)cool air masses warm as they move closer to the sun, dropping moisture on the west side of mountains.
C)air cools as it rises and drops most of its moisture on one side of the mountain, and then mostly dry air moves to the other side of the mountain.
D)clouds don't drop moisture over mountain chains.
E)precipitation patterns follow the tilt of Earth's axis.
Q2) Both the taiga and tundra are known for having permafrost soils.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Human industry is responsible for more nitrogen fixation worldwide than soil bacteria.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The ozone layer is found in which layer of the atmosphere?
Q5) The tropical savannahs of Africa are a type of tropical ________.
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Q6) An aquifer that may contribute some surface water is a/an ________ aquifer.