Biology for Non-Majors Test Questions - 1711 Verified Questions

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Biology for Non-Majors Test Questions

Course Introduction

Biology for Non-Majors provides an introduction to the fundamental concepts of biological science, tailored for students pursuing fields outside the biological sciences. The course covers major topics including cell structure and function, genetics, evolution, ecology, and the diversity of life, with an emphasis on how these principles relate to everyday life and current issues in society. Through engaging lectures, discussions, and laboratory experiences, students gain an understanding of living systems, scientific inquiry, and the impact of biology on health, the environment, and technology, equipping them with the knowledge to make informed decisions about biological issues in their personal and civic lives.

Recommended Textbook

The Living World 8th Edition by George B Johnson

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Chapter 1: The Science of Biology

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Q1) Evolution is the genetic change in a species over time.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Q2) All organisms on earth encode their genes in strands of ________.

Answer: DNA

Q3) As life forms become more advanced,new properties occur.These properties are referred to as ______________.

Answer: emergent

Q4) Which kingdom contains nonphotosynthetic multicellular organisms that digest their food internally?

A)Fungi

B)Plantae

C)Animalia

D)Protista

E)Archaea

Answer: C

Q5) All living things use energy,a property known as ______________.

Answer: metabolism

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Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Life

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Q1) The volume of space around a nucleus where an electron is most likely to be located is called the _______________ of that electron.

A)energy level

B)spin

C)pathway

D)orbital

Answer: D

Q2) Which is not correct about water molecules?

A)Hydrogen is more electronegative than oxygen.

B)Water is a polar molecule.

C)Covalent bonds exist within a water molecule.

D)Hydrogen bonds exist between water molecules.

E)Hydrogen bonds are weak bonds.

Answer: A

Q3) Due to hydrogen bonding,ice is _______ dense than water. Answer: less

Q4) A solution of pH 3 is 100 times more acidic than a solution of pH 5.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Page 4

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Chapter 3: Molecules of Life

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Q1) Hydrogen bonds between different parts of the polypeptide chain result in which level of protein structure?

A)Primary

B)Secondary

C)Tertiary

D)Quaternary

Answer: B

Q2) The external skeleton of many invertebrates is made of:

A)starch

B)cellulose

C)chitin

D)glycogen

E)sucrose

Answer: C

Q3) When a protein is denatured,which level of protein structure is unaffected?

A)Primary

B)Secondary

C)Tertiary

D)Quaternary

Answer: A

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Chapter 4: Cells

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Q1) Diffusion occurs because of the ________________________ of molecules.

Q2) Which process would enable a white blood cell to ingest a bacterium?

A)Diffusion

B)Receptor-mediated endocytosis

C)Phagocytosis

D)Pinocytosis

E)Osmosis

Q3) Discuss the functions of the cytoskeleton of the cell.

Q4) Two organelles that are believed to have once been free-living bacterial cells are __________________ and _________________.

A)ribosomes;nucleolus

B)Golgi complex;endoplasmic reticulum

C)peroxisomes;lysosomes

D)chloroplasts;mitochondria

Q5) Cilia and flagella differ from each other primarily in:

A)function

B)length

C)internal structure

D)internal chemistry

Q6) In eukaryotic cells,DNA is divided into long segments called

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Chapter 5: Energy and Life

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Q1) The making and breaking of chemical bonds is called:

A)entropy reactions

B)chemical reactions

C)thermodynamic reactions

D)catalysis reactions

E)activation energy reactions

Q2) Explain how enzymes are regulated by feedback inhibition.

Q3) Which of the following activities does NOT require cellular energy?

A)Swimming movements of some types of cells

B)Driving endergonic reactions

C)Movement of organelles within cells

D)Movement of water across the cell membrane

Q4) Enzymes are catalysts because they operate to:

A)lower activation energy

B)raise activation energy

C)supply activation energy

D)supply the reactants

Q5) In __________ reactions,the products contain more energy than the reactants.

Q6) A measure of the degree of disorder in a system is called __________.

Q7) A ball sitting on a table top has __________ energy because of its position.

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Chapter 6: Photosynthesis: Acquiring Energy From the Sun

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Q1) Stoma open at night in plants that use _______ photosynthesis.

Q2) Plants use ______ and _________ wavelengths of light and reflect the _______ wavelength.

A)green,red,blue

B)green,blue,red

C)red,blue,green

D)white,green,blue

E)white,green,red

Q3) After hydrogens and electrons are stripped from NADPH,NADP+

A)is sent to the electron transport chain of cellular respiration.

B)is broken down further to NAD plus phosphate in the Calvin cycle.

C)is sent to the Krebs cycle.

D)is recycled back to the light-dependent reactions.

E)evaporates from the cell.

Q4) The production of ATP in photosynthesis is called

A)catabolism.

B)oxidative phosphorylation.

C)photophosphorylation.

D)the Calvin cycle.

E)photorespiration.

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Chapter 7: How Cells Harvest Energy From Food

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Q1) ATP is formed when ___________ passes back across the membrane through ATP synthase channels.

Q2) Anaerobic respiration occurs in environments without oxygen.In doing so,some organisms have evolved mechanisms to produce ATP by using other _______ acceptors.

A)proton

B)electron

C)NADPH

D)phosphate group

E)fermentation

Q3) Explain which process evolved first-glycolysis or the Krebs cycle.

Q4) Most of the carbon dioxide that is made during aerobic respiration is from A)glycolysis.

B)the Krebs cycle.

C)the electron transport chain.

D)the Calvin cycle.

E)chemiosmosis.

Q5) Common end products of fermentation include __________ and _____.

Q6) The internal compartment of the mitochondria is the _______.

Q7) _________ is an electron carrier similar to NADH.

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Chapter 8: Mitosis

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Sample Questions

Q1) During which stage of the cell cycle does the mitotic spindle begin to form?

A)S phase

B)G<sub>1</sub>

C)Telophase

D)Prophase

Q2) During which stage of mitosis do replicated chromosomes condense and the nuclear envelope disappears?

A)Interphase

B)Prophase

C)Telophase

D)Metaphase

E)Anaphase

Q3) Mutated proto-oncogenes become cancer-causing genes called _________.

Q4) The diploid number of chromosomes in humans is 46.The haploid number is:

A)138

B)92

C)46

D)23

Q5) A ______________ is a long DNA molecule that contains genes and has proteins to help it retain its shape.

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Chapter 9: Meiosis

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Q1) Reproduction by mitosis only is asexual.

A)True

B)False

Q2) All of the following are sources of genetic variety except:

A)random fertilization

B)independent assortment

C)crossing over

D)synapsis

Q3) Animals do which type of reproduction?

A)Sexual only

B)Asexual only

C)Sexual and asexual

D)Budding only

E)Binary fission

Q4) Cells that will eventually undergo meiosis and produce gametes are often referred to as _______________ cells.

Q5) In animals,asexual reproduction can involve the budding off of cells which grow by mitosis into a new individual.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 10: Foundations of Genetics

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Q1) Which of the following represents a test cross?

A)Tt x tt

B)TT x Tt

C)Tt x Tt

D)tt x tt

E)TT x TT

Q2) What is the evolutionary significance of mutation?

Q3) What discovery by T.H.Morgan finally determined that genes were carried on chromosomes?

A)Heat-sensitivity of certain enzymes determining coat color

B)Sex-linked inheritance of eye color in fruit flies

C)The finding of complete dominance

D)Discovery of the Rh blood group

Q4) In snapdragons,pink-flowered plants are produced when red-flowered plants are crossed with white-flowered plants.This type of inheritance can best be described as:

A)simple dominant and recessive traits

B)codominance

C)incomplete dominance

D)sex-linked traits

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Chapter 11: DNA: the Genetic Material

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Q1) What observation did Dr.Katsusaburo Yamagiwa make to lead him to believe that chemicals cause cancer?

A)He observed that chimney sweeps exhibited frequent cancer of the scrotum.

B)He observed unusual tumors of the nose in snuff users and suggested tobacco as the cause.

C)He observed that cancer rates were 40 times higher in smokers than in nonsmokers.

D)He observed that when coal tar extracts were applied to rabbit skin,cancers eventually developeD.

Q2) The significance of the Griffith,Avery and Hershey-Chase experiments was that they demonstrated that:

A)genes were located on chromosomes

B)enzymes transformed bacteria

C)proteins were what genes were composed of D)DNA was the molecule of heredity

Q3) Once a mistake is made in DNA it will stay there forever.

A)True

B)False

Q4) The copying of DNA before cell division is referred to as DNA

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Chapter 12: How Genes Work

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Sample Questions

Q1) How many different codons are possible with the four different nucleotides?

A)12

B)24

C)55

D)64

E)128

Q2) The nucleotide sequences on DNA that actually have information encoding a sequence of amino acids are:

A)introns

B)exons

C)proteins

D)enhancers

Q3) Explain why mRNA must be processed before it leaves the nucleus.

Q4) A(n)____________ is a piece of DNA with a group of genes that are transcribed together as a unit.

A)promoter

B)repressor

C)operator

D)operon

Q5) The genetic code is a ____________ code.

Page 14

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Chapter 13: Genomics and Biotechnology

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Q1) Explain the techniques used in the cloning of "Dolly."

Q2) Do you feel there is any harm in eating genetically modified crops?

Q3) In gene transfer procedures,why is it necessary to use processed mRNA molecules to make DNA to transfer to another organism?

Q4) What are some of the benefits of transferring genes from one organism to another?

Q5) What is the correct order of events for sequencing DNA?

Q6) When the method is perfected,it will be possible to transfer "healthy" genes into cystic fibrosis patients via aerosol inhalants to "cure" this genetic disease.Is this type of gene transfer an actual cure or is it a treatment? In other words,could this person still pass along cystic fibrosis genes?

Q7) Explain how genomic imprinting works.

Q8) Do you feel there is any harm in cloning mammals? Why? Why not?

Q9) How is it possible that there are four times as many kinds of mRNA transcripts as there are genes in the human genome? This is possible because human genes are fragmented and use alternative splicing.

Q10) How do you feel about cloning? Explain your position in the light of science.

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Chapter 14: Evolution and Natural Selection

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Q1) In human infants,there has long been evolution toward having the highest survival rate at a 6-7 pound birth weight.This is an example of:

A)directional selection

B)disruptive selection

C)stabilizing or balancing selection

D)random chance

Q2) When selection operates to eliminate intermediate phenotypes,it is referred to as:

A)directional selection

B)disruptive selection

C)stabilizing or balancing selection

D)random chance

Q3) A __________ is a separate group of organisms incapable of interbreeding with other such groups.

Q4) The purpose of the voyage of the HMS Beagle was to:

A)discover new routes to the New World

B)survey the living creatures on islands only

C)map navigational routes around the coasts of South America

D)search for gold

Q5) A human example of stabilizing selection is _____________________.

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Chapter 15: How We Name Living Things

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Q1) A group of organisms at a particular level in a system of classification is called a(n):

A)taxon

B)ingroup

C)outgroup

D)category

Q2) The first person to suggest a general definition of species was:

A)Carolus Linnaeus

B)John Ray

C)Charles Darwin

D)Joseph Priestly

Q3) A branching tree that represents the evolutionary relationships among a number of species is,in scientific terms,called a(n):

A)family tree

B)phylogenetic tree

C)androgeny

D)pedigree

Q4) Why was the classification scheme devised by Linnaeus such an improvement over those used in his day?

Q5) Describe the various scientific roles that zoos fulfill.

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Chapter 16: Prokaryotes: the First Single-Celled Creatures

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Q1) Bacteriophages that integrate into the host's genome do so during a _____________ cycle.

Q2) Describe what scientists feel may be the first step in the evolution of cellular organization.

Q3) Viral genomes can be of DNA or ___________.

Q4) _____________________ use light as their source of energy and organic molecules such as carbohydrates as their source of carbon.

Q5) When bacterial cell walls are covered with an outer membrane that contains lipopolysaccharide,they are:

A)gram-negative

B)gram-positive

C)encapsulated

D)polyencapsulated

Q6) The HIV enzyme,________________ manufactures a DNA copy of the virus once it is inside a human cell.

A)DNA polymerase

B)helicase

C)forward transcriptase

D)reverse transcriptase

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Chapter 17: Protists: Advent of the Eukaryotes

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Q1) The majority of protists reproduce ________ most of the time.

A)sexually

B)asexually

C)by parthenogenesis

D)by self-fertilization

E)by making eggs

Q2) Giant kelp is a type of __________ algae.

Q3) These creatures are nonmotile,spore-forming,unicellular parasites of animals.

A)Amoeba

B)Sporozoans

C)Ciliates

D)Water molds

Q4) Downy mildews such as Phytophthora infestans belong to this group.

A)Ciliates

B)Cellular slime molds

C)Plasmodial slime molds

D)Water molds

Q5) Why are colonial protists not considered to be multicellular?

Q6) Why do biologists believe that red algae may be one of the most ancient groups of eukaryotes?

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Chapter 18: Fungi Invade the Land

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Q1) ________________ are a type of association between plant roots and fungi in which the fungi do not penetrate the root cells.

Q2) Why are lichens good barometers of the presence of air pollution?

Q3) Fungi and ______ are the main decomposers in the biosphere.

A)protists

B)animals

C)plants

D)bacteria

Q4) The typical mushrooms,but not truffles or morels,belong to the: A)ascomycetes

B)basidiomycetes

C)zygomycetes

D)imperfect fungi

Q5) The symbiotic association between plant roots and fungi is called

Q6) The relationship between plant roots and fungi can best be described as:

A)an association

B)predation

C)mutualism

D)parasitism

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Chapter 19: Evolution of the Animal Phyla

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Q1) What group has a water vascular system,moves with tube feet,and has an endoskeleton?

A)Echinoderms

B)Arachnids

C)Crustaceans

D)Mandibulates

Q2) Chelicerates include the extinct trilobites,and modern-day horseshoe crab and:

A)lobsters

B)spiders and mites

C)nematodes

D)insects

Q3) Chordates can be characterized as having:

A)a notochord

B)a nerve cord

C)bilateral symmetry

D)All of the choices are correct.

Q4) We see that in the Eumetazoa,one of the advances is toward bilateral symmetry.What kinds of things does bilateral symmetry enable an organism to do?

Q5) An example of an echinoderm is a ______________________.

Q6) Describe a hypothesis for the origin of metazoans from single celled protists.

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Chapter 20: History of the Vertebrates

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Q1) Bony fish have a sensory system located along the sides of their bodies called the

Q2) Archaeopteryx is believed to be the transition fossil between reptiles and birds because Archaeopteryx had feathers and:

A)a tail similar to modern birds

B)scales

C)a long reptilian tail

D)a pointed,elongated mouth that could evolve into a beak

Q3) Bony fishes possess a lateral line system to:

A)regulate oxygen concentrations in their blood

B)cleanse the blood from toxins

C)detect changes in water pressure

D)store urine until excreted

E)regulate their buoyancy

Q4) For over ______ years,dinosaurs dominated the face of the earth.

A)10 thousand

B)1 million

C)10 million

D)50 million

E)150 million

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Chapter 21: How Humans Evolved

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Q1) The first evidence of full language capabilities was seen in:

A)Homo habilis

B)Homo erectus

C)Cro-Magnons

D)Neanderthals

Q2) The evolution of __________________ marks the beginning of the hominids.

Q3) Apes support their weight on ______,while monkeys use ________.

A)the back sides of their fingers;their hips

B)their hips;back sides of their fingers

C)the back sides of their fingers;the palms of their hands

D)the palms of their hands;hips

Q4) When the eyes are on the same plane of the head,this allows for ___________________ vision.

Q5) The very first primates were:

A)prosimians

B)monkeys

C)gibbons

D)apes

Q6) Molecular evidence from ___________ indicates that Homo sapiens were present the longest in Africa.

Page 23

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Chapter 22: The Animal Body and How It Moves

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Q1) _______________________ is only a single cell layer thick and lines the major body cavities.

A)Columnar epithelium

B)Simple epithelium

C)Cuboidal epithelium

D)Stratified epithelium

Q2) __________________ are the nerve cells of the body.

Q3) Choose the bone or set of bones that belong to the appendicular portion of the human skeleton.

A)Skull

B)Pelvic girdle

C)Vertebral column

D)Ribs

Q4) __________________________ are found in soft-bodied invertebrates,such as earthworms and jellyfish.

A)Hydraulic skeletons

B)Exoskeletons

C)Endoskeletons

D)None of these is correct.

Q5) Describe the nature and function of connective tissues.

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Chapter 23: Circulation

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Q1) After blood flows through the right ventricle of the human heart,its next major destination is:

A)the lungs

B)the arms

C)the systemic system

D)the left ventricle

Q2) Which is incorrect about the fish heart?

A)Blood returns to the heart through veins.

B)The heartbeat sequence in the fish is maintained in vertebrates that evolved later.

C)It is a 3-chambered heart shaped like a tube.

D)The electrical impulse that produces the contraction is initiated in the sinus venosus.

E)It pumps fully oxygenated blood to the body that has passed over the gills.

Q3) How do veins prevent the backflow of blood within them?

A)By having thick,muscular walls

B)Because of the tiny lumen inside them

C)They are capable of contracting

D)They possess flaplike valves

Q4) The veins leading from the lungs to the heart are the ____________ veins.

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Chapter 24: Respiration

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Q1) What is the main reason that lung cancer develops?

A)The person's immune system is nonfunctional

B)Exposure to allergens

C)Two tumor suppressor genes undergo mutations

D)Mitotic growth factors replicate

Q2) Fish move water in only one direction over their gills,permitting countercurrent flow.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Oxygen and carbon dioxide bind to the same sites on the hemoglobin molecule at different times.

A)True

B)False

Q4) In which animal is a crosscurrent flow system used for air exchange?

A)Birds

B)Lizards

C)Fish

D)Mammals

E)Whales

Q5) Why is smoking cigarettes so dangerous to human health?

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Chapter 25: The Path of Food Through the Animal Body

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Q1) An example of a trace element in the diet is:

A)cobalt

B)carbohydrates

C)protein

D)calcium

Q2) Why are so many nutritionists recommending that Americans increase the intake of fiber in their diets?

Q3) Intrinsic factor is made by parietal cells of the ___________ and needed for the intestinal absorption of _________.

A)mouth;iron

B)duodenum;calcium

C)stomach;vitamin B<sub>12</sub>

D)large intestine;fat

E)appendix;protein

Q4) Which of the following would constitute a normal BMI?

A)38

B)20

C)16

D)27

Q5) What are the three main functions of the stomach?

Page 27

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Chapter 26: Maintaining the Internal Environment

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Q1) In flatworms,protonephridia branch throughout the body into bulblike

Q2) Which excretory organs are found in insects?

A)Malpighian tubules

B)Nephridia

C)Nephron

D)Protonephridia

Q3) Freshwater fish drink water all the time to compensate for their tendency to lose water.

A)True

B)False

Q4) ________________ is the final product to be expelled from the body after the kidney has reabsorbed needed nutrients and water.

Q5) The regulation of the body's osmotic composition is called __________________.

Q6) Reptiles,birds,and insects excrete nitrogenous wastes in the form of:

A)urea

B)ammonia

C)uric acid

D)urine

Q7) Explain how Bowman's capsule works.

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Chapter 27: How the Animal Body Defends Itself

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Q1) When interleukin-2 is released in response to a virus invading body cells,___________________ are activated.

A)killer T cells

B)helper T cells

C)neutrophils

D)mast cells

Q2) What is the main problem that results in autoimmune diseases?

A)The body fails to distinguish between self and nonself antigens.

B)Helper T cells are not functioning correctly.

C)The memory T cells fail to respond for subsequent exposures to antigen.

D)Macrophages are not working.

E)There is too much IgD in the blood.

Q3) The two major phagocytic cells of the body are:

A)macrophages and neutrophils

B)B cells and T cells

C)mast cells and natural killer cells

D)B cells and neutrophils

E)plasma cells and monocytes

Q4) How is it that vertebrates are able to produce antibodies to virtually every foreign antigen with which they come in contact?

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Chapter 28: The Nervous System

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Q1) The ___________ is a cable of neurons arising from the base of the brain stem,extending downward through the vertebral column.

Q2) Compare the sympathetic nervous system with the parasympathetic nervous system.

Q3) Acetylcholine is a neurotransmitter which forms an excitatory synapse in ____ muscle and an inhibitory synapse in _____ muscle.

A)smooth;skeletal

B)skeletal;cardiac

C)cardiac;skeletal

D)skeletal;smooth

Q4) When the body wants to prolong or inhibit the transmission of an impulse from one neuron to the next,it often employs:

A)the electron transport chain

B)voltage end-gates

C)neuromodulators

D)electrical connections

Q5) Prozac,and drugs like it,promote the reabsorption of serotonin by the presynaptic cell.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 29: The Senses

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Sample Questions

Q1) The chamber of the inner ear that is shaped like a tightly-wound snail shell is the

Q2) The light that passes through the pupil is focused by the lens on the:

A)iris

B)sclera

C)retina

D)lens

E)choroids

Q3) Many fish have a ________________ system with hair cells that sense pressure waves.

Q4) There are _____ kinds of cone cells that allow us to see colors.

A)3

B)10

C)200

D)600

Q5) Describe the path that sound travels to reach the inner ear.

Q6) The sensory receptors that sense changes in the body's internal environment are called _______________.

Q7) List the types of information animals can sense about their internal environments.

Page 31

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Chapter 30: Chemical Signaling Within the Animal Body

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Sample Questions

Q1) _______________ hormone stimulates the male gonads to produce testosterone and triggers ovulation in females.

A)Adrenocorticotropic

B)Follicle-stimulating

C)Luteinizing

D)Growth

Q2) Both males and females produce follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH).

A)True

B)False

Q3) The adrenal glands are located:

A)at the base of the neck

B)on the kidneys

C)in the brain

D)in the testes

E)attached to the thyroid gland

Q4) A condition called a _____________ is caused by a lack of iodine in the diet.

Q5) The posterior pituitary releases ____________ that stimulates uterine contractions.

Q6) Peptide hormones employ ______________ that amplify the response of the cell.

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Q7) All steroid hormones in the body are manufactured from ______________.

Chapter 31: Reproduction and Development

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Sample Questions

Q1) Why are the testes suspended outside the body in humans?

Q2) A reproductive strategy in which one individual has both testes and ovaries is called:

A)fission

B)hermaphroditism

C)parthenogenesis

D)sexual reproduction

Q3) Sexual reproduction first evolved among the:

A)land-dwelling vertebrates

B)insects

C)amphibians

D)marine organisms

Q4) The developing embryo is termed a fetus at what stage?

A)After the third month

B)After implantation

C)At the ninth month of pregnancy

D)At the end of the second trimester

Q5) Most mammals,most cartilaginous fish,some amphibians,and a few reptiles have young developing within the female and obtaining nutrients from her blood,a relationship known as ________________.

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Chapter 32: Evolution of Plants

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Sample Questions

Q1) Of what advantage might it be for a plant to produce a seed rather than to be seedless?

Q2) List two of several of the adaptations plants evolved to enhance their survival on land.

Q3) When spores are released from the underside of the fern frond,they fall to the ground where they germinate,growing into:

A)haploid gametophytes

B)diploid sporophytes

C)haploid sporophytes

D)diploid gametophytes

Q4) Monocots typically have leaves with _________ veins and flowers with ______ parts per whorl.

A)netlike;3

B)netlike;4 to 5

C)parallel;3

D)parallel;4 to 5

E)netlike;6

Q5) A common name for secondary plant growth in stems is ________.

Q6) Why is the evolution of secondary growth important for plants?

Q7) _________ surrounds the seed(s)in flowering plants,aiding in dispersal.

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Chapter 33: Plant Form and Function

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Q1) The __________________ is a waxy band of cells surrounding endodermal cells in the root.

A)cortex

B)pericycle

C)root band

D)Casparian strip

Q2) The way water travels up the length of the stem is explained by the cohesion-adhesion-tension theory.

A)True

B)False

Q3) The two leaflike organs which may flank the base of the petiole where it joins the stem are called:

A)blade

B)palisades

C)stipules

D)casparian strips

E)pericycle

Q4) What causes the annual rings we see in the wood of trees?

Q5) Describe the primary growth of a stem and explain how growth of lateral shoots is suppressed.

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Chapter 34: Plant Reproduction and Growth

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following types of plants produce "suckers",or sprouts,which give rise to new plants?

A)Cherry

B)Apple

C)Raspberry

D)Blackberry

E)All of the choices are correct.

Q2) Flowers which contain only male or female structures are called:

A)perfect

B)imperfect

C)clones

D)gametophytes

Q3) Dioecious plants have:

A)perfect flowers

B)both male and female flowers

C)male or female flowers

D)only asexual reproduction

Q4) In short day plants,the P<sub>fr</sub> form of phytochrome suppresses

Q5) Give an example of a wind-pollinated plant._____________________

Page 36

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Chapter 35: Populations and Communities

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Sample Questions

Q1) Cattle egrets have a ________ relationship with African Cape Buffaloes.

A)parasitic

B)commensalistic

C)competitive

D)predator-prey

Q2) Which of the following tends to happen as a population approaches its carrying capacity?

A)increased competition for food

B)increased competition for shelter

C)increased competition for mating sites

D)increased competition for light

E)All of the choices are correct.

Q3) A biome is a community and the nonliving factors with which it interacts.

A)True

B)False

Q4) If a plant species grows where no life existed before,this is a:

A)primary succession

B)pioneering succession

C)biotic creation

D)secondary succession

Page 37

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Chapter 36: Ecosystems

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Sample Questions

Q1) When you eat a hamburger,you are the:

A)decomposer

B)producer

C)primary consumer

D)secondary consumer

E)tertiary consumer

Q2) Uncontrolled growth of algae in an aquatic ecosystem is due to a process known as ________________,caused by excessive inputs of nutrients.

Q3) When you eat a hamburger,you are eating at which trophic level?

A)Level 1

B)Level 2

C)Level 3

D)Level 4

Q4) Loss of water from the leaves of plants occurs mostly via a process known as:

A)transpiration

B)evaporation

C)dehydration

D)guttation

Q5) Why would few reptiles be found in the tundra?

Q6) The flow of energy is one way,but nutrients in ecosystems _____________.

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Chapter 37: Behavior and the Environment

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Sample Questions

Q1) The simplest type of learning is called _____ learning.

A)associative

B)classical

C)nonassociative

D)operant

Q2) During the mating season,male stickleback fish will respond to clay models with red bellies.The red belly:

A)is a fixed action stimulus

B)is a sign stimulus

C)is innate releasing stimulus

D)results in an operant conditioning response

Q3) The appearance of an egg outside of a goose's nest is called:

A)an innate releasing mechanism

B)a fixed action pattern

C)imprinting

D)a sign stimulus

Q4) ________ is altering behavior as a result of previous experience.

Q5) As an animal matures,it may form preferences or social attachments to other individuals.This is referred to as ________.

Q6) _____________ can be thought of as NOT responding to a stimulus.

39

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Chapter 38: Human Influences on the Living World

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Sample Questions

Q1) How many species of animals and plants will go extinct in our lifetimes?

A)One-fifth of the world's species

B)10,000

C)500

D)25

Q2) Acid precipitation is so deadly because it:

A)changes the pH of the ecosystems it falls into

B)blinds animals

C)increases rates of cancer

D)adheres to breathing passages

Q3) Acid precipitation kills forest trees because it:

A)burns and scars their bark

B)destroys their symbiotic mycorrhizae

C)defoliates them

D)acidifies the surrounding lakes

Q4) The hole in the ozone layer is primarily due to:

A)automobile exhaust

B)burning coal

C)CFCs in the upper atmosphere

D)use of non-CFC aerosols

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