Biology for Non-Majors Test Questions
Course Introduction
Biology for Non-Majors is an introductory course designed to provide students from diverse academic backgrounds with a broad understanding of fundamental biological concepts. The course covers topics such as cell structure and function, genetics, evolution, ecology, human biology, and the impact of biology on contemporary issues. Emphasis is placed on real-world applications, critical thinking, and the development of scientific literacy, enabling students to appreciate the relevance of biology in everyday life and informed decision-making. No prior background in science is required, and the course incorporates lectures, discussions, and interactive activities to engage learners effectively.
Recommended Textbook
Human Biology 14th Edition by Sylvia S. Mader Dr
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1647 Verified Questions
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Chapter 1: Exploring Life and Science
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Sample Questions
Q1) Jessica is interested in a new vitamin pill her friend recommended.Her friend told her that it really helped her.Should Jessica accept this type of evidence?
Answer: NO
Q2) Scientists who have a financial stake in a company are now required to state that when they do research.This is an example of
A)ethics in science.
B)financial planning.
C)a new business model.
D)a biotechnology revolution.
E)statistical significancE.
Answer: A
Q3) Humans are part of the biosphere and must live in harmony with it if we are to survive as a species.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Chemistry of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of bond is responsible for holding two water molecules together creating the properties of water?
A)hydrogen
B)covalent
C)ionic
D)polar
E)double covalent
Answer: A
Q2) Be has an atomic number of 4 and an atomic mass of 9.How many protons does it have?
A)4
B)5
C)9
D)13
E)7
Answer: A
Q3) Our body is capable of converting starch into glycogen.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a cell lacked ribosomes,it would not be able to
A)form a spindle apparatus.
B)synthesize proteins.
C)respire oxidatively.
D)break down fats.
E)produce ATP.
Answer: B
Q2) If the mitochondrion is the result of endosymbiosis,what membrane of the mitochondrion represents the engulfing vesicle?
A)the outer mitochondrial membrane
B)vacuole
C)cristae
D)matrix
E)grana
Answer: A
Q3) The cytoplasm is not considered a cellular organelle.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Organization and Regulation of Body Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Gynecologists perform yearly pap smears for women.This procedure is important in early diagnosis and prevention of what type of cancer?
A)breast cancer
B)colon cancer
C)cervical cancer
D)pancreatic cancer
E)liver cancer
Q2) Describe how you can tell the difference between simple squamous epithelium and simple cuboidal epithelium.
Q3) List the function and organs associated with urinary system.
Q4) Moving from the outside of the body,the first type of tissue encountered is epithelial tissue.
A)True B)False
Q5) List and describe the three types of cartilage.
Q6) With a negative feedback system,the value in question will vary around the set point. A)True B)False
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Chapter 5: Cardiovascular System: Heart and Blood
Vessels
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following heart tissues is not part of the internal conduction system of the heart?
A)atrioventricular bundle
B)atrioventricular node
C)Purkinje fibers
D)sinoatrial node
E)semilunar valve
Q2) What is the bursting of a blood vessel called?
A)embolus
B)aneurysm
C)thrombus
D)myocardial infarction
E)stroke
Q3) The cardiac muscle is supplied with nutrients from the blood within the heart itself.
A)True
B)False
Q4) All veins carry oxygen-poor blood.
A)True
B)False
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Cardiovascular System: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Monocytes are large blood cells that differentiate into A)megakaryocytes.
B)neutrophils.
C)globulins.
D)macrophages.
E)fibrinogens.
Q2) What makes the blood red?
A)albumin
B)hemoglobin
C)fibrinogen
D)globulins
E)platelets
Q3) If a person does not have enough iron in their diet,they may suffer from A)acidosis.
B)blood doping.
C)hemolysis.
D)anemia.
E)jaundicE.
Q4) List the 5 types of white blood cells and their functions.
Q5) List and describe the functions of blood in the human body.
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Chapter 7: The Lymphatic and Immune Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is in the correct order in the formation of antibodies?
A)antigen binds to BCR;B cell divides;B cell activated;plasma cells form
B)B cell activated;antigen binds to BCR;B cell divides;plasma cells form C)plasma cells form;B cell activated;B cell divides;antigen binds to BCR
D)antigen binds to BCR;B cell activated;B cell divides;plasma cells form E)plasma cells form;B cell divides;B cell activated;antigen binds to BCR
Q2) Phil was exposed to parasitic worms on a recent field trip to the tropics.Under these conditions,which antibody levels would be higher than normal?
A)IgA
B)IgG
C)IgD
D)IgM
E)IgE
Q3) When stung by a bee,Jackie goes into anaphylactic shock.This should be quickly treated with
A)epinephrine.
B)histamine.
C)cytokines.
D)interferon.
E)a vaccination.
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Chapter 8: Biology of Infectious Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a layer of the protein coat that surrounds the HIV genetic material?
A)matrix
B)capsid
C)nucleocapsid
D)protease
E)gp 120
Q2) How is Mycobacterium tuberculosis spread?
A)via airborne droplets
B)contaminated food or water
C)sexual intercourse
D)IV drug abuse
E)blood transfusions
Q3) What do MDR TB and MRSA have in common?
A)They are both transmitted by mosquito bites.
B)They both cause tuberculosis.
C)They are both multiple drug resistant bacteria.
D)Infections with both of these have declined dramatically in recent years.
E)They are both viruses.
Q4) Describe the causative agents and transmission of tuberculosis.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Digestive System and Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) What serves as an emulsifying agent for fats in the small intestine?
A)lipase
B)bile
C)amylase
D)pepsin
E)maltase
Q2) The BMI is useful because it tells you how much of your weight is due to adipose tissue regardless of your fitness,bone structure,or gender.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Recent studies of an oyster-rich bay indicated a high coliform count.What should the fisheries officers do?
A)Nothing.A high coliform count is normal.
B)Nothing.This is good for oyster production.
C)Shut down the bay.This is harmful to humans who eat the oysters.
D)Shut down the bay.This is harmful to the oysters.
E)Nothing.A high coliform count would be beneficial to humans who ate the oysters.
Q4) Explain the events of swallowing.
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Can you hold your breath until you die?
Q2) During respiration,which structure connects the larynx to the bronchiole tree?
A)trachea
B)glottis
C)lungs
D)alveoli
E)esophagus
Q3) If it were not for the nasal cavity,
A)we would not be able to speak.
B)more debris would enter the lungs.
C)oxygen would not be exchanged in the alveoli.
D)food would go down the wrong pipe.
E)air would not be conducted to the lungs.
Q4) Which of the following is not part of the respiratory system?
A)trachea
B)pharynx
C)esophagus
D)bronchus
E)nasal cavity
Q5) Explain the nervous system's control of the respiratory system.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The urethra is controlled by two sphincters,one composed of smooth muscle and one composed of skeletal muscle.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The success rate for a kidney transplant from even a relative is fairly low.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Why do some people not drink beverages with caffeine right before bedtime?
A)It increases the flow of urine and causes you to go to the bathroom during the night.
B)It decreases the flow of urine and can cause kidney stones.
C)It may affect the ability to sleep but caffeine has very little effect on the urinary system.
D)It can cause a headache if consumed late at night.
E)It can lead to diarrhea.
Q4) Tubular reabsorption requires both passive and active modes of reabsorption.
A)True
B)False
Q5) List the functions of the urinary system.
Q6) Explain the three steps involved in urine formation.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Skeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What of the following joints is a fibrous joint?
A)sutures between cranial bones
B)ribs and sternum
C)intervertebral disks
D)elbow
E)knee
Q2) Which bone in the body does not articulate with any other bone?
A)scapula
B)maxilla
C)hyoid
D)coccyx
E)temporal
Q3) Bone cells are called _________________ while cartilage cells are called ________________.
A)osteocytes,osteoblasts
B)lacunae,osteocytes
C)chondrocytes,lacunae
D)osteoblasts,chondrocytes
E)osteocytes,chondrocytes
Q4) Describe the steps involved in bone growth by endochondral ossification.
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Chapter 13: Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the name of the small gap that separates the axon terminal of a nerve from the sarcolemma?
A)T tubule
B)sliding filament
C)synaptic cleft
D)synaptic vesicle
E)sarcoplasmic reticulum
Q2) What happens to the actin and myosin filaments when a muscle contracts?
A)both of them shorten
B)both of them lengthen
C)both stay the same length
D)actin shortens while myosin lengthens
E)myosin shortens while actin lengthens
Q3) When the nerve signal reaches the axon terminal what happens next?
A)The muscle contracts.
B)The synaptic vesicles release neurotransmitter.
C)An electrical signal is formed that jumps the synaptic cleft.
D)H<sup>+</sup> is pumped into the synaptic cleft.
E)Myosin is released from the axon terminal.
Q4) List the functions of the skeletal muscles.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements concerning the primary motor area is not true?
A)The area that controls the thumb,fingers,and hand is larger than the area controlling the leg.
B)The primary motor area is located anterior to the central sulcus.
C)Control of muscles responsible for facial movements take up a large portion of the primary motor area.
D)Voluntary commands to skeletal muscles begin in the primary motor area.
E)The primary motor area is in the cerebellum.
Q2) Which of the following statements is not true concerning acetylcholine's function?
A)Acetylcholine has an excitatory effect on smooth muscle and glands.
B)Acetylcholine is active in both the CNS and PNS.
C)In the PNS,acetylcholine excites skeletal muscle.
D)In the PNS,acetylcholine inhibits cardiac muscle.
E)The enzyme acetylcholinesterase removes acetylcholine from the receiving cell's membranE.
Q3) The cells of the nervous tissue are all neurons,cells that transmit nerve impulses.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) When blood pressure increases,what type of sensory receptor detects this?
A)an exteroceptor called a chemoreceptor
B)an exteroceptor called a osmoreceptor
C)an exteroceptor called a nociceptor
D)an interoceptor called a baroreceptor
E)an interoceptor called a chemoreceptor
Q2) Golgi tendon organs are a type of cutaneous receptor for touch.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Describe the steps involved in the action of a muscle spindle.
Q4) Which receptors are associated with the sense of equilibrium?
A)mechanoreceptors
B)chemoreceptors
C)photoreceptors
D)thermoreceptors
E)nociceptors
Q5) Nociceptors are sensitive to mechanical,thermal,or electrical stimuli,or toxic substances.
A)True
B)False
17
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Chapter 16: Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Where are the adrenal glands located?
A)in the brain
B)in the neck
C)on top of the kidneys
D)near the ovaries/testes
E)near the small intestine
Q2) Which disorder is characterized by the overproduction of growth hormone in an adult?
A)acromegaly
B)diabetes mellitus
C)pituitary dwarfism
D)simple goiter
E)none of these
Q3) The hormone produced by the parathryoid gland influences the blood level rise of what product?
A)sodium
B)phosphate
C)calcium
D)glucose
E)cholesterol
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Chapter 17: Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following STDs is caused by a virus?
A)gonorrhea
B)chlamydia
C)HIV/AIDS
D)syphilis
E)vaginitis
Q2) The end result of meiosis I is
A)spermatogoniA.
B)primary spermatocytes.
C)secondary spermatocytes.
D)spermatids.
E)spermatozoa.
Q3) Which of the following hepatitis viruses is normally transmitted through contaminated drinking water?
A)A
B)B
C)C
D)D
E)G
Q4) In males,is there an organ analogous to the uterus in females?
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Chapter 18: Development and Aging
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following develops into the male genital ducts?
A)epididymis
B)urogenital groove
C)cloaca
D)Mullerian ducts
E)Wolffian ducts
Q2) Few neural cells in the cerebral cortex are lost during the normal aging process.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The sex of an individual is determined at the moment of fertilization.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Most birth defects are due to the inheritance of an abnormal number of chromosomes.
A)True B)False
Q5) The blood of the mother and the fetus mix in the placenta.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Patterns of Chromosome Inheritance
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Q1) What happens at the G<sub>2</sub> checkpoint?
A)The cell makes a commitment to divide.
B)The cell receives external signals to divide.
C)The cell checks that the DNA has replicated.
D)The cell makes sure the chromosomes are lined up correctly.
E)The cell enters G<sub>0</sub>.
Q2) What are the two parts of the cell cycle?
A)apoptosis and interphase
B)mitosis and cytokinesis
C)nucleus and cytoplasm
D)mitosis and meiosis
E)interphase and cell division
Q3) When a child is born,mitosis ceases to function.
A)True
B)False
Q4) List the stages of interphase and the events that occur during each of these stages.
Q5) In a karyotype,each chromosome contains two sister chromatids.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: Cancer
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Sample Questions
Q1) Contact inhibition means that
A)there are more chromosomes within the nucleus than there should be.
B)cells are able to divide without the presence of stimulatory growth factors.
C)cells only divide a certain specified number of times and then quit.
D)when cells come in contact with a neighbor,they stop dividing.
E)cells have gained the ability to invade lymphatic and blood vessels.
Q2) How often should a woman do a shower self-examination of her breasts for lumps,knots,or changes?
A)daily
B)once a week
C)once a month
D)once every 6 months
E)once a year
Q3) Tumor suppressor genes are often likened to the gas pedal of a car.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In the case of a proto-oncogene like Ras,both copies of the gene must be mutated to increase a predisposition to cancer.
A)True
B)False
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Patterns of Genetic Inheritance
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Q1) Can two parents that have a genetic disorder ever have a normal child?
Q2) If a person with type B blood marries a person with type A blood,what phenotypes can their children be?
A)all type A
B)all type B
C)types A and O
D)types B and O
E)types A,B,O,and AB
Q3) In a cross of a homozygous dominant parent and a homozygous recessive parent,what is the ratio of offspring that will exhibit the recessive phenotype?
A)0.
B)1/4.
C)1/2.
D)3/4.
E)1.
Q4) In an X-linked dominant trait,affected males pass the trait only to daughters.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Can a woman with an X-linked recessive disorder have normal sons?
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Chapter 22: DNA Biology and Technology
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Q1) What is the goal of functional genomics?
A)to determine all of the human genome sequence
B)to determine the genome sequence of other organisms useful to humans
C)to determine the purpose of our genes and how they form a human being
D)to determine how all the proteins within the cell interact
E)to carry out gene therapy for human diseases
Q2) How many genes did researchers think the human genome contained? How many did it contain?
A)3 billion;80,000
B)1 million;1 million
C)25,000;80,000
D)80,000;25,000
E)125 million;1 million
Q3) Ex vivo gene therapy has been used to treat which of the following diseases?
A)SCID
B)cardiovascular disease
C)Huntington disease
D)endocrine disorder
E)all of these
Q4) List and explain the 5 steps involved in DNA replication.
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Human Evolution
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Q1) Which of the following is not a species within the genus Homo?
A)Homo erectus
B)Homo habilis
C)Homo ramidus
D)Homo sapiens
E)Homo floresiensis
Q2) Biological evolution is the process whereby
A)humans descended from apes.
B)species change through time.
C)living cells arose from nonliving chemicals.
D)prokaryotic cells became eukaryotic cells.
E)only the strongest survivE.
Q3) Chinese cabbage,brussels sprouts,and kohlrabi are all derived from a single species via artificial selection.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Human characteristics did not evolve all at one time.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Are you likely to find abundant fossils of soft bodied animals like jellyfish?
Page 25
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Chapter 24: Global Ecology and Human Interferences
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Q1) How is carbon dioxide used by living organisms?
A)by breathing
B)by cellular respiration
C)by photosynthesis
D)by combustion
E)by decay
Q2) Phosphorus is needed by living organisms because it is a part of proteins.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Diagram an ecological pyramid that consists of four trophic levels.Indicate the category of organisms at each level and provide an example of an organism for each category.
Q4) What is another name for the taiga?
A)savanna
B)tropical rain forest
C)prairie
D)coniferous forest
E)tundra
Q5) Are humans capable of upsetting global biogeochemical cycles with their activities?
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Chapter 25: Human Population,global Resources,and Conservation
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Q1) Define an ecological footprint.
A)the total amount of resources used by an individual to meet their needs
B)the amount of food a person needs to eat
C)the amount of water a person needs to meet their needs
D)the amount of land a person needs to provide a place to live
E)the amount of energy a person needs to meet their needs
Q2) What is the current world's population?
A)almost 1 billion people
B)almost 3 billion people
C)almost 5 billion people
D)over 7 billion people
E)over 10 billion
Q3) Describe the factors that are contributing to the biodiversity extinction crisis we are currently experiencing.
Q4) Which of the following is an urban,not a rural,sustainability plan?
A)use low-flow or trickle irrigation
B)plant cover crops
C)use green roofs
D)use integrated pest management
E)plant multipurpose trees
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