Biology for Non-Majors Test Preparation
Course
Introduction
Biology for Non-Majors offers a broad introduction to fundamental biological concepts and their relevance to everyday life. Designed for students without a strong science background, the course covers topics such as cell structure and function, genetics, evolution, ecology, and the diversity of living organisms. Emphasis is placed on understanding how biology impacts health, society, and the environment, fostering scientific literacy and critical thinking skills. Through lectures, discussions, and hands-on activities, students gain an appreciation for the role of biology in the modern world.
Recommended Textbook
Human Biology 15th Edition by Sylvia S. Mader Dr
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25 Chapters
1653 Verified Questions
1653 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Exploring Life and Science
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Sample Questions
Q1) The general public needs to have an understanding of science in order to make informed decisions about the future of our species.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) The cell you are examining under the microscope appears to contain a nucleus.This organism belongs to the domain
A) Bacteria.
B) Archaea.
C) Eukarya.
D) Animalia.
E) Fungi.
Answer: C
Q3) Humans evolved from apes.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Chemistry of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Carbon dating is a common method employed in dating certain kinds of fossils.It is based on the radioactive decay of an isotope of carbon (C<sup>14</sup>).Referring to the atomic number of carbon attained from the periodic table,how many neutrons does C<sup>14</sup> have?
A) 2
B) 4
C) 8
D) 12
E) 14
Answer: C
Q2) List the functions of proteins.
Answer: Functions of proteins include:
1.support
2.enzymes that bring reactants together in chemical reactions
3.transport of substance through the cell membrane and within the cell
4.defense of the body from foreign substances
5.hormones that serve as intercellular messengers
6.motion of the body
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) How large is a nuclear pore in the nuclear envelope?
A) larger than a ribosome
B) larger than the Golgi apparatus
C) larger than the endoplasmic reticulum
D) smaller than a ribosome
E) smaller than a protein
Answer: A
Q2) What cellular organelle is especially abundant in phagocytic white blood cells?
A) nuclei
B) nucleoli
C) Golgi apparati
D) lysosomes
E) ribosomes
Answer: D
Q3) In the sodium-potassium pump,sodium and potassium are both pumped out of the cell via active transport.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Organization and Regulation of Body Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Stretch marks are the result of tears in the integumentary layer that contains fibrous connective tissue,elastin,and collagen.What is this region of the integumentary system called?
A) subcutaneous layer
B) Langerhans layer
C) epidermis
D) hypodermis
E) dermis
Q2) List the functions of and the organs associated with the urinary system.
Q3) It is thought that President Abraham Lincoln suffered from a genetic disorder known as Marfan syndrome.Which types of fibers are affected in this disorder?
A) elastic fibers
B) reticular fibers
C) collagen fibers
D) hyaline fibers
E) ground fibers
Q4) Skin accounts for nearly 15% of the weight of an average human.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Cardiovascular System: Heart and Blood
Vessels
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Sample Questions
Q1) If your pulse is 70 beats per minute,how fast is your heart beating?
A) 140 beats per minute
B) 35 beats per minute
C) 70 beats per minute
D) 120 beats per minute
E) 80 beats per minute
Q2) Describe the three general functions of the cardiovascular system.
Q3) What is the name of the thick,membranous sac that surrounds and protects the heart?
A) mesothelium
B) endothelium
C) pericardium
D) myocardium
E) epicardium
Q4) Which of the following is the largest artery of the systemic circuit?
A) aorta
B) vena cava
C) femoral artery
D) carotid artery
E) pulmonary artery
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Chapter 6: Cardiovascular System: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following substances is not considered part of blood plasma?
A) dissolved O<sub>2</sub>
B) glucose
C) urea
D) albumin
E) red blood cells
Q2) The production of leukocytes is regulated by
A) rennin.
B) erythropoietin.
C) colony-stimulating factor.
D) folic acid.
E) prolactin.
Q3) What percentage of carbon dioxide carried in blood is dissolved in plasma?
A) 0%
B) 1%
C) 5%
D) 7%
E) 10%
Q4) List the five types of white blood cells and their functions.
Q5) List and describe the functions of blood in the human body.
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Chapter 7: The Lymphatic and Immune Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) In _____ immunity,the individual produces antibodies against particular pathogens,while in _____ immunity,the individual is given specific antibodies against a pathogen.
A) active; neutral
B) passive; neutral
C) active; passive
D) passive; active
E) neutral; active
Q2) Phil was exposed to parasitic worms on a recent field trip to the tropics.Under these conditions,which antibody levels would be higher than normal?
A) IgA
B) IgG
C) IgD
D) IgM
E) IgE
Q3) Explain the presence and function of the IgA class of antibodies.
Q4) List and describe the body's innate defenses.
Q5) In SCID,antibodies are missing,but T cells function normally.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: Infectious Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Of the following modes of HIV transmission,which is the least common mode and rare in many countries?
A) transfusions of infected blood
B) vaginal/rectal intercourse with an infected person
C) needle sharing among IV drug users
D) babies born to HIV-infected women
E) oral-genital contact with an infected person
Q2) Which of the following diseases is considered an emerging disease?
A) SARS
B) H1N1
C) H5N1
D) strep throat
E) All of these are considered emerging diseases.
Q3) When were the first cases of SARS reported?
A) 2002
B) 1992
C) 1820
D) 1920
E) 2012
Q4) Describe the causative agents and transmission of tuberculosis.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Digestive System and Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not produced by the pancreas?
A) bile
B) sodium bicarbonate
C) amylase
D) trypsin
E) lipase
Q2) The gallbladder produces bile.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is not considered an accessory organ of the digestive system?
A) liver
B) salivary glands
C) small intestine
D) pancreas
E) gallbladder
Q4) Constipation can be treated by adding fiber to the diet.
A)True
B)False
Q5) List the functions of the liver.
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Chapter 10: Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) One of the main symptoms of a sinus infection is hoarseness.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which part of the lower respiratory tract integrates the respiratory system with the cardiovascular system?
A) lungs
B) bronchial tree
C) trachea
D) esophagus
E) sinus cavity
Q3) Why is the actual flow of air into the alveoli during inspiration passive?
A) because there is a continuous column of air from the pharynx to the alveoli
B) because the lungs are surrounded by the thoracic wall
C) because the alveoli have a very large surface area
D) because the intercostal muscles are involved
E) because the diaphragm is involved
Q4) Which part of the pharynx is not matched to its correct location?
A) nasopharynx: where the nasal cavities open at the top
B) oropharynx: where the sinuses open
C) laryngopharynx: where the pharynx opens into the larynx
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is one of the earliest signs of nephron damage?
A) burning upon urination
B) extreme pain
C) albumin or formed elements in the urine
D) the absence of urination
E) edema
Q2) The kidneys are much more powerful than the acid-base buffer and the respiratory center mechanisms in controlling blood pH.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following does not assist the kidneys in excretion of nitrogenous wastes?
A) liver
B) sweat glands
C) muscles
D) blood
E) pancreas
Q4) An enlarged prostate gland can lead to kidney stones in males.
A)True
B)False
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Skeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many vertebrae are there?
A) 5
B) 10
C) 18
D) 24
E) 33
Q2) Which joint has the greatest range of motion?
A) synovial
B) suture
C) fibrous
D) cartilaginous
E) All of these are equally movable.
Q3) When you kick your foot out in front of you,what type of movement are you using?
A) adduction and abduction
B) flexion and extension
C) rotation
D) eversion
E) inversion
Q4) Describe the steps involved in bone growth by endochondral ossification.
Q5) List and describe the three types of joints found in the human body.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What does the word brevis mean when referring to a muscle?
A) large
B) small
C) huge
D) long
E) short
Q2) One sarcomere
A) extends from Z line to Z line.
B) is composed of many myofibrils.
C) contains only actin fibers.
D) is composed of many muscle fibers.
E) surrounds each muscle in the body.
Q3) One motor unit obeys a principle called the all-or-none law.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Explain the differences between fast-twitch and slow-twitch muscle fibers.
Q5) Skeletal muscle contractions play a role in returning the venous blood to the heart.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The cerebrum is associated with the
A) two lateral ventricles.
B) third ventricle.
C) fourth ventricle.
D) posterior ventricle.
E) anterior ventricle.
Q2) Which of the following is not a function of the nervous system?
A) receive sensory input
B) cushion and protect soft tissue
C) perform information processing
D) perform integration
E) generate motor output
Q3) Which brain structure is associated with the limbic system?
A) hippocampus
B) frontal lobes
C) medulla oblongata
D) pons
E) brain stem
Q4) List the structures associated with the brain stem and indicate their primary function.
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Chapter 15: Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Golgi tendon organs are a type of cutaneous receptor for touch.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Nerve signals from taste buds go primarily to the ________,while those for olfactory cells go primarily to the ________.
A) hypothalamus, thalamus
B) thalamus, hypothalamus
C) temporal lobe, parietal lobe
D) spinal cord, cerebral cortex
E) parietal lobe, temporal lobe
Q3) It is just a myth that eating carrots will improve your night vision.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Memories are often elicited by smell.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The receptor proteins for odor molecules are actually located on cilia.
A)True
B)False
Q6) List the four categories of sensory receptors and describe what they respond to.
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is not true about growth hormone?
A) Growth hormone is produced by the posterior pituitary.
B) The quantity of growth hormone is greatest during childhood and adolescence.
C) Too little growth hormone results in dwarfism.
D) Too much growth hormone results in gigantism.
E) Growth hormone can be administered as a medical treatment for stature
Q2) Where is the thymus gland located?
A) in the neck
B) in the brain
C) in the chest
D) near the ovaries/testes
E) on top of the kidneys
Q3) Which pancreatic hormone stimulates the uptake of glucose by cells?
A) insulin
B) glucagon
C) estradiol
D) epinephrine
E) cortisol
Q4) Explain how the adrenal cortex responds to long term stress.
Q5) Describe the characteristics of individuals with type 2 diabetes.
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Chapter 17: Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) How much does the uterus stretch in order to accommodate a growing fetus?
A) 2 times normal size
B) 3 times normal size
C) 4 times normal size
D) 5 times normal size
E) 6 times normal size
Q2) During IVF,where does conception occur?
A) in the vagina
B) in the uterus
C) in the oviducts
D) in the laboratory
E) in the fimbriae
Q3) Which of the following is not involved in achieving and maintaining an erection?
A) nitrous oxide
B) cGMP
C) smooth muscle
D) blood
E) urethra
Q4) List and describe the five functions of the reproductive system.
Q5) Describe the six stages of the ovarian cycle that a follicle will go through.
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Chapter 18: Development and Aging
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is present in the fetus but not in an adult human?
A) ductus arteriosus
B) pulmonary vein
C) left atrium
D) superior vena cava
E) internal iliac artery
Q2) Which of the following gives the correct order of layers the sperm crosses when entering the egg?
A) corona radiata, zona pellucida, oocyte plasma membrane
B) zona pellucida, oocyte plasma membrane, corona radiata
C) oocyte plasma membrane, corona radiata, zona pellucida
D) corona radiata, oocyyte plasma membrane, zona pellucida
E) zona pellucida, corona radiata, oocyte plasma membrane
Q3) The nervous system is to the ectoderm as the skeleton is to the A) mesoderm.
B) endoderm.
C) chorion.
D) allantois.
E) blastula.
Q4) Summarize the events that occur during each stage of birth.
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Patterns of Chromosome Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of change in chromosome structure characterizes cri du chat syndrome?
A) deletion
B) duplication
C) translocation
D) inversion
E) trisomy
Q2) At what two checkpoints does the cell check for the integrity of the DNA?
A) G<sub>1</sub> and G<sub>2</sub>
B) G<sub>1</sub> and mitotic
C) G<sub>2</sub> and mitotic
D) cytokinesis and G<sub>2</sub>
E) G<sub>1</sub> and cytokinesis
Q3) When does a chromosome go from one chromatid to two sister chromatids?
A) during the G<sub>1</sub> phase of interphase
B) during the S phase of interphase
C) during the G<sub>2</sub> phase of interphase
D) during mitosis
E) during cytokinesis
Q4) List the stages of meiosis I and explain the events that occur during each stage.
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Chapter 20: Cancer
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Sample Questions
Q1) What type of test is a CEA test?
A) self-examination
B) a type of prostate cancer test
C) a type of cervical cancer test
D) a genetic test
E) a tumor marker test
Q2) Which of the following dietary changes will not reduce your risk of developing cancer?
A) Increase your consumption of dark green, leafy vegetables; carrots; and various fruits.
B) Avoid obesity.
C) Decrease your consumption of high-fiber foods.
D) Drink alcohol only in moderation.
E) Avoid ham and sausage.
Q3) List standard therapies and newer therapies for the treatment of cancer.
Q4) Epstein-Barr virus is routinely isolated from cases of cervical cancers.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain what CAUTION means as the acronym for the warning signs of cancer.
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Chapter 21: Patterns of Genetic Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Even though sickle-cell disease is inherited as an autosomal recessive disorder,the heterozygote can express some variation of the recessive phenotype.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following genetic disorders is due to a lack of the lysosome enzyme hex A?
A)cystic fibrosis
B)Tay-Sachs disease
C)Huntington disease
D)sickle-cell disease
E)Marfan syndrome
Q3) Clasp your hands together (without thinking about it).Which thumb is on top every time you do this? The dominant phenotype is left thumb on top.If you have the genotype tt,which thumb is on top?
A) left
B) right
C) left 50% of the time and right 50% of the time
D) left 25% of the time and right 75% of the time
E) left 75% of the time and right 25% of the time
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Dna Biology and Technology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The start codon for translation is
A) UAG.
B) UAA.
C) AAA.
D) AUG.
E) AGU.
Q2) How many different amino acids are found in proteins?
A) 5
B) 10
C) 20
D) 50
E) over 100
Q3) Which of the following is not a level of regulation of gene expression?
A) Pretranscriptional
B) Transcriptional
C) Posttranscriptional
D) Prereplicational
E) Translational
Q4) List and explain the five steps involved in DNA replication.
Q5) Transcribe and then translate the following DNA code: AATCGGTTCCATCGG
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Chapter 23: Human Evolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a difference between the human skeleton and the chimpanzee skeleton?
A) The human foot has an arch, while the ape foot does not.
B) The human femur angles inward to the knees, while the ape femur angles out a bit.
C) The human spine is S-shaped, while the ape spine has a slight curve.
D) The human knee can support more weight than the ape knee.
E) The ribs attach to the vertebral column in humans, but are free-floating in apes.
Q2) Are you likely to find abundant fossils of soft-bodied animals,like jellyfish?
A)True
B)False
Q3) In the out-of-Africa hypothesis,there was interbreeding between the ancestors of modern humans on three continents.
A)True
B)False
Q4) There are no transitional fossils between different groups.
A)True
B)False
Q5) List and explain the elements of the natural selection process.
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Chapter 24: Ecology and the Nature of Ecosystems
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the energy in an ecosystem eventually becomes
A) sunlight.
B) feces.
C) heat.
D) detritus.
E) body mass.
Q2) As a rule of thumb,how much of the food energy taken in by an herbivore is passed on to a carnivore (primary consumer)?
A) 1%
B) 5%
C) 10%
D) 50%
E) 90%
Q3) To say that something is a producer is to give information regarding its niche in an ecosystem.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Phosphorus is needed by living organisms because it is a part of proteins.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 25: Human Interactions With the Biosphere
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Q1) Describe the factors that are contributing to the biodiversity extinction crisis we are currently experiencing.
Q2) Which of the following is an indirect,as opposed to a direct,value of biodiversity?
A) medical use
B) food
C) consumptive use
D) ecotourism
E) agricultural use
Q3) Which of the following is not an unsustainable practice of society?
A) reduction in population growth rate
B) eating more meat than vegetables
C) using more freshwater resources for agriculture than in homes
D) using large amounts of fossil fuels, fertilizers, and pesticides
E) deforestation and desertification
Q4) The carrying capacity of Earth for humans is approximately 8 billion people.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain the consequences of groundwater depletion.
Q6) List and describe the criteria that are used to measure quality of life.
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