

Biology for Non-Majors Solved Exam Questions

Course Introduction
Biology for Non-Majors provides an accessible introduction to the fundamental principles of biology for students not pursuing a degree in the life sciences. The course covers essential topics such as cell structure and function, genetics, evolution, ecology, and human biology, emphasizing their relevance to everyday life. Through engaging lectures, discussions, and laboratory experiences, students gain an understanding of how living systems operate and interact, enabling them to make informed decisions about biological issues in society and their personal lives.
Recommended Textbook
Biology Science for Life with Physiology 4th Edition by Colleen M. Belk
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24 Chapters
1705 Verified Questions
1705 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Can Science Cure the Common Cold?
Introduction to the Scientific Method
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74 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A news report on CNN that describes recently published research on a new treatment for colds is an example of a(n)
A) anecdote.
B) primary source.
C) secondary source.
D) peer-reviewed report.
Answer: C
Q2) What hypothesis was tested by Warren and Marshall during their research involving Helicobacter pylori bacteria and stomach ulcers?
A) Eating spicy food increases populations of H. pylori in the stomachs of people susceptible to ulcers.
B) The cause of many stomach ulcers is the bacterium H. pylori, not spicy food.
C) Stomach acid production is decreased by H. pylori bacteria in the stomachs of people who have ulcers.
D) Acute stomach pain is often caused by H. pylori bacteria, not ulcers.
Answer: B
Q3) ________ reasoning takes the form of "if/then" statements.
Answer: Deductive
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Sample Questions
Q1) What kind of bond holds the atoms of a single water molecule together?
A) hydrogen bonds
B) ionic bonds
C) covalent bonds that are not polar
D) covalent bonds that are polar
Answer: D
Q2) According to the theory of evolution, which states that all life-forms on Earth arose from a common ancestor, all living organisms
A) share a common organic chemistry.
B) have DNA within their nucleus.
C) exhibit the same basic cell wall.
D) perform the same mode of reproduction.
Answer: A
Q3) If life on Mars is fundamentally like life on Earth, its macromolecules will be based on which element?
A) carbon
B) hydrogen
C) nitrogen
D) oxygen
Answer: A

Page 4
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Chapter 3: Is It Possible to Supplement Your Way to Better

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Sample Questions
Q1) During diffusion, solute molecules move
A) up a concentration gradient of solute molecules.
B) down a concentration gradient of solvent molecules.
C) down a concentration gradient of solute molecules.
D) unpredictably with regards to a concentration gradient of solvent molecules.
Answer: C
Q2) A ________ (two words)has been stripped of most of its nutrients.
Answer: processed food
Q3) Scurvy is a disease that is caused by a deficiency of what vitamin?
A) vitamin A
B) vitamin B<sub>6</sub>
C) vitamin C
D) vitamin E
Answer: C
Q4) Which food is most likely to contain all essential amino acids?
A) beef
B) carrots
C) corn
D) rice
Answer: A
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following occurs inside the mitochondria?
A) glycolysis
B) fermentation
C) citric acid cycle and electron transport
D) glycolysis and electron transport
Q2) During glycolysis, a 6-carbon glucose molecule is broken into two 3-carbon molecules of ________ (two words).
Q3) Shannon has considered herself an extremely healthy person for most of her life. She is a marathon runner and watches her diet very carefully. She has 8% body fat, weighs 105 pounds, and is 5 foot 10 inches tall. Shannon might not actually be as healthy as she thinks because she
A) is overweight for her height.
B) likely has metabolic problems associated with high blood pressure.
C) doesn't have enough body fat for menstruation or pregnancy.
D) doesn't consume enough nutrients for normal bodily functions.
Q4) Eating disorders in which the body is starved of calories are dangerous because
A) menstruation can cease, causing sterility.
B) the risk of stroke can increase.
C) they can cause adult-onset diabetes or noninsulin-dependent diabetes.
D) they can lead to high blood pressure and weakened heart muscles.
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Chapter 5: Life in the Greenhouse: Photosynthesis and Global Warming
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Sample Questions
Q1) Glucose is a molecule that supplies ________ to cells.
Q2) The thick fluid found inside chloroplasts is known as
A) grana.
B) stroma.
C) chlorophyll.
D) thylakoids.
Q3) The planet Mercury is closer to the sun than the planet Venus. However, temperatures on Venus are hotter than temperatures on Mercury. Why would this be the case?
A) Mercury has a thicker atmosphere than Venus that blocks heat from the sun.
B) Mercury spins more quickly than Venus, so its surface cannot heat up as quickly.
C) Venus has a thicker atmosphere than Mercury that traps heat from the sun.
D) Venus is cooled by high concentrations of water vapor in its atmosphere.
Q4) A CAM plant
A) uses 4-carbon sugars to pump carbon dioxide molecules to the Calvin cycle.
B) is often used in agriculture because of its ability to conserve water.
C) slows water loss by opening stomata only at night.
D) tends to grow very slowly because of its inability to undergo the Calvin cycle.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Cancer: DNA Synthesis, Mitosis, and Meiosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the name of the process by which cancer cells break off of tumors and spread to other parts of the body?
A) angiogenesis
B) carcinogenesis
C) metastasis
D) mutagenesis
Q2) A ________ is a surgical instrument used to perform biopsies.
Q3) Crossing over occurs during
A) anaphase I of meiosis I.
B) anaphase II of meiosis II.
C) prophase I of meiosis I.
D) prophase II of meiosis II.
Q4) During which phase of mitosis does the cytoplasm divide?
A) prophase
B) anaphase
C) metaphase
D) telophase
Q5) ________ are places in the cell cycle where proteins survey the cell to make sure that conditions for a favorable cell division have been met.
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Mendelian and Quantitative Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) A scientist studying the heritability of IQ would expect to find the highest correlation between the IQ scores of
A) two unrelated children.
B) a child and his mother.
C) monozygotic twins.
D) dizygotic twins.
Q2) Gregor Mendel's genetic research
A) was not appreciated by the scientific community until after he died.
B) focused on pea plants because they have fewer than four different heritable traits.
C) produced results that can be used to predict heritability in plants but not animals.
D) included detailed studies on the phenomena of codominance and incomplete dominance.
Q3) Segregation of alleles occurs when
A) homologous chromosomes separate during meiosis.
B) homologous chromosomes separate during mitosis.
C) sister chromatids separate during meiosis.
D) sister chromatids separate during mitosis.
Q4) The ________ of an organism is the genetic makeup of that organism.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: DNA Detective: Complex Patterns of Inheritance and
DNA Fingerprinting
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Sample Questions
Q1) A person with hemophilia lacks the pleiotropic gene that codes for the protein called clotting factor VIII. This means that he or she will A) have only the symptom of lack of blood clotting (bleeding). B) always have the same symptoms as other hemophiliacs. C) have many other symptoms in addition to excessive bleeding. D) always have neurological problems.
Q2) Hemophilia is a genetic disease that has plagued the royal houses of Europe. The disease allele is recessive and X-linked. Queen Victoria was a carrier, and her granddaughter Alexandra married Nicholas II, the last czar of imperial Russia. Alexandra was a carrier for hemophilia; Nicholas was normal. Their son, Alexis, was afflicted with the disease. Alexis and his four sisters were killed in 1917. It's most likely that A) none of the four sisters carried the hemophilia allele. B) at least one of the sisters was a carrier of the allele. C) all four sisters were carriers of the hemophilia allele. D) at least one of the sisters had hemophilia like Alexis.
Q3) The alleles responsible for the ABO blood types of humans are an example of ________ alleles.
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Chapter 9: Genetically Modified Organisms: Gene
Expression, Mutation, and Cloning
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Sample Questions
Q1) The process of copying a sequence of DNA nucleotides into a complementary sequence of RNA nucleotides is called
A) translation.
B) mutation.
C) transcription.
D) excision.
Q2) Which of the following serves as the template during transcription?
A) DNA
B) mRNA
C) tRNA
D) polymerase
Q3) Approximately ________ of the foods in American grocery stores contain at least small amounts of GMOs.
A) less than 10%
B) 25%
C) 50%
D) over 75%
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Chapter 10: Where Did We Come From? The Evidence for Evolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following levels would contain members that are the most similar?
A) class
B) genus
C) kingdom
D) order
Q2) Which of the following is an example of microevolution?
A) Birds evolved from dinosaurs.
B) Lions and tigers evolved from a common cat-like ancestor.
C) HIV evolved resistance to antiviral medications.
D) Land plants evolved from algae.
Q3) The nonfunctional wings of an ostrich are an example of what sort of evidence for the theory of common descent?
A) vestigial structures
B) homologous structures
C) shared developmental pathways
D) DNA similarity
Q4) The fields of science that support the theory of evolution include geology, molecular biology, and genetics.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: An Evolving Enemy: Natural Selection
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Sample Questions
Q1) It is most likely that dinosaur populations became extinct because A) their environment changed.
B) different alleles became dominant in the populations.
C) mutations became common in the populations.
D) they were not perfectly adapted to their environment.
Q2) In a population, which individuals are most likely to survive and reproduce?
A) The individuals who are best adapted to the environment.
B) The largest individuals in the group.
C) The individuals who can catch the most prey.
D) The individuals who grow the most rapidly.
Q3) Which of the following is true of individuals who are well adapted for a particular environment?
A) They may or may not be equally fit in another environment.
B) They are the best fit for all other environments.
C) They are at a disadvantage in other environments.
D) They will mutate to become fit in other environments.
Q4) Traits that increase fitness in a particular environment are called ________.
Q5) After four observations, Darwin made the inference that natural selection causes ________.
Q6) The raw material for evolution is ________.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Who Am I? Species and Races
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Sample Questions
Q1) In what type of population would evolution occur most rapidly?
A) a large population with a large gene pool
B) a small population with a relatively diverse gene pool
C) a small population with a small gene pool
D) a large population with a relatively limited gene pool
Q2) A genealogical species definition includes fewer organisms than a biological species definition.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Where can you find the most genetically diverse populations of humans?
A) Europe
B) Central America
C) Africa
D) Pacific Islands
Q4) After a speciation event
A) two species have evolved that are each different from the original species.
B) one new species evolves, while the original species stays the same.
C) one new species evolves, while the original species may stay the same or evolve into something different.
D) one new species evolves, while the original species goes extinct.
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Chapter 13: Prospecting for Biological Gold: Biodiversity and Classification
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Sample Questions
Q1) Taxol is the most well-known anticancer chemical. Taxol was obtained from a species in which of the following groups?
A) Plantae
B) Protista
C) Animalia
D) Bacteria
Q2) Why is it so difficult for scientists to know how many species have already been described?
A) Scientific journals do not publish accounts of new species.
B) There isn't one location for cataloguing all species.
C) Scientists are too busy testing hypotheses to investigate the number of species on Earth.
D) Many species are microscopic, so they are difficult to study.
Q3) Algae are classified as part of which group?
A) Plantae
B) Protista
C) Fungi
D) Archaea
Q4) The first antibiotic, discovered as a result of a laboratory accident, was ________.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Is the Human Population Too Large? Population Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) When you look at the spacing of humans on a global level, the population follows a(n)________ distribution.
A) clumped
B) uniform
C) random
D) indescribable
Q2) The global human population increases by ________ people per day.
A) 1000
B) 12,500
C) 250,000
D) 2,500,000
Q3) Net primary productivity refers to all the energy in the plants and animals in a food chain at any particular time.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A population that's exhibiting exponential growth
A) will have growth proportional to the current total.
B) shows a decreased growth rate over time.
C) doubles every year.
D) has as many individuals being born as are dying.
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Chapter 15: Conserving Biodiversity: Community and Ecosystem Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following can be considered a predator?
A) dandelion
B) wood warbler
C) honey bee
D) cow
Q2) All individuals of all species living within an area of interest represent a(n)
A) ecosystem.
B) community.
C) population.
D) trophic level.
Q3) Not everyone can travel to a remote area of the world to protect a rare habitat, but there are choices each of us can make each day to reduce habitat destruction and slow the rate of species extinction. Which of the following could you do to reduce habitat destruction caused by the mining, drilling, and transport of fossil fuels?
A) eat lower on the food chain
B) only buy products that are sustainably harvested
C) carpool or use public transportation
D) keep the thermostat turned to warmer levels in winter and cooler levels in summer
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Chapter 16: Where Do You Live? Climate and Biomes
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Sample Questions
Q1) The fragrant oils found in rosemary and thyme
A) encourage humans to pick them and spread their seeds.
B) protect the plants from fire.
C) help fuel fires, to which they've become adapted.
D) discourage humans from consuming the plants.
Q2) Which city is more likely to experience the largest temperature changes throughout an average year?
A) Chicago, Illinois
B) Houston, Texas
C) Albuquerque, New Mexico
D) Nashville, Tennessee
Q3) Which major biome type contains most of Earth's biodiversity?
A) desert
B) tundra
C) grasslands
D) forests
Q4) In a general sense, ________ refers to short term environmental conditions, and ________ refers to long term environmental conditions.
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Chapter 17: Organ Donation: Tissues Organs and Organ Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) The liver filters which of the following from the blood?
A) toxins
B) chyme
C) hepatocytes
D) glycogen
Q2) Platelets are cells found in a type of
A) epithelial tissue.
B) muscle tissue.
C) nervous tissue.
D) connective tissue.
Q3) Over time, how do skeletal muscle cells respond to regular weight-lifting exercise?
A) They get larger, making the overall muscle bigger.
B) They multiply, making the overall muscle bigger.
C) They are able to contract for longer periods of time.
D) They contain more actin and less myosin.
Q4) In a(n)________ digestive system, a single structure serves as both the mouth and the anus.
Q5) Osteocytes are cells that secrete substances to make the connective tissue called
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Chapter 18: Clearing the Air: Respiratory Cardiovascular and Excretory Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following best describes an artery?
A) Arteries carry blood away from the heart.
B) Arteries carry oxygenated blood.
C) Arteries contain valves.
D) Arteries have thinner walls than veins.
Q2) The region of the heart that acts as the heart's pacemaker is called the A) SA node.
B) AV node.
C) semilunar valve.
D) ventricle.
Q3) During exhalation, when the diaphragm relaxes and the volume of the chest cavity decreases, air pressure ________ inside the lungs.
A) increases
B) decreases
C) decreases, then increases D) is unchanged
Q4) ________ is the chemical in tobacco smoke that's able to activate the brain's reward pathways, thus making smoking a very addictive process.
Q5) The functional units of the kidneys are called ________.
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Chapter 19: Vaccinations: Protection and Prevention or Peril?
Immune System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Infectious diseases differ from genetic diseases in that infectious diseases are usually contagious.
A)True
B)False
Q2) T cells undergo further maturation in the ________ gland.
A) adrenal
B) thyroid
C) thymus
D) pituitary
Q3) Where would you be most likely to encounter E. coli bacteria?
A) in bulging canned foods
B) on the surface of the skin
C) in unpasteurized milk
D) in the walls of the lungs
Q4) Which of the following requires a host cell because they aren't able to make proteins on their own?
A) blue-green algae
B) bacteria
C) protozoans
D) viruses
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Chapter 20: Sex Differences and Athleticism: Endocrine
Skeletal and Muscular Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Consider the figure illustrating the two major classes of hormones and their actions. Which class of hormones would you expect to be ideally suited for long-term processes such as growth and development?
A) Protein hormones, because they can relay messages.
B) Steroid hormones, because they can turn specific genes on or off.
C) Protein hormones, because they cannot cross cell membranes.
D) Steroid hormones, because they can diffuse across cell membranes.
Q2) A tumor in an endocrine gland caused Jane to have weakened bones and unusually high levels of blood calcium. Which of the following was affected?
A) parathyroid glands
B) thyroid glands
C) bone marrow
D) pituitary gland
Q3) Which of the following endocrine glands is involved in producing immune cells?
A) thyroid gland
B) parathyroid glands
C) thymus
D) pancreas
Q4) A human's soft internal organs are protected by the ________ skeleton.
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Is There Something in the Water? Reproductive and Developmental Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A disease of the bulbourethral glands could lead to
A) insufficient levels of sugar available for sperm to use for energy.
B) semen lacking any sperm.
C) damaged sperm due to exposure to acidic urine.
D) semen lacking the thin, milky white fluid.
Q2) What is the final product after a primary oocyte goes through meiosis?
A) four secondary oocytes
B) three secondary oocytes and one polar body
C) two secondary oocytes and polar bodies
D) one secondary oocyte and polar bodies
Q3) Which of these methods of birth control prevents follicle development?
A) diaphragm
B) birth control pill
C) female condom
D) intrauterine device
Q4) Hermaphrodites are organisms that are genetically male but physically resemble both males and females.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The ________ system allows survival of different species.
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Chapter 22: Attention Deficit Disorder: Brain Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which word best describes the thalamus?
A) processor
B) reflexor
C) regulator
D) transmitter
Q2) Which of the following would allow you to move your hand away from a hot burner after touching it?
A) sensory neuron
B) interneuron
C) motor neuron
D) glial cell
Q3) Neurobiologists have detected which of the following differences in the brains of people with ADD?
A) increased folding in the cerebral cortex
B) enlarged caudate nucleus in the left hemisphere
C) enlarged cerebellum
D) decreased volume of the cerebral cortex
Q4) Electrical signals travel faster down unmyelinated axons than myelinated axons.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 23: Feeding the World: Plant Structure and Growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the life cycle of plants the spore is a
A) diploid structure.
B) nonreproductive structure.
C) haploid structure.
D) triploid endosperm.
Q2) The human race relied upon hunting and gathering, with no agriculture, for its first
A) 1,500,000 years.
B) 1,000,000 years.
C) 500,000 years.
D) 250,000 years.
Q3) Staple crops are the
A) major agricultural sources of calories in a society.
B) plants in which the gametophyte stage is dominant.
C) manioc plants eaten by people in Europe.
D) vegetative organs of grasses.
Q4) When farmers plant a single crop over a large area of land, it's called ________.
Q5) The emergence of a plant embryo from a seed is called ________.
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Chapter 24: Growing a Green Thumb: Plant Physiology
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Q1) Plants that drop their leaves on an annual basis are called A) annuals.
B) perennials.
C) deciduous.
D) biennials.
Q2) Cytosol leaks into plant cell vacuoles when
A) water freezes outside a plant cell.
B) water freezes inside a plant cell.
C) severe drought conditions shut down normal rates of transpiration.
D) the critical night length isn't met.
Q3) The time from the final frost in the spring to the first frost in the fall is called A) transpiration.
B) hardiness.
C) a growing season.
D) translocation.
Q4) The response of a plant to the proportion of light and dark in a day is called ________.
Q5) The xylem tubes of drought-adapted plant species have narrow, tapering cells called ________.
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