Biology for Non-majors Review Questions
Course Introduction
This course offers an introduction to the fundamental principles of biology tailored for students not majoring in the life sciences. Topics include the structure and function of cells, genetics, evolution, ecology, and the diversity of life. Emphasis is placed on understanding how biological concepts apply to everyday life, current events, and society at large. Through lectures, discussions, and hands-on activities, students develop scientific literacy and learn to critically evaluate biological information relevant to their lives.
Recommended Textbook
Biological Science 4th Edition by Scott Freeman
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55 Chapters
2000 Verified Questions
2000 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Biology and the Tree of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Agrobacterium is a type of bacteria that infects plants and causes them to form tumors.You determine that tumor formation requires a huge amount of the plant's energy for tissue formation.How might this change the number of offspring a plant produces,and what is the most likely explanation for this change?
A)The number of offspring should increase because,in general,illness increases the reproductive output of organisms.
B)The number of offspring should increase because the bacteria will provide lots of energy for the plant.
C)The number of offspring should decrease because the plant will be spending lots of energy producing the tumors.
D)There should be no effect of infection on offspring production because reproductive success is probably independent of infection.
Answer: C
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3
Chapter 2: Water and Carbon: the Chemical Basis of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) A pH of 7 is neutral due to the dissociation of water molecules in pure water.How many molecules of water have broken down into a hydroxide ion and a hydronium ion at pH 7?
A)1 in 1 million
B)1 in 10 million
C)1 in 100 million
D)1 in 1 billion
Answer: B
Q2) If delta G is greater than zero,_____.
A)you have decreased the amount of free energy in the system
B)you have decreased the amount of entropy in the system
C)you have decreased the total amount of energy in the system
D)you have increased the total amount of energy in the system
Answer: B
Q3) If an atom has a charge of +1,which of the following must be true?
A)It has two more protons than neutrons.
B)It has the same number of protons as electrons.
C)It has one more electron than it does protons.
D)It has one more proton than it does electrons.
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Protein Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The lock-and-key analogy for enzymes applies to the _____.
A)specificity of enzyme primary,secondary,and tertiary structure
B)specificity of enzyme tertiary subunits joining to form a quaternary structure
C)specificity of enzymes binding to their substrate
D)specificity of enzymes interacting with water
E)specificity of enzymes interacting with ions
Answer: C
Q2) Suppose that Miller repeated his chemical evolution experiment but without a source of electrical sparks.What would be the purpose?
A)to test if electrical energy is required for chemical evolution
B)to test the hypothesis that reduced molecules are required for chemical evolution
C)to test the hypothesis that both reduced molecules and electrical energy are required for chemical evolution
D)to make sure that the glassware had not been contaminated,and that any new molecules found were actually produced by chemical evolution
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Nucleic Acids and the Rna World
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Sample Questions
Q1) Compare proteins to nucleic acids.Which of the following is true?
A)Both have primary and secondary structure.
B)Both contain sulfur.
C)Both take on structural roles in the cell.
D)Monomers of both contain phosphorus.
Q2) Why do researchers think the first self-replicating molecule was RNA?
A)RNA is the only type of molecule that can catalyze a chemical reaction.
B)RNA has the capacity to provide a template and is known to catalyze reactions (although no existing self-replicating molecules of RNA have been discovered).
C)Self-replicating molecules of RNA exist today,in human cells.
D)Fossil evidence of such a molecule was recently discovered.
Q3) What feature of mononucleotides provides the energy needed for polymerization when nucleic acids are formed?
A)their methyl groups
B)their sugar groups
C)their nitrogenous bases
D)their phosphate groups
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6
Chapter 5: An Introduction to Carbohydrates
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Sample Questions
Q1) You isolate an organic molecule that contains C,H,O,N,and S.This molecule _____.
A)is definitely a sugar
B)could be a glycoprotein
C)is definitely a nucleic acid
D)is definitely a protein that is not glycosylated
Q2) Glucose (C H O )has a single carbonyl group (-C=O)in its linear form.Based on the number of oxygen atoms in glucose,how many hydroxyl groups (-OH)would you expect glucose to have?
A)6
B)5
C)3
D)1
Q3) What is the major structural difference between starch and glycogen?
A)the types of monosaccharide subunits in the molecules
B)the type of glycosidic linkages in the molecule
C)whether glucose is in the or form
D)the amount of branching that occurs in the molecule
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Chapter 6: Lipids, membranes, and the First Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) How do phospholipids interact with water molecules?
A)The polar heads avoid water;the nonpolar tails attract water (because water is polar and opposites attract).
B)Phospholipids don't interact with water because water is polar and lipids are nonpolar.
C)The polar heads interact with water;the nonpolar tails do not.
D)Phospholipids dissolve in water.
Q2) Which of the following phospholipid membranes would be most permeable to glycerol?
A)one with long and saturated fatty-acid tails
B)one with long and unsaturated tails
C)one with short and saturated tails
D)one with short and unsaturated tails
Q3) What is the most important factor in explaining why osmosis occurs spontaneously?
A)It leads to an increase in entropy.
B)It leads to a decrease in entropy.
C)The process is exothermic.
D)The process is endothermic.
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8
Chapter 7: Inside the Cell
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Sample Questions
Q1) Depending on the species of organism,mitochondrial DNA codes for about 13 proteins;however,these proteins account for only a small proportion of the proteins found in mitochondria.The other proteins are coded for by nuclear DNA.Which of the following helps explain how these proteins find their way to the mitochondria?
A)signal sequences
B)random transport vesicles
C)attachment of ribosomes to outer mitochondrial pores and direct deposition into the inner mitochondrial compartment
D)mRNAs that are manufactured in the nucleus,but translated by mitochondrial ribosomes
Q2) Which one of the following would you fail to find in a prokaryote?
A)DNA
B)a cell wall
C)a mitochondrion
D)a plasma membrane
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9
Chapter 8: Cell-Cell Interactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Intercalated discs are cell-cell junctions found between cardiac muscle cells.One feature of these intercalated discs is that they contain a large number of gap junctions,which means that _____.
A)an extension of smooth endoplasmic reticulum goes through the gap junction,making it continuous from one cardiac muscle cell to the next
B)water ions and small molecules can readily pass from one cardiac muscle cell to the next
C)cardiac cells can function independently when necessary
D)RNA from one cardiac muscle cell can be transported into an adjacent cell through the gap junction
Q2) A G-protein receptor with GTP bound to it _____.
A)is in its active state
B)signals a protein to maintain its shape and conformation
C)will use cGMP as a second messenger
D)directly affects gene expression
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10
Chapter 9: Cellular Respiration and Fermentation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fatty acids usually have an even number of carbons in their structures.They are catabolized by a process called beta-oxidation.The end products of the metabolic pathway are acetyl groups of acetyl CoA molecules.What is the most likely fate of the acetyl groups?
A)They directly enter the electron transport chain.
B)They directly enter the energy-yielding stages of glycolysis.
C)They are directly decarboxylated by pyruvate dehydrogenase.
D)They directly enter the Krebs cycle.
Q2) Which electron carrier(s)function in the Krebs cycle?
A)NAD only
B)both NAD and FAD
C)the electron transport chain
D)NADH and FADH
Q3) A substrate-level phosphorylation occurs in the Krebs cycle when _____.
A)GDP is phosphorylated to produce GTP
B)NAD is phosphorylated to NADH
C)oxaloacetate is phosphorylated
D)acetylation of oxaloacetate takes place
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Chapter 10: Photosynthesis
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Sample Questions
Q1) The electrons of photosystem II are excited and transferred to electron carriers.From which molecule or structure do the photosystem II replacement electrons come?
A)the electron carrier,plastocyanin
B)photosystem I
C)water
D)oxygen
Q2) The light-independent reactions of plants function to make organic molecules using carbon dioxide as a carbon source.What is the electron source that helps reduce carbon dioxide to sugars and other organic molecules?
A)NADH
B)NADPH
C)ATP
D)electrons from oxygen
Q3) Chlorophylls absorb light in which colors of the visible range?
A)green and blue
B)blue and red
C)green and red
D)violet and red
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12
Chapter 11: The Cell Cycle
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Sample Questions
Q1) In human and many other eukaryotic species' cells,the nuclear membrane has to disappear in order for what to take place?
A)cytokinesis
B)attachment of mitotic spindle to kinetochores
C)splitting of the centrosomes
D)disassembly of the nucleolus
Q2) The microtubule-organizing center found in animal cells is an identifiable structure present during all phases of the cell cycle.Specifically,it is known as which of the following?
A)microtubulin
B)centrosome
C)centromere
D)kinetochore
Q3) If a cell has accumulated DNA damage,it is unlikely to _____.
A)pass the G checkpoint
B)activate DNA repair mechanisms
C)enter G from mitosis
D)synthesize cyclin-dependent kinases
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13
Chapter 12: Meiosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Meiosis involves the creation of haploid cells from diploid cells.The haploid chromosome number is created when _____.
A)homologous chromosomes separate
B)the S phase of the cell cycle is bypassed during meiotic interphase
C)sister chromatids separate
D)ova and sperm go through their respective maturation processes
Q2) If meiosis produces haploid cells,how is the diploid number restored for those organisms that spend most of their life cycle in the diploid state?
A)DNA replication
B)reverse transcription
C)synapsis
D)fertilization
Q3) Chromosome number of hexaploid wheat,Triticum aestivum,can be represented by which of the following?
A)n
B)2n
C)4n
D)6n
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14
Chapter 13: Mendel and the Gene
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Sample Questions
Q1) A man and woman are both of normal pigmentation,but both have one parent who is albino (without melanin pigmentation).Albinism is an autosomal (not sex-linked)recessive trait.What is the probability that their first child will be an albino?
A)0
B)1/8
C)1/2
D)1/4
E)1
Q2) In tigers,a recessive allele causes a white tiger (absence of fur pigmentation).If one phenotypically normal tiger that is heterozygous is mated to another that is phenotypically white,what percentage of their offspring is expected to be white?
A)50%
B)75%
C)0%
D)100%
E)25%
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15
Chapter 14: Dna and the Gene: Synthesis and Repair
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Sample Questions
Q1) If DNA repair mechanisms fail,which of the following is not a direct result?
A)a mutation
B)a defective enzyme
C)cancer
D)DNA polymerase is slower at replicating DNA.
Q2) How does the simple primary and secondary structure of DNA hold the information needed to code for the many features of multicellular organisms?
A)The hydrogen bonding among backbone constituents carries coded information.
B)The base sequence of DNA carries all the information needed to code for proteins.
C)The width of the double helix changes at each gene due to differences in hydrogen bonds.
D)The amino acids that make up the DNA molecule contain the information needed to make cellular proteins.
Q3) What provides the energy for the polymerization reactions in DNA synthesis?
A)ATP
B)DNA polymerase
C)breaking the hydrogen bonds between complementary DNA strands
D)the deoxyribonucleotide triphosphate substrates
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Page 16
Chapter 15: How Genes Work
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not synthesized from a DNA template?
A)messenger RNA
B)amino acids
C)tRNA
D)ribosomal RNA
Q2) Which of the following is directly related to a single amino acid?
A)the base sequence of the tRNA
B)the amino acetyl tRNA synthase
C)the three-base sequence of mRNA
D)the complementarity of DNA and RNA
Q3) The central dogma has been challenged on several levels (e.g. ,the discovery of RNA viruses,which use their RNA to directly synthesize proteins;and the discovery of reverse transcriptase,which makes DNA from RNA).Which of the following is another example of an exception to the central dogma?
A)DNA from viruses can insert themselves into host cell chromosomes.
B)Chaperone molecules guide the folding of protein molecules.
C)Gene mutations result in altered amino acid sequences of proteins.
D)Prions are infectious protein molecules capable of altering the folding of normal proteins.
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Transcription and Translation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Eukaryotes have three nuclear RNA polymerases.The primary function of RNA polymerase II is _____.
A)transcription of only rRNA-coding genes
B)transcription of only tRNA-coding genes
C)transcription of both rRNA- and tRNA-coding genes
D)transcription of protein-coding genes
Q2) Which one of the following,if missing,would prevent transcription from starting?
A)exon
B)5' cap
C)AUG codon
D)poly A tail
Q3) The mutation resulting in sickle cell anemia changes one base pair of DNA so it is an example of a _____.
A)point mutation
B)frameshift mutation
C)silent mutation
D)missense mutation
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18
Chapter 17: Control of Gene Expression in Bacteria
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Sample Questions
Q1) Refer to the paragraph about the lac operon experiment by Cronin et al.If the genetically engineered albino mice were given no special treatment,how would the tyrosinase gene be expressed?
A)It would not be transcribed.
B)It would be transcribed to a moderate level.
C)It would be transcribed to a high level.
Q2) The trp repressor blocks transcription of the trp operon when the repressor _____.
A)binds to inducer
B)is not bound to inducer
C)binds to tryptophan
D)is not bound to tryptophan
E)is not bound to the operator
Q3) In negative control of transcription,a gene is activated when _____.
A)a kinase adds a phosphate to DNA
B)lactose is transported into the cell
C)a regulatory protein binds to DNA
D)a regulatory protein is removed from DNA
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19
Chapter 18: Control of Gene Expression in Eukaryotes
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Sample Questions
Q1) One way to detect alternative splicing of transcripts from a given gene is to _____.
A)compare the DNA sequence of this gene to that of a gene known to be constitutively spliced
B)measure the relative rates of transcription of this gene compared to that of a gene known to be constitutively spliced
C)compare the sequences of different primary transcripts made from this gene
D)compare the sequences of different mRNAs made from this gene
Q2) Imagine you've isolated a yeast mutant that contains histones resistant to acetylation.What phenotype do you predict for this mutant?
A)The mutant will grow rapidly.
B)The mutant will require galactose for growth.
C)The mutant will show low levels of gene expression.
D)The mutant will show high levels of gene expression.
Q3) Regulatory transcription factors _____.
A)influence the binding of sigma factor to DNA
B)influence the assembly of the basal transcription complex
C)influence the degree of unwinding of DNA at the promoter
D)open the two strands of DNA so RNA polymerase can begin transcription
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Analyzing and Engineering Genes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Refer to the paragraph on Krings et al.Why did the researchers wear protective clothing and note so emphatically that they did so?
A)They needed to be certain there were no ancient pathogens on the sample that modern humans hadn't been exposed to.
B)They needed to be sure not to harm the precious sample with oils from skin or moisture from their breath.
C)They needed to minimize the chance of introducing their own mitochondrial DNA to the sample.
D)Because the work was done in Germany,they needed to follow stringent,standard German laboratory procedures and document their compliance.
Q2) Why might retroviral vectors for gene therapy increase the patient's risk of developing cancer?
A)They might introduce proteins from the virus.
B)They might not express the genes that were introduced into a patient's cells.
C)They might not integrate their recombinant DNA into the patient's genome.
D)They might integrate recombinant DNA into the genome in ways that misregulate the expression of genes at or near the site of integration.
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Chapter 20: Genomics
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Sample Questions
Q1) When comparing the genomes of a bacterial parasite versus a free-living,nonparasitic bacterium,one expects to find _____.
A)the proportion of G-C base pairs will be significantly higher in the parasite
B)no homology between the free-living and parasitic bacteria
C)there will be a higher proportion of genes of unknown function in the parasite
D)the parasite will have acquired a smaller proportion of its genes through lateral gene transfer
E)the parasite will have a smaller genome
Q2) If one wished to test the hypothesis that humans and chimps differ due to differences in the expression of a large set of shared genes,the technique to use would be _____.
A)Southern blotting
B)PCR
C)DNA sequencing
D)protein-protein interaction assays
E)DNA microarray analysis
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22
Chapter 21: Principles of Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) When the Bicoid protein is expressed in Drosophila,the embryo is still syncytial (divisions between cells are not yet fully developed).This information helps to explain which observation by Nüsslein-Volhard and Wieschaus?
A)mRNA from the egg is translated into the Bicoid protein.
B)Bicoid protein diffuses throughout the embryo in a concentration gradient.
C)Bicoid protein serves as a transcription regulator.
D)Bicoid protein determines the dorsoventral axis of the embryo.
Q2) The predominant mechanism driving cellular differentiation is the difference in gene _____.
A)expression
B)sequences
C)order
D)replication
Q3) The protein of the bicoid gene in Drosophila determines the _____ of the embryo.
A)anterior-posterior axis
B)anterior-lateral axis
C)posterior-dorsal axis
D)posterior-ventral axis
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Chapter 22: An Introduction to Animal Development
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Q1) In many animal embryos,the eye develops very early.The Pax6 protein is important to eye development;its absence can prevent the formation of eyes in mice and humans.Thus,Pax6 probably acts as a(n)_____.
A)structural protein retinal and/or lens cells
B)intercellular signal transmitted between retinal and lens cells
C)transcriptional factor that regulates genes involving retinal and/or lens cells
D)extracellular matrix protein secreted by the retinal and/or lens cells
Q2) Many amphibian species release their sperm and eggs directly into a watery environment.All of the following mechanisms might ensure species-specific fertilization in these populations except _____.
A)acrosomal complexes in sperm
B)complex coverings of the egg
C)specific protein binding between sperm and egg
D)fertilization envelopes
E)blocking of non-species-specific mRNA sequences
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Chapter 23: An Introduction to Plant Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Auxin has an effect on plant embryos much like the Bicoid protein in Drosophila.If auxin were added to a culture of embryonic root cells,what would be the likely result?
A)Root cells would elongate and mature.
B)Root cells would change into meristem cells.
C)Root cells would halt their development.
D)Root cells would not respond to auxin.
Q2) The floral meristem in flowering plants develops from the shoot apical meristem,which usually produces leaves.Which floral part is not a modified leaf?
A)sepal
B)carpel
C)stamen
D)pollen tube
E)petal
Q3) The monopterous gene in Arabidopsis encodes a protein that is similar in its function to which animal protein?
A)MyoD in frog embryos
B)Bicoid in fruit-fly embryos
C)keratin in human embryos
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Chapter 24: Evolution by Natural Selection
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following,if discovered,could refute our current understanding of the theory of evolution?
A)no fossils of soft-bodied animals
B)a modern bird having reptile-like scales on its legs
C)radioactive dating of rocks close to the Earth's surface as younger than lower rock strata
D)fossils of animals that arose in the Cambrian in Precambrian rock strata
Q2) Which of the following scientists argued that variation among individuals allows evolution to occur?
A)Aristotle
B)Lamarck
C)Linnaeus
D)Wallace
Q3) Gill pouches in chick,human,and house-cat embryos are an example of _____.
A)structural homology
B)developmental homology
C)genetic homology
D)the inheritance of acquired characters
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26
Chapter 25: Evolutionary Processes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Currently the only predators of Galápagos marine iguanas are Galápagos hawks.Iguana body size is not correlated with risk of hawk predation,although small iguanas can sprint faster than large iguanas.If predators (e.g. ,cats)that preferably catch and eat slower iguanas are introduced to the island,iguana body size is likely to _____ in the absence of other factors;the iguanas would then be under _____ selection.
A)increase;directional B)increase;disruptive C)decrease;directional D)decrease;disruptive E)stay the same;stabilizing
Q2) Why doesn't inbreeding depression,by itself,cause evolution?
A)It decreases the population's average fitness.
B)It limits gene flow.
C)It does not change the population's allele frequencies.
D)It increases homozygosity.
E)It violates the Hardy-Weinberg assumptions.
Q3) Which sex typically has more extreme sex-selected characteristics: males or females? Why? Give an example.
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Page 27
Chapter 26: Speciation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most causes of speciation are relatively slow,in that they may take many generations of organism to see changes,except _____.
A)polyploidy
B)vicariance
C)colonization
D)natural selection
Q2) How are two different species most likely to evolve from one ancestral species?
A)sympatrically,by a point mutation affecting morphology or behavior
B)sympatrically,due to extensive inbreeding
C)allopatrically,due to extensive inbreeding
D)allopatrically,after the ancestral species has split into two populations
E)phylogenetically,due to heterozygote advantage in hybrids
Q3) Natural selection for traits that keep distinct populations from reproducing with each other is called reinforcement.When is reinforcement beneficial?
A)when the environment is changing
B)when hybrids have lower fitness than either parent population
C)when prezygotic isolating mechanisms are in place
D)when gene flow is low
E)Reinforcement is beneficial under all of the above conditions.
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Page 28
Chapter 27: Phylogenies and the History of Life
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Q1) Which of the following would be useful in creating a phylogenetic tree of a taxon?
A)morphological data from fossil species
B)genetic sequences from living species
C)behavioral data from living species
D)all of the above
E)none of the above
Q2) Which of the following could be seen in the Mesozoic,but not the Paleozoic?
A)gymnosperms
B)a diversity of mushrooms
C)lots of flowering plants
D)high levels of photosynthesis
Q3) All of the following events can trigger an adaptive radiation except _____.
A)a vicariance event splitting the habitat
B)the evolution of a new morphological feature
C)the colonization of a new habitat
D)the extinction of competitors
E)gene duplication events
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Chapter 28: Bacteria and Archaea
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Q1) The purple non-sulfur bacterium Rhodospirillum grows best as a photoheterotroph.What are the most favorable sources of energy and carbon for this bacterium?
A)methane and CO
B)fructose and light
C)light and CO
D)glucose
Q2) What kind of molecules serve as electron acceptors in cellular respiration?
A)water
B)polar molecules
C)molecules with high potential energy
D)molecules with low potential energy
E)molecules in an excited state
Q3) Which of the following lineages do not contain bacteria that are photosynthetic?
A)Spirochaeles
B)Proteobacteria
C)Cyanobacteria
D)Actinobacteria
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Chapter 29: Protists
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Q1) By examining the phylogenetic tree diagrammed in Figure 29.1,what conclusion can you draw about the species G.microti?
A)It evolved before G.intestinalis.
B)It is more closely related to G.muris than to G.intestinalis.
C)It should not be labeled a species distinct from G.intestinalis.
D)It is part of a monophyletic group that also includes G.intestinalis.
Q2) Imagine there are 25 different species of protists living in a tide pool.Some of these species reproduce both sexually and asexually,and some of them can reproduce only asexually.The pool gradually becomes infested with disease-causing viruses and bacteria.Which species are more likely to thrive in the changing environment?
A)the sexually reproducing species
B)the asexually reproducing species
C)Sexually and asexually reproducing species are equally likely to thrive.
D)cannot tell from this information - survival will depend on a variety of other factors
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Chapter 30: Green Plants
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Q1) What two major novelties allowed for the first colonization of terrestrial habitats by plants?
A)roots and vascular tissue
B)cuticle and pores
C)roots and true leaves
D)vascular tissue and cuticle
E)tracheids and vessel elements
Q2) In general,liverworts have a cuticle and pores.However,some species do not have pores.What would you predict concerning the cuticle of these species and why?
A)The cuticle would be the same as in those species with pores.
B)The cuticle would be thicker than in those species with pores.
C)The cuticle would be thinner than in those species with pores.
D)There is not enough information to make a prediction.
Q3) What is true about the genus Sphagnum?
A)It is an economically important liverwort.
B)It grows in extensive mats in grassland areas.
C)It is used by gardeners as a fertilizer.
D)It accumulates to form coal and is burned as a fuel.
E)It is an important carbon sink,reducing atmospheric CO .
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Page 32
Chapter 31: Fungi
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Q1) At which stage of a basidiomycete's life cycle would reproduction be halted if an enzyme that prevented the fusion of hyphae was introduced?
A)meiosis
B)fertilization
C)karyogamy
D)plasmogamy
E)germination
Q2) Refer to Figure 31.2.Which of the following results would support Simard et al.'s (1997)hypothesis that fungi can move carbon from one plant to another? Hypothesis:
Sugars made by one plant during photosynthesis can travel through a mycorrhizal fungus and be incorporated into the tissues of another plant.
A)Carbon-14 is found in the birch seedling's tissues and carbon-13 in the Douglas fir.
B)Carbon-14 is found in the Douglas fir seedling's tissues and carbon-13 in the birch.
C)Either carbon-13 or carbon-14 is found in the fungal tissues.
D)Either carbon-13 or carbon-14 is found in the cedar seedling's tissues.
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Chapter 32: An Introduction to Animals
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Q1) From the information provided in the figure above,how would you classify the feeding strategy of organism C?
A)suspension feeding
B)predation
C)parasitism
D)suspension feeding and predation
E)predation and parasitism
Q2) As you are on the way to Tahiti for a vacation,your plane crash-lands on a previously undiscovered island.You soon find that the island is teeming with unfamiliar organisms;and you,as a student of biology,decide to survey them (with the aid of the Insta-Lab Portable Laboratory you brought along in your suitcase).You select three organisms and observe them in detail,making the notations found in Figure 32.1.Which organism would you classify as an animal?
A)organism A
B)organism B
C)organism C
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Chapter 33: Protostome Animals
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Q1) Which of the following attributes is true for both arthropod exoskeletons and mollusk shells?
A)They completely replace the hydrostatic skeleton.
B)They are secreted by the mantle.
C)They help retain moisture in terrestrial habitats.
D)They are comprised of the polysaccharide chitin.
Q2) You find what you believe is a new species of animal.Which of the following characteristics would enable you to argue that it is more closely related to a flatworm than it is to a roundworm?
A)It has a cuticle that it sheds in order to grow.
B)It is a suspension feeder.
C)Its larvae have cilia that they use for feeding and locomotion.
D)It is shaped like a worm.
E)It has a well-developed coelom.
Q3) What would be the best anatomical feature to look for to distinguish a gastropod from a chiton?
A)presence of a muscular foot
B)presence of a rasp-like feeding structure
C)production of eggs
D)number of shell plates
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Chapter 34: Deuterostome Animals
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Q1) Which of the following adult animals might you find floating in the open ocean,suspension feeding using its pharyngeal gill slits?
A)a lancelet
B)a salp
C)an ascidian
D)a sea squirt
E)a vertebrate
Q2) Mammals and birds eat more often than reptiles.Which of the following traits shared by mammals and birds best explains this habit?
A)endothermy
B)ectothermy
C)insulating body cover
D)amniotic egg
E)terrestrial
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36
Chapter 35: Viruses
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Q1) Which of the following viruses would be the most likely to have reverse transcriptase?
A)an RNA-based lytic virus
B)an RNA-based lysogenic virus
C)a DNA-based lytic virus
D)a DNA-based lysogenic virus
Q2) Which of the following supports the argument that viruses are nonliving?
A)They lack genetic material.
B)They are not cellular.
C)Their DNA does not encode proteins.
D)They have RNA rather than DNA.
E)They don't evolve.
Q3) A biologist develops a new drug that seems to dramatically slow the onset of symptoms resulting from HIV infection.Close monitoring of HIV-infected cells reveals that the viral proteins are in the form of long polyproteins.What kind of drug did the biologist develop?
A)It is a reverse transcriptase inhibitor.
B)It is a CD4 inhibitor.
C)It is a protease inhibitor.
D)It is a polymerase inhibitor.
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Page 37
Chapter 36: Plant Form and Function
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Q1) When comparing root systems of plants growing on a square foot in a cornfield and on a meadow,what result do you expect to receive?
A)The overall mass of roots will be identical in a cornfield and on a meadow.
B)The mass and length of roots in a cornfield will be higher because soil is fertilized.
C)The mass and length of roots on a meadow will be higher because soil is poorer and there is higher diversity of plants.
D)The overall mass of roots on a meadow will be lower,but the length will be higher since roots need to grow deeper to reach nutrients.
Q2) What is present in a shoot apical meristem region?
A)the region of cell division
B)immature buds and leaves
C)give rise to the protoderm,ground meristem,and procambium
D)all of the above
Q3) Explain why it is possible for big old hollow trees to live and grow for many years,still producing green leaves.
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Chapter 37: Water and Sugar Transport in Plants
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Q1) Which theory of water transport in xylem can also be used to explain the movement of water in non-vascular plants such as mosses?
A)cohesion-tension
B)capillarity
C)proton pump
D)root pressure
E)root pressure and capillarity
Q2) Which of the following features of plant cells allows for apoplastic movement of water?
A)porous cell walls
B)plasmodesmata
C)large central vacuole
D)endodermal cells
Q3) Water potential of plants during night is _____ compared to day water potential due to _____.
A)increased;open stomata
B)increased;closed stomata
C)decreased;open stomata
D)decreased;closed stomata
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Chapter 38: Plant Nutrition
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Q1) What is the right sequence of steps during infection of plants by nitrogen-fixing bacteria?
A)Rhizobia release Nod factors;roots release flavonoids;rhizobia proliferate inside of root hair;infection thread grows into the root cortex;nodule forms.
B)Rhizobia release flavonoids;roots release Nod factors;rhizobia proliferate inside of root hair;infection thread grows into the root cortex;nodule forms.
C)Roots release flavonoids;rhizobia release Nod factors;rhizobia proliferate inside of root hair;nodule forms;infection thread grows into the root cortex.
D)Roots release flavonoids;rhizobia release Nod factors;rhizobia proliferate inside of root hair;infection thread grows into the root cortex;nodule forms.
E)Nodule forms;infection thread grows into the root cortex;rhizobia proliferate inside of root hair;rhizobia release flavonoids and Nod factors.
Q2) Give two reasons that relatively few plants thrive in bogs.
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Chapter 39: Plant Sensory Systems, signals, and Responses
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Q1) Refer to the paragraph on how caterpillar-damaged plants protect themselves by attracting parasitic wasps.How could you test the hypothesis that caterpillar saliva and a wound are both necessary to attract the parasitoid wasps?
A)Slash the corn leaves with a razor blade.
B)Put caterpillar saliva on a leaf wound.
C)Put caterpillar saliva on an intact leaf.
D)All of the above actions are necessary for testing the hypothesis.
Q2) Suppose a plant had a nonsense mutation in a gene that encodes for an enzyme required for the synthesis of gibberellic acid.If the plant is homozygous at this locus,what will its phenotype be?
A)tall
B)bushy
C)short
D)large fruit
E)underdeveloped seeds
Q3) The cells that have phosphorylated phototropin receptors elongate in response to blue light.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 40: Plant Reproduction
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Q1) Unripe fruits protect seeds from predation and early germination.What is the major function of ripe fruits?
A)attracting pollinators
B)dispersing seed
C)releasing nutrients to seeds
D)keeping the seed hydrated before germination
Q2) Refer to the paragraph on whitebark pine seed dispersal by Clark's nutcracker.Pines,including the whitebark pine,are pioneer-type trees.Which disperal conditions would be best for high germination rates and seedling survival?
A)animals that eat and deposit seeds in feces under trees
B)animals that cache the seeds in a field dominated by grasses
C)animals that cache the seeds under shrubs
D)birds that cache the seeds close to adult trees
Q3) The flowering hormone is made in _____ and alters development of _____.
A)flowers;leaves
B)flowers;root meristem
C)leaves;apical meristem
D)leaves;flowers
E)roots;flowers
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Page 42
Chapter 41: Animal Form and Function
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Q1) Which one of the following is not a good strategy for increasing the surface area of an object relative to the volume?
A)increase the amount of branching
B)increase the amount of folding
C)enlarge and make more spherical
D)make flatter
E)None of these are good strategies.
Q2) There are advantages and disadvantages to adaptations.Animals that are endothermic are likely to be at a disadvantage in which of the following environments?
A)very cold environments
B)very hot environments
C)environments with a constant food source
D)environments with variable and limited food sources
Q3) Blood is a type of connective tissue because _____.
A)blood has multiple cell types
B)blood has a liquid extracellular matrix
C)blood functions in transportation
D)blood can be both liquid and solid
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Chapter 42: Water and Electrolyte Balance in Animals
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Q1) What is the function of the osmotic gradient found in the kidney?
A)The osmotic gradient allows for electrolytes to move from low to high concentrations in the absence of ATP.
B)The osmotic gradient allows for the precise control of the retention of water and electrolytes.
C)The osmotic gradient allows for the loop of Henle to deliver water to the renal vein.
D)The osmotic gradient allows for the filtration of large cells at the glomerulus.
Q2) The intercellular concentration of three electrolytes is compared with the concentration of these electrolytes in fluid eliminated from the shark rectal gland in Table 42.1.Based on the data,which of the following is a likely function of the rectal gland?
A)The rectal gland eliminates metabolic waste.
B)The rectal gland is able to concentrate Na ,K ,and Cl .
C)The rectal gland cannot store Na ,K ,and Cl .
D)The rectal gland is the only site of osmoregulation in the shark.
Q3) Figure 42.1 shows a nephron.Where does filtration take place in the nephron?
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44
Chapter 43: Animal Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many food calories does the jug of apple juice contain?
A)120
B)240
C)480
D)960
Q2) If you found a skull in the woods and the teeth were fang-like,what type of food would you expect this animal to eat?
A)grass
B)flesh of another animal
C)nectar
D)blood
Q3) What is the purpose of the villi and microvilli in the small intestine?
A)The villi and microvilli neutralize stomach acid.
B)The villi and microvilli activate trypsinogen.
C)The villi and microvilli increase the surface area to increase the efficiency of nutrient absorption.
D)The villi and microvilli emulsify lipid molecules.
Q4) The electron micrograms in Figure 43.2 are images of mouthparts of different animals.Which of the mouthparts are specialized for crushing and grinding?
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Chapter 44: Gas Exchange and Circulation
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Q1) Atria contract _____.
A)just prior to the beginning of diastole
B)during diastole
C)immediately after systole
D)during systole
Q2) Which of the following conditions would be the most likely result of an abnormally high blood pressure in an animal like a reptile possessing a closed circulatory system?
A)hemorrhage in the capillary beds
B)hemorrhage in the aorta
C)reversal of normal blood flow direction in the veins
D)all of the above
Q3) Which of the four muscular chambers of the human heart directly propels blood into the pulmonary circulation?
A)right atrium
B)right ventricle
C)left atrium
D)left ventricle
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Chapter 45: Electrical Signals in Animals
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Q1) Motor neurons release the neurotransmitter acetylcholine (ACh)and acetylcholinesterase degrades ACh in the synapse.If a neurophysiologist applies onchidal (a naturally occurring acetylcholinesterase inhibitor produced by the mollusk Onchidella binneyi)to a synapse,what would you expect to happen?
A)paralysis of muscle tissue
B)gradual loss of resting potential
C)convulsions due to constant muscle stimulation
D)decrease in the frequency of action potentials
E)no effect
Q2) Which letter on Figure 45.1 corresponds to a large influx of Na ions into the cell?
A)A
B)B
C)C
D)D
E)E
Q3) Neurotransmitter is released _____.
A)in response to an action potential depolarizing the presynaptic membrane
B)when threshold potential is reached
C)when enough voltage-gated sodium channels open
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Page 47
Chapter 46: Animal Sensory Systems and Movement
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Q1) A person able to hear only high-frequency sounds would probably have which of the following structural problems in the ear?
A)The tympanum is damaged because of chronic ear infections.
B)The basilar membrane is stiffened along its entire length.
C)The ear ossicles are abnormally thickened.
D)All of the above problems could result in inability to detect low-frequency sound.
Q2) Compared to human eyes,the eyes of cephalopods (squid and octopus)_____.
A)are extremely similar,with no significant differences
B)are not camera eyes and do not have a single lens
C)are inferior because they have few photoreceptors
D)do not have a blind spot
Q3) Hair cells in the vertebrate ear are responsible for transducing sound pressure waves.Ion channels in the hair cell membrane open when _____.
A)a chemical ligand binds to the ion channel
B)light is absorbed by a molecule in the membrane
C)the cell membrane reaches a threshold voltage
D)the membrane is distorted mechanically
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Page 48
Chapter 47: Chemical Signals in Animals
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Q1) When adenylyl cyclase is activated ________.
A)cAMP is created
B)cAMP is destroyed
C)G-proteins bind to cAMP
D)steroid hormones pass through the lipid bilayer
Q2) Which of the following is true during a typical cAMP-type signal transduction event?
A)The second messenger is the last part of the system to be activated.
B)The hormone activates the second messenger by directly binding to it.
C)The second messenger amplifies the hormonal response by attracting more hormones to the cell being affected.
D)Adenylyl cyclase is activated after the hormone binds to the cell and before phosphorylation occurs.
Q3) Predict the effects of a drug that increases adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)synthesis.
A)increase in glucocorticoid production
B)increase in release of corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH)
C)decrease in cortisol release
D)decrease in release of corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH)
E)all of the above
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Page 49
Chapter 48: Animal Reproduction
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Q1) During oogenesis meiosis results in four equally sized cells that stop dividing in meiosis I.
A)True
B)False
Q2) During the menstrual cycle,_____ peaks first,_____ peak next,and finally _____ surges.
A)estradiol;LH and progesterone;FSH
B)progesterone;LH and FSH;estradiol
C)estradiol;LH and FSH;progesterone
D)estradiol;LH and FSH;testosterone
E)testosterone;estradiol and FSH;progesterone
Q3) A pregnant woman comes into the hospital past her due date.The doctor decides it is time for the baby to be delivered.Before performing a cesarean section,the doctor wants to try to induce labor.Which of the following would she most likely inject?
A)estrogen
B)progesterone
C)luteinizing hormone (LH)
D)follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
E)oxytocin
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Page 50
Chapter 49: The Immune System in Animals
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Q1) Which of the following statements is not true of epitopes?
A)B-cell receptors bind to epitopes.
B)T-cell receptors bind to epitopes.
C)There can be 10 or more different epitopes on each antigen.
D)There is a one-to-one correspondence between antigen and epitope.
Q2) Which of the following statements is not fundamental to the clonal-selection theory of how the adaptive immune system functions?
A)Each lymphocyte has a unique membrane receptor that recognizes one antigen.
B)When the lymphocyte binds an antigen,it is activated and begins dividing to form many identical copies of itself.
C)Cloned lymphocytes have slight differences and are selected by the spleen for removal if they do not bind an antigen.
D)Cloned cells descend from an activated lymphocyte and persist even after the pathogen is eliminated.
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Chapter 50: An Introduction to Ecology
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Q1) Wetlands are standing bodies of freshwater,just like lakes and ponds.However,wetlands are different from lakes and ponds because _____.
A)wetlands have shallow water
B)wetlands have emergent vegetation
C)wetlands have oxygen-poor water
D)wetlands have shallow water and emergent vegetation
E)wetlands have emergent vegetation and oxygen-poor water
Q2) Which of the following is not a biotic component of a burrow community?
A)the different species living in the burrow
B)the population of each species in the burrow
C)the air quality of the burrow
D)the food sources in the burrow
Q3) If the Earth were to reorient such that the North Pole always received direct sunlight (always faced the Sun),how would that change Earth's climate?
A)The equators would not change in climate.
B)The South Pole would get colder.
C)The equators would get warmer.
D)The North Pole would get more wind.
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Chapter 51: Behavioral Ecology
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Q1) You observe scrub jays hiding food and notice that one particular individual only pretends to hide food.Your experiments associate the presence of other siblings with the frequency of pretending to cache food.A colleague shows you animals of the same species that do not perform this pretend caching.How does this information affect your conclusions about this behavior?
A)It suggests that this behavior might be learned.
B)It prevents you from making conclusions.
C)It suggests that your experimental design is flawed.
D)It does not affect anything.
Q2) How could you test whether male dewlaps (a colorful flap of skin hanging from an anole lizard's throat)were an important cue for female egg production?
A)Remove dewlaps from females and measure corresponding egg production.
B)Relate size of male dewlap to female dewlap.
C)Remove dewlaps from courting males and measure corresponding female egg production.
D)All of the above answers apply.
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Chapter 52: Population Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) In Figure 52.4,which of the arrows represents the carrying capacity?
A)arrow A
B)arrow B
C)arrow C
D)Carrying capacity cannot be found in the figure because species under density-dependent control never reach carrying capacity.
Q2) In Figure 52.1,which of the following survivorship curves most applies to humans living in developed countries?
A)curve A
B)curve B
C)curve C
D)curve A or curve B
E)none of the above
Q3) What can we not determine from examining age pyramids of human populations?
A)the future population size
B)how populations reproduce
C)the success of future generations
D)the fecundity of a future population
E)the age structure of the population
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Page 54
Chapter 53: Community Ecology
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Q1) Some birds follow moving swarms of army ants in the tropics.As the ants march along the forest floor hunting insects and small vertebrates,birds follow and pick off any insects or small vertebrates that fly or jump out of the way of the ants.What is the specific benefit relationship?
A)Birds benefit from the association but have no impact on the ants.
B)Birds benefit from the association and harm the ants.
C)Birds and ants benefit from the association.
D)Birds do not benefit from the association,but the ants do.
E)Neither birds nor ants benefit from the association.
Q2) Looking at the results in Figure 53.8,which hypothesis (by Clements or Gleason)is supported by the data?
A)Clements
B)Gleason
C)both
D)neither
Q3) In Figure 53.5,which of the following statements is true?
A)All of the species of insects shown are in the order Hymenoptera.
B)There are no true mimics in the insects shown.
C)All of the insects are displaying Batesian mimicry.
D)Half of the insects shown are harmless.
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Chapter 54: Ecosystems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which habitat types in Figure 54.3 cover the largest area?
A)tropical wet forest plus the ocean neritic zone
B)open ocean
C)algal beds and reefs plus the ocean neritic zone
D)wetlands plus the ocean neritic zone
Q2) Why are changes in the global carbon cycle important?
A)Burning reduces available carbon for primary producers and therefore primary consumers.
B)Deforestation and suburbanization reduce an area's net primary productivity.
C)Increasing atmospheric concentrations of carbon dioxide could alter Earth's climate.
D)By using fossil fuels we are destroying a nonrenewable resource.
E)All of the above are why changes in the global carbon cycle are important.
Q3) Considering the global nitrogen cycle depicted in Figure 54.9,what is the limiting portion of the cycle for plants?
A)industrial nitrogen fixation
B)nitrogen lost to the atmosphere
C)internal nitrogen cycling in the oceans
D)nitrogen fixation by bacteria
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56
Chapter 55: Biodiversity and Conservation Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a debate about the destruction of tropical wet forests,the arguments keep focusing on biodiversity and how this affects the animals themselves,as well as the ecosystem.What is one direct benefit of biodiversity to humans that you can argue to help people understand why these forests need to be preserved?
A)This diversity could contain undocumented insect species.
B)The areas could be visited by tourists for profit.
C)The diversity could contain novel drugs for consumers.
D)The diversity could contain a new crop plant for agriculture.
Q2) During the inventory of bacterial genes present in the Sargasso Sea,a research team concluded that at least 1800 bacterial species were discovered.Based on what you know about this area,what would you expect to see in coral reef waters?
A)slightly greater genetic diversity
B)slightly smaller genetic diversity
C)equal genetic diversity
D)markedly greater genetic diversity
E)markedly smaller genetic diversity
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