Biology for Non-Majors Question Bank
Course
Introduction
Biology for Non-Majors is an introductory course designed to provide students from diverse academic backgrounds with a foundational understanding of biological concepts and their relevance to everyday life. The course covers essential topics such as cell structure and function, genetics, evolution, ecology, and human biology, emphasizing how these principles apply outside the laboratory. Students will engage in discussions and activities that highlight the impact of biology on health, technology, and the environment, fostering scientific literacy and critical thinking skills applicable to a wide range of fields.
Recommended Textbook
Biology The Essentials 3rd Edition by Marille Hoefnagels Dr
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30 Chapters
2017 Verified Questions
2017 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Scientific Study of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Asexual reproduction differs from sexual reproduction in that
A) asexual reproduction produces genetically diverse offspring.
B) asexual reproduction utilizes DNA from two parents to code for traits in offspring.
C) asexual reproduction occurs only in plants.
D) asexual reproduction produces offspring containing DNA from only one parent.
E) asexual reproduction only occurs in animals.
Answer: D
Q2) A theory differs from a hypothesis in that a theory
A) has more supportive evidence than a hypothesis.
B) is broader in scope than a hypothesis.
C) has predictive power.
D) ties together many existing observations.
E) All answers are correct.
Answer: E
Q3) The scientific method cannot be used to answer questions about immaterial and philosophical issues.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Page 3
Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a carbohydrate polymer contains only two monomer units,such as sucrose made from glucose and fructose,it is called a(n)
A) disaccharide.
B) polysaccharide.
C) monosaccharide.
D) oligosaccharide.
E) complex carbohydrate.
Answer: A
Q2) The four major groups of organic compounds are
A) fats, waxes, carbohydrates, and amino acids.
B) carbohydrates, lipids, steroids, and monosaccharides.
C) lipids, fats, waxes, and steroids.
D) carbohydrates, lipids, proteins, and nucleic acids.
E) carbohydrates, proteins, amino acids, and nucleic acids.
Answer: D
Q3) Proteins store the genetic information of the cell and transmit it to the next generation.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 3: Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) In plant cells,a central vacuole
A) produces protein.
B) degrades molecules and organelles and maintains water pressure.
C) produces mRNA.
D) stores genetic information.
E) produces energy from food.
Answer: B
Q2) Flagella can be
A) found on prokaryotic cells.
B) found on human sperm.
C) used for movement.
D) found on eukaryotic cells.
E) All of the answer choices are correct.
Answer: E
Q3) Endosymbiosis is a theory based on the presence of structures like chloroplasts and ribosomes,which resemble cells from prokaryotic domains,in eukaryotic cells.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 5
Chapter 4: The Energy of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Plants require energy from light to perform photosynthesis in which glucose is formed from carbon dioxide and water.This is an example of
A) a reaction that releases energy.
B) kinetic energy.
C) a reaction that takes up energy.
D) potential energy.
E) equilibrium.
Q2) Enzymes speed up chemical reactions.
A)True
B)False
Q3) When electrons are removed from a food molecule,the molecule is A) reduced.
B) in equilibrium.
C) oxidized.
D) polymerized.
E) conducting an endergonic reaction.
Q4) Potential energy is the energy of motion.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Photosynthesis
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Sample Questions
Q1) The main product of photosynthesis used by plants for food is
A) glucose.
B) oxygen.
C) carbon dioxide.
D) chlorophyll.
E) sunlight.
Q2) Examples of photosynthetic accessory pigments are
A) chlorophyll <i>b</i> and carotenoids.
B) chlorophyll <i>a</i> and carotenoids.
C) chlorophyll <i>a</i> and chlorophyll <i>b</i>.
D) carotenoids and DNA.
E) chlorophyll <i>b</i> and DNA.
Q3) Photosystem I and photosystem II are part of
A) the light reactions and the carbon reactions.
B) the light reactions only.
C) the light reactions and respiration.
D) the carbon reactions only.
E) respiration.
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7
Chapter 6: Respiration and Fermentation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Aerobic respiration includes glycolysis,the Krebs cycle,and electron transport chain.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Glycolysis and the Krebs cycle do not capture all of the potential energy in a glucose molecule because
A) ATP easily vaporizes.
B) energy cannot be created or destroyed.
C) some glucose is not broken down.
D) some energy is always lost as heat during chemical reactions.
E) All answers are correct.
Q3) Plants are
A) net O consumers and CO producers.
B) net O producers and CO consumers.
C) net O and CO producers.
D) net O and CO consumers.
E) able to conduct photosynthesis, not cellular respiration.
Q4) Energy cannot be extracted from lipids by cellular respiration.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: DNA Structure and Gene Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following best describes the relationship between DNA,proteins,and RNA?
A) DNA is transcribed into RNA, then RNA is translated into proteins.
B) DNA is transcribed into proteins, then proteins are translated into RNA.
C) DNA is translated into RNA, then RNA is transcribed into proteins.
D) DNA is translated into proteins, then proteins are transcribed into RNA.
Q2) In the bacterium <i>E.coli</i>,a repressor protein binds to the operator region of the DNA in the absence of lactose,thus preventing the transcription of the genes of the lactose operon.
A)True
B)False
Q3) RNA differs from DNA in many ways,including
A) DNA contains deoxyribose while RNA contains ribose.
B) DNA contains thymine while RNA contains uracil.
C) DNA is double stranded while RNA is single stranded.
D) RNA can catalyze some chemical reactions and DNA cannot.
E) All answers are correct.
Q4) "Mad cow disease" is caused by a viroid.
A)True
B)False
Page 9
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Chapter 8: DNA Replication,Binary Fission,and Mitosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) The enzyme that adds nucleotides to form new strands of DNA is A) amylase.
B) transcriptase.
C) ligase.
D) helicase.
E) DNA polymerase.
Q2) Adaptive therapy aims to combat ________ amongst cancer cells that leads to tumor growth continuing even after therapy treatments.
A) cooperation
B) camoflauge
C) colegiality
D) competition
E) cohesiveness
Q3) Strands of DNA are joined by A) hydrogen bonds.
B) covalent bonds.
C) ionic bonds.
D) phosphodiester bonds.
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Chapter 9: Sexual Reproduction and Meiosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fraternal twins (dizygotic)result from the fertilization of
A) two eggs and two sperm.
B) two eggs and one sperm.
C) one egg and two sperm.
D) one egg and one sperm.
E) two eggs and one sperm OR one egg and two sperm.
Q2) A diploid germ cell will produce cells with half the number of chromosomes,haploid cells,in
A) fertilization.
B) mitosis.
C) meiosis.
D) replication.
E) mutation.
Q3) The human chromosomes that do not determine an individual's sex are
A) not found in pairs.
B) the "X" and "Y" chromosomes.
C) autosomes.
D) sex chromosomes.
E) No answer is correct.
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Patterns of Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) A gene that produces a protein important in more than one biochemical pathway is
A) dominant.
B) recessive.
C) pleiotropic.
D) codominant.
E) incomplete dominant.
Q2) Homologous chromosomes have
A) the same genes but can have different alleles.
B) the same genes and alleles.
C) different genes and alleles.
D) different genes, but can have the same alleles.
Q3) The most common allele,genotype,or phenotype in a population is referred to as the A) wild type.
B) dominant population.
C) recessive population.
D) P generation.
E) F1 generation.
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Chapter 11: DNA Technology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Gene therapy might someday be used to treat many genetic disorders by removing faulty genes from somatic cells and replacing them with functional gene copies.
A)True
B)False
Q2) An ill or injured patient may have suffered from damaged tissues that the cell cycle,including mitosis,won't naturally repair or replace.This may include damaged nerves,or skin,or muscle.A form of biotechnology that attempts to stimulate new cell divisions with application of cells that are genetically unspecialized,is
A) stem cell research.
B) cloning.
C) preimplantation genetic diagnosis.
D) DNA profiling.
E) genetic engineering.
Q3) DNA probes are typically labeled with a radioactive isotope or fluorescent tag to locate within the genome after binding.
A)True
B)False
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Forces of Evolutionary Change
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Sample Questions
Q1) At Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium,allele frequencies
A) change from one generation to the next so evolution occurs.
B) remain constant from one generation to the next so evolution occurs.
C) change from one generation to the next so evolution does not occur.
D) remain constant from one generation to the next so evolution does not occur.
E) None of the answers are correct.
Q2) Evolution must include a change in
A) the gene pool of a population.
B) the genes of an individual.
C) the dominant phenotype.
D) the recessive phenotype.
E) the percentage of individuals in a population with the dominant phenotype.
Q3) The geologist who suggested that natural processes are slow and steady and that the Earth is much older than 6,000 years was
A) Charles Darwin.
B) Charles Lyell.
C) Alfred Russel Wallace.
D) Jean Lamarck.
E) Georges Buffon.
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Evidence of Evolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) Relative dating uses ________ to estimate how old a fossil is.
A) radioactive isotopes
B) a molecular clock
C) structural features
D) depth within rock layers
E) embryonic structures
Q2) If many human genes differ in about 10% of their bases from another species' same genes and substitutions occur at an estimated rate of 2% per one million years,approximately how many years have passed since the two species diverged?
A) 5 million
B) 3 million
C) 10 million
D) 20 million
E) 200 million
Q3) The femur in a snake and pelvis in a whale are examples of
A) homologous structures.
B) analogous structures.
C) homeotic structures.
D) vestigial structures.
E) heterologous structures.
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Chapter 14: Speciation and Extinction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following species' extinction was not a result of habitat destruction?
A) Chinese paddlefish
B) Dodo
C) Passenger pigeon
D) Palestinian painted frog
E) Las Vegas dace
Q2) Bacteria are not defined as species when applying the biological species concept.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The process by which species cease to exist is
A) isolation.
B) speciation.
C) extinction.
D) migration.
E) differentiation.
Q4) Scientists can fill in gaps in defining species by DNA sequence analysis.
A)True
B)False
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Evolution and Diversity of Microbial Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mitochondria arose by endosymbiosis of a(an)
A) anaerobic bacterium.
B) photosynthetic bacterium.
C) aerobic bacterium.
D) aerobic archaeon.
E) photosynthetic archaeon.
Q2) Chloroplasts arose by endosymbiosis of a(an)
A) aerobic bacterium.
B) photosynthetic bacterium.
C) anaerobic bacterium.
D) aerobic archaeon.
E) photosynthetic archaeon.
Q3) Associations of fungi and plant roots are called
A) pili.
B) mycorrhizae.
C) lichens.
D) root forks.
E) endophytes.
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Chapter 16: Evolution and Diversity of Plants
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Sample Questions
Q1) In alternation of generations,a diploid sporophyte goes through meiosis to form ________ spores.
A) diploid
B) tetraploid
C) haploid
D) uniploid
E) No spores are formed. (This occurs in mitosis, not meiosis.)
Q2) Ferns have advantage over bryophytes in that ferns A) photosynthesize.
B) are heterotrophs.
C) have a vascular system, which allow them to grow taller.
D) do not require water to reproduce.
E) have alternation of generations.
Q3) Bryophytes lack vascular tissue and lignin and therefore cannot A) sexually reproduce.
B) grow tall.
C) asexually reproduce.
D) produce a gametophyte stage.
E) produce a sporophyte stage.
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Evolution and Diversity of Animals
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Sample Questions
Q1) The embryonic germ layer of tissue in animals that develops into the skin and nervous system is the
A) pachyderm.
B) endoderm.
C) mesoderm.
D) protoderm.
E) ectoderm.
Q2) All cnidarians share the ability to do which of the following?
A) photosynthesize
B) secrete a thick mantle that sometimes forms a shell
C) sting predators and prey
D) live on land
E) fly
Q3) The most successful phylum with regards to diversity and numbers is A) Mollusca.
B) Nematoda.
C) Platyhelminthes.
D) Arthropoda.
E) Echinodermata.
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Populations
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Sample Questions
Q1) In 2010,India had a population of 1,170,000,000,a birth rate of 0.027,and a death rate of 0.013.What was the growth rate of India's population?
A) 0.027
B) 0.013
C) 0.014
D) 0.040
E) 0.001
Q2) A population age structure diagram depicting an equal number of individuals in each age group suggests that the population is
A) stable.
B) growing.
C) declining.
D) facing extinction.
E) very small.
Q3) If there are 10 tortoises on a 2 hectare island,the population density is 5 tortoises per hectare.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Communities and Ecosystems
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Sample Questions
Q1) A coral reef is a complex ________ of calcium carbonate shells that are home to microbes,algae,invertebrates,and fishes,and its high productivity helps provide great species richness.
A) abiotic structure
B) community
C) biome
D) population
E) niche
Q2) Tropical rain forest soils are usually
A) nutrient-rich.
B) low in organic matter.
C) nutrient-poor and low in organic matter.
D) nutrient-rich and low in organic matter.
E) nutrient-poor.
Q3) The different seasons of the year are caused by the
A) tilt of the Earth's axis as the Earth travels around the Sun.
B) rotation of the Earth around the Sun.
C) rotation of the Earth on its axis.
D) rotation of the moon around the Earth.
E) gravitational pull of the moon as it travels around the Earth.
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Chapter 20: Preserving Biodiversity
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Sample Questions
Q1) The pH of acid deposition occurring in the eastern United States is about
A) 4.6.
B) 5.6.
C) 6.4.
D) 7.0.
E) 8.4.
Q2) In addition to eutrophication in lakes,which process is caused by excess nutrients in rivers?
A) warming of the water in the Gulf of Mexico
B) introduction of exotic species like Zebra mussels
C) the dead zone in the Gulf of Mexico
D) decreased plant growth
E) clogging of city water lines
Q3) Trees are important in the water cycle by
A) returning water to the atmosphere.
B) helping to recharge groundwater.
C) preventing rainwater runoff into streams.
D) providing an upper layer of organic matter.
E) All the answer choices are correct.
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Plant Form and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) If you dug up a plant and found it to have fibrous roots,you would suspect it to be a monocot.
A)True
B)False
Q2) If a gardener wanted to help prevent erosion along a slope,it would be best to plant
A) grasses because they have fibrous roots.
B) grasses because they have taproots.
C) trees because they have taproots.
D) trees because they have fibrous roots.
E) All answers are correct.
Q3) If a friend gave you a culinary herb that,season after season,produced no woody growth,you could call it an herbaceous plant.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Monocots have taproots while eudicots have fibrous roots.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: Reproduction and Development of Flowering Plants
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fruit develops from the
A) ovary.
B) stigma.
C) style.
D) ovule.
E) stamen.
Q2) You plant a seed in a pot containing soil,and then add water and place the pot under a light.After the seedling emerged,complete with two green leaves,the carbon dioxide levels decreased in the closed chamber.The developing seedling was using which of the following as a source of energy while the carbon dioxide levels were decreasing?
A) water from the soil
B) starch from the seed
C) sugars from the soil
D) nutrients from the soil
E) light
Q3) Gametophytes are haploid.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 23: Animal Tissues and Organ Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) The systems that support and move the body are
A) skeletal and muscular.
B) nervous and endocrine.
C) circulatory and respiratory.
D) digestive and circulatory.
E) urinary and immune.
Q2) Our cells use vitamin C to make collagen,and people on a diet deficient in vitamin C have increased risk of small blood vessels rupturing.Which is the best explanation for this observation?
A) Collagen is the connective tissue in blood.
B) Collagen weakens the cells lining blood vessels.
C) Collagen is in the connective tissue surrounding blood vessels.
D) Collagen causes blood vessels to become stiff and more likely to break.
E) Collagen inhibits blood clotting.
Q3) If you observe that the hypothalamus of a newly discovered animal stimulates blood vessels in the skin to relax in response to excessive body temperature,you know that it is an ectotherm.
A)True
B)False
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Page 25
Chapter 24: The Nervous System and the Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is true of olfactory cells and taste buds?
A) Olfactory receptors are chemoreceptors that detect odor molecules, while taste buds contain mechanoreceptors that allow the sense of taste in the mouth.
B) Olfactory receptors are mechanoreceptors that detect odor molecules, while taste buds contain chemoreceptors that allow the sense of taste in the mouth.
C) Olfactory receptors are chemoreceptors that detect odor molecules, and taste buds are chemoreceptors that allow the sense of taste in the mouth.
D) Olfactory receptors are mechanoreceptors that detect odor molecules, and taste buds are mechanoreceptors that allow the sense of taste in the mouth.
Q2) A nerve impulse travels about ________ times faster when it leaps between gaps in the myelin sheath than when it travels along an unmyelinated axon.
A) 5
B) 10
C) 20
D) 100
E) 50
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Chapter 25: The Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) To prevent swollen thyroid glands many nations add iodine to A) milk.
B) soda pop.
C) salt.
D) processed meats.
E) orange juice.
Q2) Hypoglycemia is caused by
A) too much insulin being produced.
B) too little insulin being produced.
C) insufficient carbohydrate intake or too much insulin production.
D) insufficient carbohydrate intake.
E) insufficient carbohydrate intake or too little insulin production.
Q3) An endocrine gland releases its product directly
A) into the digestive system.
B) onto an outer epithelial surface.
C) into the circulatory system.
D) into a body cavity.
E) All answers are correct.
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Chapter 26: The Skeletal and Muscular Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is not a part of the axial skeleton?
A) pelvic girdle
B) ribs
C) skull
D) sternum
E) vertebral column
Q2) What does the high level of similarity between the myosin gene sequences in human and non-human primates suggest?
A) Humans and non-human primates had a common ancestor at some time in the past.
B) Humans and non-human primates are not related.
C) The myosin gene arose independently in humans and non-human primates.
D) Genes can transfer readily between humans and non-human primates.
E) Natural selection did not occur in humans.
Q3) Connective tissue of the musculoskeletal system includes
A) ligaments.
B) bone.
C) cartilage.
D) tendons.
E) All answers are correct.
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Chapter 27: The Circulatory and Respiratory Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) What drives the movement of oxygen from the alveoli into the bloodstream?
A) active transport against a concentration gradient
B) facilitated diffusion down a concentration gradient
C) facilitated diffusion against a concentration gradient
D) diffusion down a concentration gradient
E) the heart pumping the oxygen into the bloodstream
Q2) If you came across a description of cellular components of blood that destroy foreign substances,you would be reading about
A) red blood cells.
B) cartilage cells.
C) platelets.
D) leukocytes.
E) bone cells.
Q3) The largest artery in the body is the
A) coronary artery.
B) superior vena cava.
C) aorta.
D) pulmonary artery.
E) carotid artery.
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Page 29
Chapter 28: The Digestive and Urinary Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Since small amounts of ammonia are very toxic,mammals convert ammonia to urea for concentration before excretion occurs.
A)True
B)False
Q2) If a person eats large quantities of food and then intentionally vomits,constantly going through what are called binge and purge patterns,they most likely suffer from the eating disorder known as
A) anorexia nervosa.
B) morbid obesity.
C) copious intake.
D) hypoglycemia.
E) bulimia.
Q3) The steroid hormone produced by the adrenal cortex that raises blood pressure is A) epinephrine.
B) aldosterone.
C) FSH.
D) insulin.
E) testosterone
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Chapter 29: The Immune System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Many parasites are too large to be engulfed by phagocytosis.Which would be effective in killing parasites?
A) complement proteins
B) T helper cells
C) B cells
D) macrophages
E) basophils
Q2) A major challenge is finding an acceptable bone marrow donor with the matching complex of Major Histocompatibility (MHC)proteins a person needs.Why is it important that the MHC proteins match between the donor and recipient?
A) If they don't match, the donor's immune system will see the recipient's bone marrow as foreign.
B) MHC proteins make antibodies that could attack the recipient's immune system.
C) MHC proteins serve as inhibitors of the immune system.
D) If they don't match, the recipient's immune system will see the donor's bone marrow as foreign.
E) MHC proteins are used by cytotoxic T cells to kill bacteria, and if they don't match they won't work properly.
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Chapter 30: Animal Reproduction and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) The hormone released from the hypothalamus that stimulates release of LH and FSH in both the male and female is
A) human growth hormone.
B) testosterone.
C) gonadotropin-releasing hormone.
D) estrogen hormone.
E) human chorionic gonadotropin.
Q2) The stage of human development that occurs from implantation to about eight weeks after fertilization is the A) zygote.
B) preembryonic stage.
C) gastrula.
D) fetal stage.
E) embryonic stage.
Q3) In the male,the sac-like structure that contains the testes is the A) epididymis.
B) vas deferens.
C) scrotum.
D) ureter.
E) seminal vesicle.
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