Biology for Non-Majors Pre-Test Questions
Course Introduction
Biology for Non-Majors introduces fundamental concepts of life science tailored for students from non-science backgrounds. This course explores essential topics such as cell structure and function, genetics, evolution, ecology, and the diversity of living organisms, emphasizing their relevance to everyday life and global issues. Students will gain an understanding of the scientific method, develop critical thinking skills, and learn how biological principles influence health, the environment, and society. The course combines lectures with interactive activities, fostering an appreciation for the role of biology in the modern world.
Recommended Textbook
Biological Science 2nd Canadian Edition by Scott; Sharp
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Biology and the Tree of Life
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Q1) Recall the chili pepper experiment that tested whether capsaicin acts as a deterrent to predators.What eating habits were predicted for the curve-billed thrasher-a known seed disperser?
A)The thrasher was predicted to eat both mild and hot chilies.
B)The thrasher was predicted to eat only the mild chilies.
C)The thrasher was predicted to eat only the hot chilies.
D)The thrasher was predicted to not eat any of the chilies.
Answer: A
Q2) In both experiments,flies appeared in all of the open jars and only in the open jars.Which one of the following statements is correct?
A)The experiment was inconclusive because Redi used only one kind of meat.
B)The experiment was inconclusive because it did not run long enough.
C)The experiment supports the hypothesis that spontaneous generation occurs in rotting meat.
D)The experiment supports the hypothesis that maggots arise only from eggs laid by adult flies.
Answer: D
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Water and Carbon: the Chemical Basis of Life
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Q1) When the atoms involved in a covalent bond have the same electronegativity,what type of bond results?
A)an ionic bond
B)a hydrogen bond
C)a nonpolar covalent bond
D)a polar covalent bond
Answer: C
Q2) An atom has four electrons in its valence shell.What types of covalent bonds is it capable of forming?
A)single,double,or triple
B)single and double only
C)four single bonds only
D)two double bonds only
Answer: A
Q3) Why is carbon so important in biology?
A)It is a common element on Earth.
B)It has very little electronegativity,making it a good electron donor.
C)It bonds to only a few other elements.
D)It forms up to four covalent bonds.
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Protein Structure and Function
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Q1) Suppose that Miller repeated his chemical evolution experiment,but without a source of electrical sparks.What would be the purpose?
A)to test if kinetic energy is required for chemical evolution
B)to test the hypothesis that reduced molecules are required for chemical evolution
C)to test the hypothesis that both reduced molecules and kinetic energy are required for chemical evolution
D)to make sure that the glassware had not been contaminated and that any new molecules found were actually produced by chemical evolution
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following best describes the first living entity-the one responsible for the origin of life?
A)It was a monomer.
B)It was large and extremely complex.
C)It could make a copy of itself.
Answer: C
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5
Chapter 4: Nucleic Acids and the Rna World
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Q1) Why is DNA said to be antiparallel?
A)The two strands of DNA are joined together via complementary base pairing such that AT run in the 3'5' direction and CG run in the 5'3' direction.
B)The DNA strands twist into a helix conformation once the bases have joined to form major and minor grooves.
C)Each strand of the double helix is made up of a sugar phosphate backbone which runs in the 5'3' direction.
D)DNA has polarity such that one strand runs in the 3'5' direction and the other in the 5'3' direction.
Q2) Hairpins and stem-and-loop patterns make up what part of RNA's structure?
A)primary
B)secondary
C)tertiary
D)quaternary
Q3) A nucleotide is made up of which of the following subunits?
A)a 5-carbon sugar,a phosphate group,and a nitrogenous base
B)a 5-carbon sugar and a phosphate group
C)a 5-carbon sugar and a nitrogenous base
D)a 5-carbon sugar,an amino group,and an "R-group"
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Page 6
Chapter 5: An Introduction to Carbohydrates
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Q1) The term carbohydrate is appropriate because of which of the following characteristics of sugars?
A)They all have the general formula (CH O)n.
B)They all have the general formula (C H O )n.
C)They all have the general formula (C HO)n.
D)They all have the general formula (CHO )n.
Q2) How do the and forms of glucose differ?
A)Their ring structures differ in the location of a hydroxyl group.
B)Their linear structures differ in the location of a hydroxyl group.
C)The form can be involved in 1,4 and 1,6 glycosidic linkages;the form can participate only in 1,4 linkages.
D)The oxygen atom inside the ring is located in a different position.
Q3) Carbohydrates have been shown to form
A)only in biotic conditions (inside living cells).
B)in biotic and abiotic conditions,but only if nucleotides and RNA have already formed.
C)in biotic and abiotic conditions,including outer space.
D)only in biotic conditions,when enough free energy is available to allow their formation.
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Chapter 6: Lipids, membranes, and the First Cells
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Q1) Integral membrane proteins stay in membranes because of A)osmotic pressure from proteins outside the cell.
B)diffusion of proteins from the cytoplasm to the membrane.
C)the locations of their polar and nonpolar amino acids.
D)their small size,which does not allow them to pass through the membrane.
Q2) Why does cholesterol lower membrane permeability?
A)It is polar.
B)It fills gaps in membranes and increases hydrophobic interactions.
C)It participates in hydrogen bonding in the membrane interior.
D)It is small relative to most phospholipids.
Q3) Phospholipid bilayer membranes are selectively permeable.What does that mean?
A)They allow everything but water to cross.
B)They allow only water to cross.
C)They allow everything nonpolar to cross.
D)They allow some things to cross while restricting others.
Q4) What most distinguishes lipids from other biomolecules is
A)that only lipids contain hydrogen atoms.
B)their molecular weight (size).
C)their chemical properties.
D)where they are found in the body.
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Chapter 7: Inside the Cell
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Q1) Eukaryotic cells manufacture cytoskeletal proteins that help to maintain the cells' shapes and functions.What would you predict about these proteins?
A)They would initially contain signal sequences that would allow their entrance into the endoplasmic reticulum.
B)They would be manufactured on free ribosomes in the cytoplasm.
C)They would be glycosylated in the Golgi apparatus.
D)They might travel to the nucleus in a transport vesicle with a specific zip code.
Q2) What is a purpose of the cell wall for both prokaryotes and plant cells?
A)to provide a means of cell-cell interaction
B)to enable the cell to obtain nutrients from its environment
C)to regulate the passage of solutes into and out of the cell
D)to protect the cell from the effects of a hypotonic environment
Q3) What is the most likely role of a cell that contains an extensive smooth ER?
A)It plays a role in storage.
B)It synthesizes large quantities of lipids.
C)It actively exports protein molecules.
D)It plays a role in immune function.
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Cell-Cell Interactions
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Q1) What is a major difference in the extracellular matrix (ECM)between plant and animal cells?
A)Plant ECM is composed primarily of proteins,whereas animal ECM is mainly carbohydrates.
B)Plant ECM is primarily carbohydrate in nature,whereas animal ECM is largely protein based.
C)Plant and animal ECMs are quite similar in structure and function.
D)Plant ECM components are released extracellularly by the Golgi stacks,whereas lysosomes function in this capacity in animal cells.
Q2) Plant cells are typically exposed to a hypotonic environment.Therefore,you would expect
A)a microscopic space between the plasma membrane and the cell wall.
B)occasional contact between the plasma membrane and the cell wall.
C)the plasma membrane to exert outward force on the cell wall.
D)no communication between the cell wall and the cell membrane.
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Chapter 9: Cellular Respiration and Fermentation
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Q1) After glycolysis,but before the Krebs cycle and electron transport chain/oxidative phosphorylation,most of the energy from the original glucose is in the form of which molecule?
A)ATP
B)CO
C)H2O
D)NADH
E)pyruvate
Q2) Which of the following events takes place in the electron transport chain?
A)breakdown of glucose into two pyruvate molecules
B)the breakdown of an acetyl group to carbon dioxide
C)the extraction of energy from high-energy electrons remaining from glycolysis and the Krebs cycle
D)substrate-level phosphorylation
Q3) A substrate-level phosphorylation occurs in the Krebs cycle where
A)GDP is phosphorylated to produce GTP.
B)NAD is phosphorylated to NADH.
C)oxaloacetate is phosphorylated.
D)acetylation of oxaloacetate takes place.
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Photosynthesis
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Q1) Which of the following statements concerning chloroplasts is false?
A)They are unrelated to plastids.
B)They have outer and inner membranes.
C)They have their own DNA.
D)They have an internal membrane system known as the thylakoids.
Q2) What is the difference between NAD and NADP?
A)NAD functions as an electron transporter,whereas NADP does not.
B)NAD functions as a free energy source for cells,whereas NADP does not.
C)Both function as electron carriers,but NADP has a phosphate group and NAD does not.
D)Both transport electrons to the electron transport chain (ETC)found on the inner mitochondrial membrane,but NADP transfers its electrons to the ETC at a higher energy level.
Q3) In autumn,the leaves of deciduous trees change colors.This is because the chlorophyll is degraded,and
A)the carotenoids and other pigments are still present in the leaves.
B)degraded chlorophyll becomes a pigment with different colors.
C)water supply to the leaves has been reduced.
D)the cells of the leaves begin to die.
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12
Chapter 11: The Cell Cycle
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Q1) Another term that could be used to describe the process of binary fission is A)genetic recombination.
B)fusion.
C)recombination.
D)cloning.
Q2) Mitosis is the process of chromosome separation.Cytoplasm is divided between the two daughter cells in a process known as A)karyokinesis.
B)cytokinesis.
C)S phase.
D)G phase.
Q3) Which of the following is not an effect of mitosis-promoting factor (MPF)involved in moving a cell into M phase?
A)phosphorylation of lamins,initiating breakdown of the nuclear membrane
B)phosphorylation of microtubule associated proteins,triggering the formation of the mitotic spindle
C)phosphorylation of an enzyme that breaks down the cyclin molecule
D)degradation of cyclin-dependent kinase
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Chapter 12: Meiosis
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Q1) What is a major difference between mitosis and meiosis I?
A)Sister chromatids separate in mitosis,and homologues separate in meiosis I.
B)DNA replication takes place prior to mitosis,but not before meiosis I.
C)Prophase is longer and more complex in mitosis.
D)Only meiosis I results in daughter cells that contain identical genetic information.
Q2) Quaking aspen can send out underground stems.New trees can sprout from these stems.This is an example of what type of reproduction?
A)Sexual
B)Alternation of generations
C)Haploid
D)Asexual
Q3) At what stage of meiosis does DNA replication take place?
A)DNA replication does not take place in cells destined to undergo meiosis.
B)prophase I
C)between meiosis I and meiosis II
D)None.DNA replication occurs before meiosis I begins.
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Chapter 13: Mendel and the Gene
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Q1) In birds,sex is determined by a ZW chromosome scheme that is much like the typical XY scheme seen in humans and many other organisms,except that the system is reversed: Males are ZZ (similar to XX in humans)and females are ZW (similar to XY in humans).A lethal recessive allele that causes death of the embryo occurs on the Z chromosome in pigeons.What would be the sex ratio in the offspring of a cross between a male heterozygous for the lethal allele and a normal female?
A)1:1 male to female
B)4:3 male to female
C)3:1 male to female
D)1:2 male to female
E)2:1 male to female
Q2) A man is heterozygous for two genes (R and L)that are located on different chromosomes.Which of the following processes would result in different combinations of the alleles for these two genes in his sperm?
A)Independent assortment
B)Sister chromatid segregation
C)Recombination
D)Fertilization
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Dna and the Gene: Synthesis and Repair
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Q1) In a healthy cell,the rate of DNA repair is equal to the rate of DNA mutation.When the rate of repair lags behind the rate of mutation,what is a possible fate of the cell?
A)The cell can be transformed to a cancerous cell.
B)The cell differentiates to form a different,but vital tissue.
C)The process of differentiation of cells that takes place in embryonic development is dependent on a higher rate of DNA mutation than the rate of DNA repair.
D)DNA synthesis will continue in an attempt to repair itself.
Q2) Telomere shortening is a problem in which types of cells?
A)prokaryotes
B)eukaryotes
C)both prokaryotes and eukaryotes
Q3) Which of the following agents can cause mutations in DNA?
A)aflatoxins that are found in moldy grains
B)free radicals that are formed as by-products of aerobic respiration
C)ultraviolet radiation from sunlight
D)All of the above are mutagenic agents.
Q4) Refer to Figure 14.3.Which of the structures in the figure breaks hydrogen bonds between complementary bases?
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Chapter 15: How Genes Work
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Q1) Refer to Figure 15.5.Transfer RNA contains the anticodon XXX (three-base sequence that is complementary to the mRNA codon).tRNA with which anticodon would transport phenylalanine to the ribosome?
A)UUU
B)AAA
C)TTT
D)CCC
Q2) Refer to Figure 15.4.Homocystinuria is a genetic disorder that results from a defect in one of the enzymes of the metabolic pathway shown.The gene for which enzyme/molecule is most likely defective?
A)methylenetetrahydrofolate reductase
B)methionine synthase
C)tetrahydrofolate reductase
D)cystathione beta synthase
Q3) The statement,DNA RNA Proteins,
A)has become known as the central dogma.
B)depicts the regulation of gene expression.
C)is reversible in most living organisms.
D)describes a series of catalytic reactions.
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Transcription, RNA Processing, and Translation
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Q1) Post-translational modifications include all of the following EXCEPT
A)removal of introns.
B)formation of hydrogen bonds among carbonyl and amino groups of the polypeptide backbone.
C)formation of covalent bonds between cysteine residues of the amino acid site chains.
D)addition of carbohydrates to form a glycoprotein.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT one of the steps in initiation of translation?
A)binding of the large ribosomal subunit to the small ribosomal subunit
B)binding of tRNA carrying formyl methionine to the start codon and small ribosomal subunit
C)recognition and binding of mRNA by the small ribosomal subunit
D)formation of a polypeptide bond
Q3) Refer to Figure 16.5.The mutation resulting in sickle cell anemia is an example of a A)point mutation.
B)frameshift mutation.
C)silent mutation.
D)deletion.
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Control of Gene Expression in Bacteria
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Q1) Introducing the recombinant lac operon/mouse tyrosinase DNA into mice is only half of the equation for regulating tyrosinase.In addition to lac operon/mouse tyrosinase DNA,what other gene must be added to mice to regulate tyrosinase expression?
A)the lacZ gene
B)the lacY gene
C)the lacI gene
D)the lac operator
Q2) E.coli adenylyl cyclase is most active when
A)extracellular glucose levels are low.
B)intracellular levels of lactose are low.
C)intracellular levels of lactose are high.
D)intracellular levels of cAMP are high.
Q3) The product of the lacI gene is most like a car's A)parking brake.
B)accelerator pedal.
C)steering wheel.
D)engine.
E)wheels.
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Chapter 18: Control of Gene Expression in Eukaryotes
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Q1) The TATA-binding protein (TBP)binds to A)RNA polymerase.
B)the point where transcription begins.
C)the promoter.
D)promoter-proximal elements.
E)enhancers.
Q2) A patient is undergoing genetic screening for cancer.The results show the patient has many proto-oncogenes.Based on this information only,which of the following statements is correct regarding the probability that this patient will develop cancer in the very near future?
A)Due to the increased number of proto-oncogenes,the chances are high.
B)The chances are low because the patient would have to show an increased number of oncogenes.
C)The chances are high because the patient most likely also shows an increase in the number of tumor suppressors.
Q3) Regulatory transcription factors
A)influence the binding of sigma factor to DNA.
B)influence the assembly of the basal transcription complex.
C)influence the degree of unwinding of DNA at the promoter.
D)open the two strands of DNA,so RNA polymerase can begin transcription.
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Chapter 19: Analyzing and Engineering Genes
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Q1) Which type of disorder is most difficult to correct by gene therapy?
A)a dominant disorder
B)an incompletely dominant disorder
C)a recessive disorder
D)Disorders showing all these forms of dominance present equal challenges.
Q2) In the current form of dideoxy DNA sequencing,the primer is unlabeled and each dideoxynucleotide is labeled with a different fluorescent marker.This method
A)eliminates the need to run sequencing reaction products on a gel.
B)allows a DNA sequence to be determined from 4 separate sequencing reactions,each run on a separate lane of a gel.
C)allows a DNA sequence to be determined from one sequencing reaction that is run on a single lane of a gel.
D)eliminates the need for sophisticated machines to read the output of each sequencing reaction.
Q3) Transgenic mice
A)often provide valuable animal models of human disease.
B)are essential for mapping human genes.
C)are now used in place of bacteria for cloning human genes.
D)were instrumental in pinpointing the location of the huntingtin gene.
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Genomics
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Q1) One surprising discovery from the analysis of bacterial genomes is that
A)very few species contain plasmids.
B)there is only one copy of each gene present within a bacterial genome.
C)there are many genes of unknown function.
D)bacterial genomes are always contained on a single circular chromosome.
E)there is almost no difference between the genomes of diverse bacteria.
Q2) LINES transposable elements are closely related to A)plasmids.
B)retroviruses.
C)poliovirus.
D)restriction enzymes.
E)DNA polymerase.
Q3) Which of the following makes it difficult to identify eukaryotic genes?
A)the presence of many introns
B)the large amount of DNA that does not code for proteins
C)the lack of homology between eukaryotic genes
D)A and B only
E)all of the above
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Chapter 21: Principles of Development
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Q1) Suppose the pair-rule genes were inactivated in Drosophila embryos.What is the likely result of the experiment?
A)The embryos would develop normally.
B)The embryos would lack several segments.
C)The embryos would have impaired anterior-posterior polarity.
D)The embryos would have missing alternate segments.
Q2) During development,what a cell differentiates into depends in part on its location along three body axes.Which axis runs towards the organism's belly?
A)dorsal
B)anterior
C)posterior
D)ventral
Q3) Communication within and between cells of an embryo can include all of the following except
A)increased concentration of signaling molecules.
B)changes in binding to regulatory sequences.
C)changes in gene transcription.
D)changes in gene sequences.
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23
Chapter 22: An Introduction to Animal Development
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Q1) Where do you suppose the first microtubules will be observed in the fertilized egg?
A)immediately beneath the plasma membrane
B)at the site of sperm entry
C)opposite the site of sperm entry
D)around the nucleus
Q2) What is the role of calcium signalling in prevention of polyspermy?
A)Calcium is toxic to the sperm and kills the sperm preventing fertilization.
B)Calcium signalling results in formation of a fertilization envelope.
C)Calcium signalling directs the sperm to another egg in the vicinity.
D)Increases in calcium ensure there is no room for the sperm to fertilize the egg.
Q3) Apoptosis has been found to begin early on in development (i.e.prior to gastrulation).How would a lack of apoptosis affect the process of development?
A)Neural tube closure would not occur.
B)The epidermis layer would join together.
C)Formation of the blastopore would not occur.
D)Formation of the notochord would not occur.
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Chapter 23: An Introduction to Plant Development
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Q1) Which of the following would be attributed to a lack of meristems?
A)MONOPTEROS would no longer be activated leading to underdeveloped hypocotyls.
B)The roots and shoots would only respond to certain environmental cues (i.e.a lack of water).
C)Further growth of the plant would not occur.
D) Cells would only differentiate into vascular and epidermal tissue.
Q2) In the early plant embryo,cells divide asymmetrically.Which structure does NOT result from divisions of the apical cell?
A)the suspensor
B)the cotyledons
C)the hypocotyls
D)the shoot
Q3) The ABC genes in Arabidopsis are considered homeotic genes.What could be a reason for this classification?
A)Each of the three genes codes for a different flower organ.
B)Each gene codes for regulatory transcription factors.
C)Each gene is similar in sequence to homeotic genes in Drosophila.
D)Each gene codes for proteins similar to Hox genes in mice.
E)Each gene directs different kinds of morphogenesis.
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Page 25
Chapter 24: Evolution by Natural Selection
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Q1) Tourist companies start visiting Island X,where the new colony of medium ground finches (see previous question)feeds on the tough-fruited Tribulus cistoides.The tourist companies set up reliable feeding stations with a variety of bird seeds (different types and sizes),so that tourists can get a better look at the finches.Which of these events is now most likely to occur to finch beaks on Island X?
A)evolution of yet larger,deeper beaks over time,until all birds have relatively large,deep beaks
B)evolution of smaller,pointier beaks over time,until all birds have relatively small,pointy beaks
C)increased variation in beak size and shape over time
D)no change in beak size and shape over time
Q2) Evolution of antibiotic resistant bacteria represents which of the following?
A)naturalselection
B)genetic drift
C)artificial selection
D)reproductive selection
Q3) Explain how one of the following supports the idea that species change through time: artificial selection,extinction,transitional forms,vestigial traits,or antibiotic resistance.
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Page 26
Chapter 25: Evolutionary Processes
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Q1) If an allele is found at a frequency of 0.8 in a population that is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium,and an individual is heterozygous for that allele,what is the probability they will pass on that allele to their offspring?
A)0)8
B)0)2
C)0)5
D)0)64
Q2) The frequency of theB allele (for an autosomal gene)in a population that is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is 0.2 and the frequency of the B allele is 0.8.The phenotype of allele B is dominant to that of B .If females make up exactly half of the population,what is the frequency of the B allele in the female population alone?
A)0)1
B)0)2
C)0)4
D)0)8
Q3) A beneficial point mutation occurs in a plant ovule,which is fertilized.The seed matures,falls to the ground,and starts to grow.Is the plant's population likely to show evolutionary change as a result of this mutation? Why or why not?
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Chapter 26: Speciation
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Q1) If a plant species with 2n = 14 forms an allopolyploid with a plant species with 2n = 18,what would be the likely diploid (2n)number of the allopolyploid?
A)16
B)28
C)32
D)36
Q2) A species of groundhog spreads through an environmentally varying region surrounding a lake;the different populations,each in their own environments,accumulate habitat-specific morphological traits.Which of the following is this an example of?
A)Allopatric speciation
B)Sub-species
C)Species cluster
D)Founder effect
Q3) Refer to Figure 26.1.Which of the following forms a monophyletic group?
A)A,B,C,D
B)C and D
C)D,E,and F
D)E,F,and G
E)all of the above
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Chapter 27: Phylogenies and the History of Life
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Q1) The Mesozoic era is nicknamed the Age of Reptiles and the Cenozoic era is nicknamed the Age of Mammals.What do these nicknames mean?
A)They indicate that the two eras are about the same length,because one lineage dominates the fauna of Earth only for a set period of time.
B)They identify the time of greatest diversity of these groups in the fossil record.
C)They identify the point of origin of these groups in the fossil record.
D)Both A and C are true.
E)Both B and C are true.
Q2) The cladistic approach to estimating phylogenetic trees is most like the approach of which species concept?
A)morphospecies concept
B)biological species concept
C)phylogenetic species concept
Q3) Which of the following are typically responsible for island extinctions?
A)introduced species and habitat destruction
B)overharvesting and introduction of nonnative predators and herbivores
C)earthquakes followed by tsunamis
D)increased CO levels and global warming
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Chapter 28: Bacteria and Archaea
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Q1) Which are evolutionarily more closely related?
A)bacteria and archaea
B)archaea and eukarya
C)bacteria and eukarya
D)Bacteria,eukarya,and archaea are equally related to each other.
Q2) Researchers have found a new type of bacteria,and they want to determine its phylum.What would be the most reliable method to do so?
A)Conduct a Gram-stain test.
B)Perform an analysis of metabolic pathways.
C)Determine the ribosomal RNA sequence of the bacteria.
D)Analyze the morphological characteristics of the bacteria.
Q3) You need to identify the major type of bacteria living on the shower curtain in your bathroom and find out what they use as a food source.What is the most efficient method for answering this question?
A)enrichment culture
B)direct sequencing
C)Enrichment culture and direct sequencing are equally efficient methods.
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Chapter 29: Protists
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Q1) The dinoflagellate Pfiesteria piscicida can feed off algae and bacteria.They can also "steal" intact chloroplasts from algae and become photosynthetic.In the presence of large amounts of fish,Pfiesteria can secrete a toxin that kills fish,allowing it to feed on decaying fish matter.How would you classify this species?
A)predator
B)primary producer
C)detritivore
D)all of the above
E)A and C only
Q2) Which of the following statements best describes the term synapomorphy?
A)A trait that is shared by more than one monophyletic group.
B)A trait common in a single monophyletic group,but not generally found outside of that group.
C)The state of having several traits in common with different monophyletic groups.
D)A trait that evolved in several different monophyletic groups simultaneously.
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Chapter 30: Green Algae and Land Plants
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Q1) Molecular phylogenies show all land plants are a monophyletic group.This suggests that
A)there were many different transitions from aquatic to terrestrial habitats.
B)wind-pollinated plants arose first.
C)land plants have undergone a diversification since they first colonized terrestrial habitats.
D)there was a single transition from aquatic to terrestrial habitats.
Q2) To perform this study,the researchers needed to count
A)the number of red flowers.
B)the number of pink and white flowers.
C)the number of hummingbirds.
D)the number of hawk moths.
E)All of these answers apply.
Q3) As you stroll through a moist forest,you are most likely to see a A)zygote of a green alga.
B)gametophyte of a moss.
C)sporophyte of a liverwort.
D)gametophyte of a fern.
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Chapter 31: Fungi
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Q1) Microsporidians are considered parasitic because of the ability to penetrate their host cells using this structure.
A)mycelium
B)polar tube
C)sporangia
D)chitin
Q2) Most coal was formed during the Carboniferous period.What is a reasonable hypothesis that explains this observation?
A)Plants from this period did not require fungal associations.
B)There were not many saprophytic fungi during this period.
C)There were not many mycorrhizal fungi during this period.
D)Coal was formed from an explosion of fungal species during this period.
Q3) Using grams of biomass as an indicator of abundance,which species is most likely the dominant species in this ecosystem (see Figure 31.5)?
A)Bromus erectus
B)Carax flacca
C)Sanguisorba officinalis
D)Centaurium erythrea
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Chapter 32: An Introduction to Animals
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Q1) What does this reclassification based on molecular data imply about the evolution of acoelomates,pseudocoelomates,and coelomates?
A)Pseudocoelomates can be seen as an intermediate stage between acoelomate and coelomate development.
B)Although acoelomates and pseudocoelomates evolved only once,coelomates evolved multiple times in different lineages.
C)Only the animals that evolved earliest are acoelomates.
D)Some pseudocoelomates and acoelomates have evolved from coelomates.
Q2) All of the following are true about choanoflagellates EXCEPT
A)they are suspension feeders.
B)they are sessile as adults.
C)they live in aquatic habitats.
D)they are animals.
E)they reproduce asexually.
Q3) If humans were characterized as undergoing metamorphosis,human development from infant to adult would be better described as
A)hemimetabolous metamorphosis.
B)holometabolous metamorphosis.
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Chapter 33: Protostome Animals
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Q1) Of what advantage is a large surface-area-to-volume ratio to the Platyhelminthes?
A)It enables them to live in dry habitats.
B)It enables them to survive on very little oxygen.
C)It enables the efficient transport of gases and nutrients without specialized structures.
D)It enables their blood vessels to transport oxygen and carbon dioxide more efficiently.
E)None of the above are advantages.
Q2) Look at the graph for Cormocephalus morsitans.What is the best interpretation of these results?
A)The centipede had its spiracles open the entire time.
B)The centipede had its spiracles closed the entire time.
C)The centipede had its spiracles open when CO emission peaked and closed when CO emission was low.
D)The centipede had its spiracles closed when CO emission peaked and open when CO emission was low.
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Chapter 34: Deuterostome Animals
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Q1) Which of the following characteristics evolved independently in mammals and birds?
A)bilateral symmetry
B)amniotic eggs
C)jaws
D)bone
E)endothermy
Q2) It is believed that the coelacanths and lungfish represent a crucial link between other fishes and tetrapods.What is the major feature in these fish in support of this hypothesis?
A)They produce amniotic eggs.
B)They have fins with a skeletal and muscular structure similar to tetrapod limbs.
C)They have highly evolved nervous and circulatory systems like most tetrapods.
D)They move onto land to eat and lay their eggs.
E)They enter a hibernative stage when food is scarce,as many tetrapods do.
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Chapter 35: Viruses
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Q1) As obligate intracellular parasites,viruses have which of these characteristics?
A)After entering a cell,they manufacture their own ATP and carbon-containing compounds,like proteins and nucleic acids,in order to survive.
B)After entering a cell,they use the host cell's machinery to make more copies of themselves using host proteins.
C)After entering a cell,they use their own protein-synthesizing machinery to make more viral proteins that are used to assemble more copies of themselves.
Q2) Does treating a viral infection with antibiotics affect the course of the infection?
A)No;antibiotics do not kill viruses,because viruses use host proteins to replicate and antibiotics affect bacterial proteins.
B)No;antibiotics do not kill viruses,because viruses self-assemble into active particles.
C)Yes;antibiotics activate the immune system,and this decreases the severity of the infection.
D)Yes;antibiotics can prevent viral entry into the cell by binding to host-receptor proteins.
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37
Chapter 36: Plant Form and Function
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Q1) Root hairs on a root develop
A)on the entire root surface.
B)before the cells elongate.
C)after the cells elongate.
D)on the root cap.
Q2) What is not a function of modified leaves?
A)trapping and digesting insects for an additional nutrient source
B)wrapping around structures for support
C)attracting pollinating insects with their bright colors
D)absorbing oxygen for photosynthesis
E)storing nutrients and water
Q3) The surface area of a plant's root system is substantially larger than the surface area of its shoot system.Which hypothesis best explains the extensive surface area of roots?
A)needed for contact with soil particles for mineral and water absorption
B)provides structure for vascular tissue in the roots
C)provides good anchoring ability of the root system
D)needed to store sugars for overwintering capability
Q4) Explain why it is possible for big old hollow trees to live and grow for many years,still producing green leaves.
Page 38
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Chapter 37: Water and Sugar Transport in Plants
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Q1) Which of the following is not a net sink for products of photosynthesis in a deciduous angiosperm tree?
A)leaves in early spring
B)flowers in summer
C)fruits in summer
D)roots in early spring
E)roots in early autumn
Q2) Water potential ( )can be thought of as the tendency for water to move from one place to another.In plants,it is made up mainly of solute potential and pressure potential.Hypothetical plant cells A and B are adjacent to each other.The solute potential ( S)of cell A is -0.35 MPa,and its pressure potential ( P)is +0.15 MPa.The solute potential ( S)of cell B is -0.30 MPa,and its pressure potential ( P)is +0.05 MPa.In which direction will net water movement occur?
A)Neither;cells A and B are in equilibrium with each other.
B)from cell A to cell B
C)from cell B to cell A
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Chapter 38: Plant Nutrition
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Q1) What is phytoremediation?
A)use of plants as medicine
B)use of plants in alternative medicine
C)use of plants to reduce soil erosion
D)use of plants to clean up contaminated soil and water
Q2) Which criteria allow biologists to divide chemicals into macronutrients and micronutrients?
A)their availability in the soil
B)the amounts in which plants need them
C)the way they are used by plants
D)whether or not they are essential for plant growth
E)all of the above
Q3) Which of the following is not true about an essential nutrient?
A)It is necessary for plant growth and reproduction.
B)It is required for a specific structure or metabolic function.
C)It cannot be synthesized by a plant.
D)It is produced by symbiotic bacteria.
E)All of the above are correct.
Q4) Give two reasons that relatively few plants thrive in bogs.
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Chapter 39: Plant Sensory Systems, signals, and Responses
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Q1) Upon exposure to blue light,plants not only begin to grow toward the light,but move their chloroplasts to the sunny side of each cell.Why would it be advantageous to move chloroplasts within cells?
A)to maximize light absorption by the chloroplasts for photosynthesis
B)to add weight to the sunny side of the plant so the plant will bend
C)to maximize heat absorption by the chloroplasts for cellular respiration
D)to reduce stomatal opening on the sunny side of the plants
E)all of the above
Q2) Which of the following is not a characteristic of plant hormones?
A)They exist in plant in very tiny amounts.
B)They change their shape in response to stimulus.
C)They are able to move from one cell to another cell through extracellular spaces.
D)They affect only cells with an appropriate receptor.
E)All of the above are correct descriptions of plant hormones.
Q3) Which of the following signals indicates shade to a plant?
A)lower temperature
B)blue light
C)far-red light
D)green light
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Page 41
Chapter 40: Plant Reproduction
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Q1) Unripe fruits protect seeds from predation and early germination.What is the major function of ripe fruits?
A)attracting pollinators
B)dispersing seed
C)deterring predators
D)keeping the seed hydrated before germination
Q2) It is possible to make seedless tomatoes by removing the anthers of the flower and putting a hormone (auxin)on the stigma of the tomato flower.Weekly applications are required.Over the course of development,the stigma and style fall off,and the ovary develops into a normal-looking tomato with no seeds.Normally,seed and fruit formation are coordinated using hormone signaling.What does the application of auxin indicate?
A)The stigma of a tomato flower produces auxin that is necessary for pollination.
B)Pollen is not usually required to make fruits.
C)Applied auxin must substitute for an auxin source in a developing seed.
D)All of the above answers apply.
Q3) Plants in crop fields such as corn are genetically very similar.What are benefits of this phenomenon? What are pitfalls of that phenomenon?
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Page 42
Chapter 41: Animal Form and Function
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Q1) Gills serve multiple functions in fish in addition to gas exchange.Given the large surface area of gills with lamellae,what is the most likely explanation for why crucian carp cover protruding lamellae in their gills when levels of oxygen are normal?
A)to prevent loss of heat to the surrounding water
B)to prevent loss of ions to the surrounding water
C)to prevent protein loss to the surrounding water
D)to prevent loss of oxygen to the surrounding water
Q2) After you eat a meal,blood glucose concentration increases.Insulin is released from the pancreas to restore blood glucose concentration by facilitating the uptake of glucose by cells and stimulating the conversion of glucose to glycogen.What homeostatic mechanism is this an example of?
A)positive feedback
B)negative feedback
C)neutralizing feedback
D)feedback inhibition
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Chapter 42: Water and Electrolyte Balance in Animals
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Q1) Salmon eggs hatch in freshwater.The fish then migrate to the ocean (a hypertonic solution)and,after several years of feeding and growing,return to freshwater to breed.How can these organisms make the transition from freshwater to ocean water and back to freshwater?
A)The rectal gland functions in the ocean water,and chloride cells function in freshwater.
B)Different gill cells are involved in osmoregulation in freshwater than in salt water.
C)Salmon surface to breathe oxygen,so there is no need for more than one mechanism of osmoregulation.
D)Their metabolism changes in salt water to degrade electrolytes.
Q2) What is the function of the shark rectal gland?
A)It is involved in osmoregulation.
B)It is responsible for excretion of undigested residue.
C)It secretes a hypotonic solution.
D)It concentrates electrolytes necessary for homeostasis in a hypertonic environment.
Q3) Where does filtration take place in the figure above?
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Chapter 43: Animal Nutrition
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Q1) Based on the graph in the Figure 43.3,what can you infer about the incidence of type II diabetes mellitus?
A)Obesity is a risk factor for development of type II diabetes mellitus.
B)If you maintain a normal body weight (BMI < 25),you will not get type II diabetes mellitus.
C)The incidence of type II diabetes mellitus has increased in the past 10 years.
D)People who develop type II diabetes mellitus are typically diagnosed in childhood or adolescence.
Q2) A major risk factor for atherosclerosis is high levels of dietary cholesterol.If you get your lipid levels checked regularly,which of the following,when elevated,most significantly increases your risk for developing atherosclerosis?
A)HDL cholesterol
B)LDL cholesterol
C)liver LDL receptors
D)cholecystokinin
Q3) Refer to Figure 43.1.Which of the mouthparts shown in the figure above are specialized for crushing and grinding?
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Chapter 44: Gas Exchange and Circulation
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Q1) On the ECG above,which waveform represents electrical activity within the atria?
A)1
B)2
C)3
Q2) You are a physician,and see a patient who complains of abnormal fatigue during exercise.You find that the immediate problem is a buildup of carbon dioxide in the tissues.What is the most likely cause?
A)abnormally shaped platelets
B)abnormal carbonic anhydrase
C)abnormal hemoglobin
D)not enough hemoglobin
Q3) Baroreceptors sensing a rapid increase in blood pressure will likely result in
A)reduced cardiac output.
B)increased cardiac output.
C)constricted arterioles and veins.
D)both A and C.
E)both B and C.
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Chapter 45: Electrical Signals in Animals
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Q1) The Nernst equation specifies the equilibrium potential for a particular ion.This equilibrium potential is a function of
A)hydrostatic pressure.
B)ion concentration gradient.
C)osmotic gradient.
D)temperature (thermal)gradient.
E)both B and D
Q2) Stem cell transplants may someday be used to treat Parkinson's disease.Researchers are hopeful that these cells would alleviate the symptoms of Parkinson's disease by
A)preventing temporal lobe seizures.
B)repairing sites of traumatic brain injury.
C)replenishing missing ion channels.
D)secreting the neurotransmitter dopamine.
E)both A and D.
Q3) Where are the sodium channels that trigger an action potential located?
A)axon hillock
B)axon dendrite
C)axon terminal
D)axon cell body
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Chapter 46: Animal Sensory Systems and Movement
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Q1) Which of the following is not a true description of the transduction of a stimulus by sensory receptors into signals in the form of action potentials?
A)Pressure from sound waves bends cilia in specialized hearing cells,causing ion channels in the plasma membrane to open or close and resulting in a change in ion flow that depolarizes or hyperpolarizes the membrane.
B)Light can cause some molecules to change conformation,which then triggers a cascade of events leading to a change in the cell's membrane.
C)Molecules in the air travel up the nose to the mucous membranes,where they bend cilia in hair cells,open ion channels,and cause depolarization of the cell membrane.
D)Na and H can flow through sodium and proton channels respectively to directly depolarize the cell membranes of some taste cells,causing the salty or sour taste sensations.
E)Many types of molecules can bind to a variety of receptors in taste cells,leading to depolarization of the cell membrane and causing the taste sensation of bitterness.
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Chapter 47: Chemical Signals in Animals
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Q1) In the cAMP pathway,a signalling molecule binds to and activates the cell surface receptor but the adenylyl cyclase remains inactivated.What is the most likely reason for this?
A)GDP was not replaced by GTP on the G protein.
B)Phosphodiesterase did not convert cAMP to AMP.
C)Protein kinase A was not activated.
D)The cell surface receptor did not undergo a conformational change.
Q2) Polypeptides can have which of the following types of effects?
A)autocrine
B)paracrine
C)endocrine
D)all of the above
E)only A and C
Q3) Which of the following is similar in structure to cholesterol?
A)testosterone
B)estradiol
C)cortisol
D)all of the above
E)only A and B
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Page 49
Chapter 48: Animal Reproduction
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Q1) By what mechanism does a second male mating with a female gain an advantage in sperm competition in some insects?
A)The second male's sperm physically dislodge the first male's sperm and insert themselves in place.
B)The accessory fluids from the second male's semen is able to displace stored sperm from competing males.
C)The second male will have larger testes and so produce larger numbers of sperm.
D)Answers A and B are both correct.
Q2) Aquatic animals that rely on external fertilization for reproduction have a low probability of successful fertilization.Which one of the following is not used by aquatic animals to increase the success of external fertilization?
A)release of pheromones to synchronize gamete release
B)production of a large number of gametes
C)moving onto land for fertilization
D)elaborate courtship rituals to synchronize gamete release
Q3) All vertebrates rely exclusively on sexual reproduction.
A)true
B)false
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Chapter 49: The Immune System in Animals
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Q1) It is commonly know that breast milk provides many benefits to a newborn baby because it provides immune benefits.Which of the following immunoglobulins play a role in this?
A)IgG
B)IgA
C)IgE
D)IgM
Q2) Which of the following is a difference between a primary and a secondary immune response?
A)The secondary response comes immediately after the primary response.
B)The secondary response involves memory cells,the primary does not.
C)The primary response involves immunological memory whereas the secondary response does not.
D)The primary response generates an allergy,which the body uses in the secondary response.
Q3) What do neutrophils and macrophages have in common?
A)Both ingest and kill bacteria.
B)Both arrive simultaneously at a wound site.
C)Both secrete cytokines.
D)Both secrete lysozymes.
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Chapter 50: An Introduction to Ecology
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Q1) Which of the following statements regarding turnover is true?
A)In fall turnover,dense water at 4°C sinks and disturbs sediments in the benthic zone.
B)In fall turnover,dense water at 4°C rises and disturbs sediments in the benthic zone.
C)The surface water gets to 4°C only by cooling.
D)Fall turnovers and spring turnovers are exactly the same.
Q2) Based on the data in Figure 50.3,which of the following statements is true?
A)Area 1 could be called a subtropical desert.
B)Area 2 could be called tundra.
C)Area 1 could be called a tropical wet forest.
D)Area 2 could be called a boreal forest.
Q3) What would happen to the seasons if the Earth were tilted 35 degrees off its orbital plane instead of the usual 23.5 degrees?
A)The seasons would disappear.
B)Winters and summers would be more severe.
C)Winters and summers would be less severe.
D)The seasons would be shorter.
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Page 52
Chapter 51: Behavioural Ecology
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Q1) Which of the animals listed below is best known for migration using chemotaxis?
A)pigeons
B)arctic terns
C)salmon
D)monarch butterflies
Q2) Which of the following conclusions is most logical based on the data above?
A)Females produce more eggs more quickly when exposed to breeding males.
B)Females produce eggs more quickly when exposed to many males.
C)All non-isolated females do just as well as isolated females.
D)All of the above answers apply.
Q3) Migration in birds is guided in part by
A)celestial navigation.
B)temperature changes.
C)olfactory cues.
D)day-length changes caused by latitude.
Q4) In the figure above,which is the most logical conclusion from the data?
A)Young children are more at risk when living with a stepparent.
B)Older children are more at risk when living with a stepparent.
C)Older children will not die of homicide when living with biological parents.
D)All stepparents are unfit to raise nonbiological children.
Page 53
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Chapter 52: Population Ecology
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Q1) Assuming graph (b)in Figure 52.8 is the result of some experimental treatment,what can be concluded?
A)The experimental treatment exacerbated the population cycling.
B)The experimental treatment did not affect population cycling in this species.
C)The experimental treatment has most likely identified the cause of population cycling.
D)None of the above answers applies.
Q2) In the figure above,which of the lines represents the highest per-capita rate increase (r)?
A)line A
B)line B
C)line C
D)line D
Q3) Looking at the data in the figure above,what can be said about survival and clutch size?
A)Animals with low survival tend to have low clutch sizes.
B)High clutch sizes tend to produce animals with low survival.
C)Animals with high fecundity tend to live longer.
D)Animals with high fecundity tend not to live as long as animals with low fecundity.
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Chapter 53: Community Ecology
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Q1) People with at least one copy of the HLA-B53 gene are better able to beat back malarial infections before the infection progresses.If this is a coevolutionary arms race between Plasmodium and humans,what would the next step in this race be?
A)to see humans with more than one copy of the HLA-B53 gene
B)to see humans without the HLA-B53 gene
C)to see Plasmodium populations that counter the HLA-B53 gene
D)to see Plasmodium populations that have the HLA-B53 gene
Q2) In the figure above,which community has the highest species richness?
A)community 1
B)community 2
C)community 3
D)community 4
Q3) Which of the following is most likely the main advantage of controlled burnings of forested areas?
A)Controlled burnings make up for years of preventing fires.
B)Controlled burnings clear forested areas for farmland.
C)Controlled burnings prevent the overgrowth of the underbrush.
D)Controlled burnings allow new species to form.
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Page 55
Chapter 54: Ecosystems
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Q1) From which one of the following environmental issues have we not documented either a slowdown,partial,or significant recovery?
A)phosphate pollution
B)global warming
C)acid rain
D)ozone hole
Q2) What is the main reason for using food webs instead of food chains in analyzing ecosystems?
A)Most organisms eat more than one type of food.
B)Most organisms feed at several trophic levels.
C)The decomposition cycle needs to be shown.
D)Answers A and B both apply.
E)All of the above answers apply.
Q3) You own 300 acres of patchy temperate forest.Which one of the following actions would increase the net primary productivity of the area the most?
A)adding fertilizer to the entire area
B)introducing 100 rabbits into the area
C)planting 500 new trees
D)relocating all the deer found in the area
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Chapter 55: Biodiversity and Conservation Biology
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Q1) What is the main difference between sustainable development and adaptive management?
A)Adaptive management has a more international aspect.
B)They are both essentially the same thing.
C)Sustainable development uses resources carefully so they do not decline over time.
D)Adaptive management is an ongoing process of reevaluating and re-implementing management plans though time.
Q2) Why is it important to preserve the tuataras (see Figure 55.1)?
A)The group has very few representatives of its lineage.
B)The group is particularly sensitive to environmental disturbances.
C)The group has low genetic diversity.
D)The group is economically important.
Q3) Ecosystems function better when biodiversity is high?
A)yes
B)no
C)mostly yes
D)mostly no
E)There are no data to indicate either way.
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