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Biology for Non-Majors Midterm Exam - 3055 Verified Questions

Page 1


Biology for Non-Majors

Midterm Exam

Course Introduction

Biology for Non-Majors is an introductory course designed to provide students with a foundational understanding of the principles and concepts of biology without requiring extensive prior knowledge of the subject. The course covers essential topics such as cell structure and function, genetics, evolution, ecology, and the diversity of life. Emphasis is placed on how biological principles relate to everyday life and contemporary issues, including health, the environment, and biotechnology. Through lectures, discussions, and practical activities, students will develop scientific literacy and critical thinking skills applicable across disciplines. This course is ideal for those seeking a broad overview of biology to fulfill general education requirements or to gain a better appreciation of the natural world.

Recommended Textbook

Biology Concepts and Investigations 2nd Edition by Marille Hoefnagels

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39 Chapters

3055 Verified Questions

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Page 2

Chapter 1: What Is Life

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Sample Questions

Q1) Staphylococcus is which of the following?

A)Species

B)Domain

C)Kingdom

D)Phylum

E)Genus

Answer: E

Q2) Decomposers are a special group of producers.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

Q3) Which of the following would not be a "control" in an experimental procedure?

A)A placebo

B)A known standard of comparison

C)A normal group

D)An experimental group

E)A "zero-value" group

Answer: D

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Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Life

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Sample Questions

Q1) Water is best described as which of the following?

A)An ion

B)A non-polar molecule

C)An atom

D)A polar molecule

E)An element

Answer: D

Q2) Proteins store the genetic information of the cell and transmit it to the next generation.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

Q3) An ion is:

A)An atom that has gained electrons

B)An atom that has a positive charge

C)An atom that has lost electrons

D)An atom that has a negative charge

E)All are correct

Answer: E

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Page 4

Chapter 3: The Dynamic Cell

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Sample Questions

Q1) Most living cells are small in size because they need a large ratio of surface area to volume.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Q2) Eukaryotic cells are 10-100 times the size of prokaryotic cells.How do eukaryotic cells resolve the surface area to volume limitations that favor smaller cells?

A)They have pumps that move gasses and nutrients through the cell

B)Diffusion does not work in cells without a cell wall

C)Organelles keep reactions compartmentalized and concentrated

D)Gasses are taken up by active transport

E)None of the biochemical reactions in prokaryotes occur in eukaryotes

Answer: C

Q3) Bacteria with which cell shape would be least likely to have a gene for MreB?

A)Rods

B)Spherical

C)Filaments

D)Corkscrews

Answer: B

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Page 5

Chapter 4: The Energy of Life

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Sample Questions

Q1) How does the bacteria that causes cholera,Vibrio cholera,trigger potentially life threatening diarrhea?

A)Cholera toxin stimulates CFTR leading to increased osmosis of water into the intestines

B)Cholera toxin inhibits CFTR leading to increased osmosis of water into the intestines

C)Cholera toxin stimulates CFTR leading to decreased osmosis of water into the intestines

D)Cholera toxin inhibits CFTR leading to decreased osmosis of water into the intestines

Q2) Oxidation-reduction reactions:

A)Never occur at the same time

B)Remove electrons from both molecules involved

C)Remove protons from one molecule and join them to another molecule

D)Occur simultaneously

E)Remove oxygen from the cell

Q3) Reduction is the gain of electrons.

A)True

B)False

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6

Chapter 5: Photosynthesis

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Sample Questions

Q1) The light reactions use sunlight as their energy source.

A)True

B)False

Q2) The proportion of oxygen in our atmosphere today is about:

A)30%.

B)2%.

C)5%.

D)10%.

E)20%.

Q3) The sea slug Elysia chlorotica absorbs chloroplasts from the algae Vaucheria litorea as it digests the algae.This allows the sea slug to live on sunlight and carbon dioxide.This suggests that:

A)photosynthesis can occur from proteins released from a digested chloroplast.

B)regions of a plant outside of the chloroplast are necessary for photosynthesis.

C)chloroplasts alone are sufficient for photosynthesis.

D)some of the algae are not digested and are living symbiotically inside of the sea slugs.

E)photosynthesis can occur outside of a chloroplast in algae.

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Chapter 6: How Cells Release Energy

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Sample Questions

Q1) If you put a plant in a chamber and place it in the dark,the concentrations ______.

A)of O<sub>2</sub> will fall and CO<sub>2</sub> will rise

B)of O<sub>2</sub> will rise and CO<sub>2</sub> will fall

C)of both O<sub>2</sub> and CO<sub>2</sub> will rise

D)of both O<sub>2</sub> and CO<sub>2</sub> will fall

Q2) How can glycolysis produce ATP in the absence of oxygen?

A)All are correct

B)By ATPase linked to the mitochondrial electron transport chain

C)By attaching a phosphate ion to ADP

D)By exciting electrons using photons of light

E)By substrate level phosphorylation

Q3) The rate of carbon dioxide production by Cyclocephala colasi beetles was used to measure their:

A)Ability to pollinate flowers

B)Rate of photosynthesis

C)Body temperature

D)Level of activity

E)Rate of respiration

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Chapter 7: Dna Structure and Gene Function

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Sample Questions

Q1) The DNA sequence 5' - ATGCATGC - 3' will pair with which of the following DNA strands?

A)3' - TAGCTAGC - 5'

B)5' - TAGCTAGC - 3'

C)3' - ATGCATGC - 5'

D)5' - ATGCATGC - 3'

E)3' - CGTACGTA - 5'

Q2) Transposable elements:

A)Are segments of RNA found in chromosomes

B)Are another name for translocations

C)Are DNA sequences that can "jump" within the genome

D)Result from damage to the chromosomes by things like radiation

E)Are formed during transcription

Q3) In the Lac operon,the attachment site for RNA polymerase is:

A)The operator

B)The promoter

C)The repressor

D)The first lactose degrading gene of the operon

E)The last lactose degrading gene of the operon

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Page 9

Chapter 8: Dna Replication, mitosis and the Cell Cycle

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Sample Questions

Q1) Why does a replication fork have a leading and lagging strand?

A)Because DNA synthesis always goes from 3' to 5'

B)Because DNA synthesis can grow off of either the 3' or 5' end

C)Because DNA synthesis always goes from 5' to 3'

D)To slow down DNA synthesis to make time for mitosis

E)To slow down DNA synthesis to make time for the production of primers

Q2) What is the dependent variable in figure 8.26?

A)The volume of the tumor in humans

B)Treatment days

C)Treatment with endostatin

D)Treatment with cyclophosphamide

E)The volume of the tumor in mice

Q3) The phase of mitosis in which the centromeres split and sister chromatids are pulled to opposite poles of the cell is:

A)Prophase

B)Anaphase

C)Prometaphase

D)Metaphase

E)Telophase

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Page 10

Chapter 9: Sexual Reproduction and Meiosis

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Sample Questions

Q1) If daughter cells produced by meiosis have a mixture of paternal and maternal chromosomes this is due to:

A)Crossing over

B)Semi-conservative replication

C)Random fertilization

D)Random alignment of chromosome pairs

E)Mutation

Q2) Why are tetraploid offspring considered a separate species from their diploid parents?

A)Their offspring would be diploid and sterile

B)Their offspring would be triploid and sterile

C)Their offspring would be tetraploid and sterile

D)The two species would look different and would not be pollinated

E)The two species would be in different habitats and not able to mate

Q3) In meiosis,paired homologs align down the center of the cell during:

A)Metaphase one

B)Prophase one

C)Prophase two

D)Metaphase two

E)Anaphase two

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Chapter 10: Patterns of Inheritance

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Sample Questions

Q1) In the ABO blood type system the alleles I<sup>A</sup>,I<sup>B</sup> and i produce:

A)Three phenotypes

B)Two phenotypes

C)One phenotype

D)Four phenotypes

E)Type A and type B blood types only

Q2) The fact that during gamete formation,the segregation of alleles for a gene on one chromosome does not influence the segregation of alleles for a gene on another chromosome is Mendel's:

A)Law of independent assortment

B)Law of random fertilization

C)Law of population dynamics

D)Law of crossing over

E)Law of segregation

Q3) Homologous chromosomes have:

A)The same genes but can have different alleles

B)The same genes and alleles

C)Different genes and alleles

D)Different genes, but can have the same alleles

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Page 12

Chapter 11: The Forces of Evolutionary Change

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Sample Questions

Q1) Alleles conferring red plumage to cardinal males are common because red plumage:

A)Makes males less susceptible to predation

B)Is helpful in attracting prey

C)Is preferred by female cardinals in choosing a mate

D)Allows male cardinals to easily identify each other

E)Is an example of genetic drift

Q2) A cigarette smoker with lung cancer will not pass any smoking-induced lung cancer mutations to his children because the smoking-induced mutations:

A)Are in germ cells

B)Are in somatic cells

C)Are in gametes

D)Are not in DNA

E)Do not affect the phenotype of the lung cells

Q3) In the Hardy-Weinberg equation,p<sup>2</sup> + 2pq + q<sup>2</sup> = 1: 2pq represents:

A)The frequency of homozygous recessive individuals

B)The frequency of homozygous dominant individuals

C)The frequency of heterozygous individuals

D)The frequency of homozygous recessive and heterozygous individuals

E)The frequency of homozygous dominant and heterozygous individuals

Page 13

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Chapter 12: Evidence for Evolution

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Sample Questions

Q1) Amphibians,birds,and mammals look the most similar as _____.

A)Newborns

B)Embryos

C)Adults

D)Fossils

E)Juveniles

Q2) A fossil is defined as any evidence of an organism from:

A)At least 500 years ago

B)At least 1000 years ago

C)At least 25,000 years ago

D)At least 10,000 years ago

E)At least 100,000 years ago

Q3) Earth once consisted of a single large landmass and one ocean.The landmass is named:

A)Panthalassa

B)Pangaea

C)Laurasia

D)Gondwana

E)Ultima Continenta

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Page 14

Chapter 13: Speciation and Extinction

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Sample Questions

Q1) Bumblebees pollinate M.lewisii,whereas hummingbirds prefer the red-flowered M.cardinalis.If,by chance,a hummingbird carries M.cardinalis pollen to M.lewisii,the resulting hybrid offspring are viable.M.lewisii and M.cardinalis are different species due to:

A)Post-zygotic barriers to reproduction

B)Pre-zygotic barriers to reproduction

C)Independent assortment

D)Gradualism

E)Adaptive radiation

Q2) Tortoises colonizing the different Gala pagos islands and evolving into different species is an example of ____ speciation.

A)prezygotic

B)allopatric

C)postzygotic

D)sympatric

E)parapatric

Q3) Among evolutionary biologists the idea of sympatric speciation is controversial.

A)True

B)False

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Page 15

Chapter 14: The Origin and History of Life

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Sample Questions

Q1) The first vertebrates to leave fossil evidence,jawless fishes appeared during this time:

A)Cambrian period

B)Ordovician period

C)Silurian period

D)Devonian period

E)Carboniferous period

Q2) Natural selection would have favored progenotes that could use more diverse food sources.

A)True

B)False

Q3) The carbon dioxide released from burning coal or oil comes from which of the following?

A)Carbon dioxide trapped in rocks and compressed into oil and coal

B)Carbon dioxide trapped in the ocean and compressed into oil and coal

C)Carbon dioxide released from volcanoes

D)Carbon dioxide fixed by plants during photosynthesis

E)Carbon in the tissues from dinosaurs

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16

Chapter 15: Viruses

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Sample Questions

Q1) HIV:

A)Is a retrovirus

B)Infects most mammals

C)Can be killed with antibiotics

D)Causes liver cancer

E)Can be transmitted through the skin

Q2) The influenza virus contains an RNA genome.Every year the common flu vaccine is designed to protect against three different strains of the influenza virus.Why do scientists typically have to make a new vaccine every year?

A)Because our bodies develop resistance to the vaccine and it becomes less effective

B)Because the virus develops resistance to the vaccine

C)Because the virus can mutate into new strains

D)Because people change their habits each year and become susceptible to different strains of the virus

E)Because the common influenza virus can come from many species of animals including cats and dogs

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17

Chapter 16: Bacteria and Archaea

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following does NOT have a cell wall?

A)An animal cell

B)A bacterium

C)A plant cell

D)A diatom

E)A fungal cell

Q2) The rigid barrier that surrounds most prokaryotes is the:

A)Cell membrane

B)Flagellum

C)Glycocalyx

D)Cell wall

E)Cytoplasm

Q3) An asexual process used by prokaryotes,in which replicated DNA and other cell parts are distributed into two daughter cells is called:

A)Mitosis

B)Binary fusion

C)Daughter cell duplication

D)Binary fission

E)Conjugation

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Page 18

Chapter 17: Protists

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Sample Questions

Q1) Water molds are unlike fungi in that water molds have diploid filaments and cell walls containing cellulose; whereas fungi have haploid filaments and cell walls containing chitin.

A)True

B)False

Q2) A dinoflagellate has both a transverse flagellum and longitudinal flagellum.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Where in a diatom would you find their yellowish photosynthetic pigment?

A)In the plasma membrane

B)In the cytoplasm

C)In the cell wall

D)In the nucleus

E)In chloroplasts

Q4) Which protists produce most of the Earth's oxygen?

A)Amoeba

B)Slime mold

C)Algae

D)Protozoa

E)Radiolarians

Page 19

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Chapter 18: Plants

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Sample Questions

Q1) Plants and algae most recently shared a common ancestor 480 million years ago,and plants colonized land shortly after that.Light,water,minerals,and dissolved gases surround the whole body of a submerged green alga,and the buoyancy of water provides physical support.What adaptation did plants have to make in taking up water and minerals when they moved to dry land?

A)Development of stomata

B)Production of pollen

C)Development of vascular tissue

D)Production of a cuticle

E)Production of lignin

Q2) The first land plants were bryophytes,which then branched into ferns,gymnosperms,and finally angiosperms.What advantage did ferns have over bryophytes?

A)The ferns were able to do photosynthesis

B)The ferns were also heterotrophs

C)Ferns have a vascular system, this allowed them to grow taller

D)Ferns do not require water to reproduce

E)Ferns go through alternation of generations

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Page 20

Chapter 19: Fungi

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Sample Questions

Q1) Fungi that do not have a known sexual phase are placed in the deuteromycete group.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Microscopic reproductive cells produced by most fungi are:

A)Hyphae

B)Fruiting bodies

C)Mycelium

D)Gills

E)Spores

Q3) Fungi called smuts and rusts:

A)Are Ascomycetes

B)Damage cereal crops

C)Both are Ascomycetes and damage cereal crops are correct

D)Both are basidiomycetes and damage cereal crops are correct

E)Are Basidiomycetes

Q4) A dikaryotic stage is common in the life cycle of many plants,protozoans,and fungi.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 20: Animals

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Sample Questions

Q1) The type of body symmetry in which any plane passing through the body from the mouth to the opposite end divides the body into mirror images is:

A)Longitudinal symmetry

B)Mirrored symmetry

C)Bilateral symmetry

D)Radial symmetry

E)Asymmetrical

Q2) Mammals that lay eggs are:

A)Marsupials

B)Placentals

C)Bats

D)Birds

E)Monotremes

Q3) Which of the following is not an example of a mammal?

A)Dolphin

B)Platypus

C)Kangaroo

D)Penguin

E)Whale

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Page 22

Chapter 21: Plant Form and Function

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Sample Questions

Q1) In the spring before the leaves come out,maple trees are often tapped to collect sap to make syrup.The sugars were stored in the wood of the tree as starch and then released as temperatures rise above freezing in late winter.Which of the following tissues would contain the starch over the winter?

A)Xylem

B)Phloem

C)Parenchymal tissue

D)Collenchyma tissue

E)Roots

Q2) Vegetative edible plant parts include roots,fruits,stems,and tubers.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Which of the following is not a function of the root of a plant?

A)Anchor the plant

B)Produce energy that the plant can use to carry out metabolism

C)Absorb water

D)Absorb mineral nutrients for the plant

E)Form beneficial relationships with microorganisms, thereby increasing the plant's ability to obtain nutrients

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Page 23

Chapter 22: Plant Nutrition and Transport

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Sample Questions

Q1) Chemicals that are vital to the metabolism,growth,and reproduction of plants are called essential elements.

A)True

B)False

Q2) What was the independent variable?

A)The amount of nitrogen or phosphorous added to the pitcher of each plant

B)The number of insects fed to each plant

C)The amount of nitrogen or phosphorous added to the roots of each plant

D)The ratio of the pitcher opening to pitcher length

E)The ratio of the keel width to total width

Q3) The opening and closing of a plant's stomata are regulated by the flow of _____________ ions:

A)Phosphorous

B)Magnesium

C)Copper

D)Sulfur

E)Potassium

Q4) Soil scientists use relative amounts of sand,silt,and clay to classify soils.

A)True

B)False

Page 24

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Chapter 23: Reproduction and Development of Flowering Plants

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Q1) The plant hormone that triggers the withering of petals and stamens and promotes fruit ripening is:

A)Abscisic acid

B)Cytokinins

C)Gibberellins

D)Jasmonic acid

E)Ethylene

Q2) What conclusion did the researchers draw from their results?

A)The capsaicin deterred the mice and rats from eating and destroying the seeds

B)The capsaicin deterred the thrashers from eating and destroying the seeds

C)The capsaicin deterred the mice and rats from eating and dispersing the seeds

D)The capsaicin deterred the thrashers from eating and dispersing the seeds

Q3) Whorl four of a flower is made up of:

A)The male reproductive parts of a flower

B)The sepals

C)The petals

D)The female reproductive parts of a flower

E)The stem region

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Chapter 24: Animal Tissues, organ Systems and Homeostasis

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Sample Questions

Q1) A physician is concerned because a patient is showing signs of slowed nerve impulse transmission.This symptom could likely be caused by damage to:

A)The myelin sheath

B)Leukocytes

C)Epithelial cells

D)Adipocytes

E)Chondrocytes

Q2) Muscle tissue that is controlled involuntarily and has no striations is:

A)Smooth

B)Cardiac

C)Skeletal

D)Cartilage

E)Squamous

Q3) What is the primary function of melanin?

A)Increasing light absorption

B)Decreased water loss

C)Increased muscle strength

D)Absorption of UV light

E)Increased synthesis of vitamins

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Chapter 25: The Nervous System

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Q1) The rounded part of a neuron containing the nucleus and mitochondria is the:

A)Node of Ranvier

B)Axon

C)Synapse

D)Dendrite

E)Cell body

Q2) The nervous tissue of the central nervous system that consists of neuron cell bodies and synapses is the:

A)White matter

B)White corpuscles

C)Grey matter

D)Red corpuscles

E)Red matter

Q3) What does the puffer fish neurotoxin tetrodotoxin directly inhibit?

A)Proteins involved in active transport

B)Channel proteins involved in osmosis

C)Proteins involved in ATP synthesis

D)Channel proteins involved in diffusion

E)Relaxation of muscles

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Page 27

Chapter 26: The Senses Content

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Q1) Night blindness would be caused by which of the following?

A)Loss of cones

B)Damage to the optic nerve

C)Damage to the retina

D)Loss of rods

E)Damage to the lens

Q2) When you enter a darkened room,the rod cells in your eyes boost their production of rhodopsin,increasing their sensitivity to light over a period of 10 to 30 minutes.How do you think your eyes adjust when you emerge from a movie theater on a sunny day?

A)By increasing the production of rhodopsin

B)By shutting off the optic nerve

C)By closing the retina

D)By closing the lens

E)By decreasing the production of rhodopsin

Q3) The brain determines loudness of a sound by the number of neurons that are firing and the rate at which they fire.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 27: The Endocrine System

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Sample Questions

Q1) When blood glucose levels fall,which of the following will occur?

A)An increased secretion of insulin

B)An increased uptake of glucose by muscles

C)A decreased release of glucose by the liver

D)An increased secretion of glucagon

E)A decreased secretion of ACTH

Q2) Why don't patients with Grave's disease also have enlarged kidneys or livers?

A)These organs do not have the same neurons that stimulate the thyroid

B)These organs do not have TSH receptors on their cells

C)The blood flow to these organs is not the same as the flow to the thyroid

D)These organs are too far from the thyroid

E)They cannot produce TSH

Q3) The endocrine gland that produces hormones related to the sympathetic nervous system and steroids that help regulate body fluids is the:

A)Parathyroid gland

B)Pancreas

C)Adrenal gland

D)Pineal gland

E)Testes

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Page 29

Chapter 28: The Musculoskeletal System

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Q1) After a muscle cell contracts,which of the following must occur for the muscle to stop contracting?

A)Calcium ions must be pumped back into the endoplasmic reticulum

B)Calcium ions must be pumped out of the muscle cell

C)Calcium ions must flow out of the endoplasmic reticulum

D)Calcium ions must flow into the muscle cell

E)Calcium ions must flow out of the muscle cell

Q2) The interaction of both the muscular system and the skeletal system is necessary for animals to run,fly and swim.

A)True

B)False

Q3) The two closely allied organ systems that allow for running,swimming and flying under the direction of the nervous system are the:

A)Skeletal and endocrine systems

B)Muscular and endocrine systems

C)Muscular and skeletal systems

D)Circulatory and muscular systems

E)Circulatory and skeletal systems

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Chapter 29: The Circulatory System

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Q1) A defibrillator contains two paddles that are placed on the chest of a person and an electrical shock is administered.What is this procedure treating?

A)Aneurysm

B)Heart attack due to atherosclerosis

C)Anemia

D)Tachycardia

E)Arrhythmia

Q2) The two largest veins of the body that deliver blood to the right atrium are the:

A)Pulmonary vein and inferior vena cava

B)Superior vena cava and pulmonary vein

C)Aorta and inferior vena cava

D)Inferior vena cava and superior vena cava

E)Aorta and superior vena cava

Q3) Blood pressure is:

A)The force that interstitial fluid exerts on the walls of the arteries

B)The force that blood exerts on the walls of the ventricles of the heart

C)The force that blood exerts on the walls of the arteries

D)The force that interstitial fluid exerts on the walls of the veins

E)The force that blood exerts on the walls of the veins

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Page 31

Chapter 30: The Respiratory System

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Q1) Hemoglobin is a(an)_______________ rich pigment that carries oxygen.

A)Calcium

B)Potassium

C)Zinc

D)Phosphorous

E)Iron

Q2) The _________________ nervous system controls the contraction of __________________ in the wall of the bronchioles,thereby adjusting airflow in response to metabolic demands.

A)Somatic, smooth muscle

B)Autonomic, skeletal muscle

C)Somatic, skeletal

D)Autonomic, smooth muscle

E)Autonomic, cartilage

Q3) The anatomical arrangement in which two adjacent currents flow in opposite directions and exchange materials with each other is called countercurrent exchange.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 31: Digestion and Animal Nutrition

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Q1) Acid reflux would occur under which of the following conditions?

A)Stomach contents leak into the duodenum

B)Contents of the esophagus leak into the duodenum

C)Contents of the esophagus leak into the stomach

D)Stomach contents leak into the esophagus

E)Contents of the duodenum leak into the stomach

Q2) Which of the following produces bile?

A)Gall bladder

B)Liver

C)Stomach

D)Pancreas

E)Appendix

Q3) A person who is lactose intolerant may be able to eat dairy products such as yogurt because those products have already been fermented.

A)True

B)False

Q4) The enzyme that begins the breakdown of starch is lipase.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 32: Regulation of Temperature and Body Fluids

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Q1) Dialysis is a procedure in which a machine takes over the function of the:

A)Liver

B)Pancreas

C)Hypothalamus

D)Urinary bladder

E)Kidney

Q2) The inner main section of the kidney is the:

A)Renal periphery

B)Renal cortex

C)Glomerulus

D)Collecting duct

E)Renal medulla

Q3) The portion of the renal tubule below the glomerular capsule consists of three functional regions.These regions moving from the glomerular capsule toward the collecting duct are:

A)Nephron loop, proximal convoluted tubule, and distal convoluted tubule

B)Distal convoluted tubule, nephron loop, and proximal convoluted tubule

C)Proximal convoluted tubule, nephron loop, and distal convoluted tubule

D)Nephron loop, distal convoluted tubule, and proximal convoluted tubule

E)Proximal convoluted tubule, distal convoluted tubule, and nephron loop

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Chapter 33: The Immune System

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Q1) A patient can have antibodies against many strains of HIV.Which of the following is the main reason that an effective vaccine has not been produced for the HIV virus that causes AIDS?

A)The virus reproduces very rapidly

B)It takes 2-3 months to raise antibodies against the virus

C)The virus is transmitted sexually

D)The virus mutates rapidly changing its outer coat

E)The virus is not technically alive

Q2) If a tumor metastasizes,this means that it has moved to another part of the body.Doctors often look in lymph nodes near a tumor for signs of metastasis.Why might cancer cells be found in lymph nodes?

A)Because the tumor started in the lymph node

B)Because the lymphatic system collects fluids and cells from tissues

C)Because white blood cells are formed in lymph nodes in response to the tumor

D)Because the tumor is recognized as a foreign antigen and is being attacked

E)Because the tumor cells may have moved from the blood into the lymph with the plasma

Q3) Monocytes develop into B cells and T cells.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 34: Animal Reproduction and Development

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Sample Questions

Q1) Fertilization of a secondary oocyte normally occurs in the:

A)Ovary

B)Vagina

C)Fallopian tube

D)Uterus

E)Peritoneal cavity

Q2) The hormone released from the hypothalamus that stimulates release of LH and FSH in both the male and female is:

A)Human growth hormone

B)Testosterone

C)Gonadotropin releasing hormone

D)Antidiuretic hormone

E)Epinephrine

Q3) The hormone that is the basis of most pregnancy tests is:

A)Follicle stimulating hormone

B)Luteinizing hormone

C)Human chorionic gonadotropin

D)Estrogen

E)Progesterone

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Page 36

Chapter 35: Animal Behavior

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Q1) Chimpanzees given food will readily share with other chimpanzees,even if not related.Which of the following is an explanation for this observation?

A)It is a reflex

B)They are engaging in kin selection

C)Sexual dimorphism is occurring

D)Dominance hierarchy is occurring

E)They anticipate reciprocal altruism

Q2) The scientific study of animal behavior is ethology.

A)True

B)False

Q3) A flock of crows attacking a great horned owl is an example of:

A)Stotting

B)Mobbing

C)Dribbling

D)Bobbing

E)Cavorting

Q4) A meerkat sentry is not an example of altruistic behavior.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 36: Populations

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Sample Questions

Q1) The number of new individuals produced per unit time in a population is its:

A)Immigration rate

B)Emigration rate

C)Death rate

D)Birth rate

E)Expatriation rate

Q2) The world's human population now exceeds 6.5 billion.

A)True

B)False

Q3) In a survivorship curve,a type III species,like most insects and plants,is a species that:

A)Has an equal probability of dying at any age

B)Has a strong possibility of becoming extinct in a relatively short period of time

C)Has the highest probability of dying at a very young age

D)Has the highest probability of dying as it reaches its maximum life span

E)Has an extremely long life span

Q4) Emigration is the migration out of a particular area.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 37: Communities and Ecosystems

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Q1) Some scientists predict that as atmospheric carbon dioxide levels increase,plant growth will also increase.What is the best explanation for this hypothesis?

A)Plants consume carbon dioxide from the atmosphere during photosynthesis

B)Plants release carbon dioxide into the atmosphere during photosynthesis

C)Plants consume carbon dioxide from the atmosphere during respiration

D)Plants release carbon dioxide into the atmosphere during respiration

Q2) A genetic change in one species that selects for a subsequent change in a different species is termed:

A)Coevolution

B)Genetic dispersion

C)Gene dynamics

D)Competitive exclusion

E)Evolutionary dynamics

Q3) The cause of the sea otter population decline in the Pacific Northwest was primarily an oil spill.

A)True

B)False

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Page 39

Chapter 38: The Biosphere

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Sample Questions

Q1) All deserts are characterized by being hot and dry.

A)True

B)False

Q2) If you went diving in a freshwater lake you would see very few rooted aquatic plants after a certain depth.What would limit plant growth in deeper water?

A)Cold temperatures

B)A lack of nutrients

C)A lack of light

D)Too many herbivores

E)A lack of oxygen

Q3) Which of the following is not a major terrestrial biome of Earth?

A)The temperate grasslands

B)The tundra

C)The taiga

D)The Antarctic

E)The tropical forest

Q4) Examples of terrestrial biomes are grasslands,forests,lakes,and deserts.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 39: Conserving Biodiversity

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Q1) Conservation biologists in the United States are protecting habitat of endangered species at the northern end of their current ranges.What is the rationale for this strategy?

A)As global temperatures warm, biomes will move to the north

B)Animals tend to migrate to the north

C)Tectonic plates are shifting to the south

D)There are fewer people in the north, so there is more habitat available

E)Biodiversity is higher the farther north you go from the equator

Q2) A decrease in the ozone layer and a subsequent increase in the UV radiation reaching the Earth's surface is a significant factor in the increasing number of cases of human:

A)Lung cancer

B)Tuberculosis

C)Still births

D)Skin cancer

E)Malaria

Q3) The removal of all tree cover from a forested area is desertification.

A)True

B)False

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