Biology for Non-Majors Final Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Biology for Non-Majors is an introductory course designed for students who do not intend to specialize in biological sciences. The course explores the fundamental principles of biology, including the structure and function of cells, genetics, evolution, ecology, and the diversity of life. Emphasis is placed on the relevance of biological concepts to everyday life, current issues in science, and the impact of biology on society. Through lectures, discussions, and laboratory experiences, students will develop a foundational understanding of living organisms and gain critical thinking skills applicable to a wide range of fields.
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Discover Biology Core Topics 5th Edition by Anu Singh Cundy
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Chapter 1: The Nature of Science and the Characteristics of Life
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Q1) Plants convert the energy in ____________________ into energy-rich substances using a process called photosynthesis.
Answer: sunlight
Q2) The observation that polar ice floes are thinning or melting much earlier each spring than they did 20 years ago is an example of a scientific ____________________. Answer: fact
Q3) Once experimental data verifies a prediction the hypothesis is considered proven. A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) Polar bears are white, which makes them difficult to see as they stalk seals; their white fur is an example of an adaptation.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q5) The scientific method begins with ____________________. Answer: observations
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Chapter 2: Biological Diversity, Bacteria, and Archaea
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Q1) Because plants lack the ability to directly use the _____ present in the atmosphere, their abundance often depends on bacterial populations present within the soil.
A)nitrogen
B)oxygen
C)water
D)carbon dioxide
Answer: A
Q2) The most inclusive category in the Linnaean classification system is A)order.
B)phylum.
C)kingdom.
D)species.
Answer: C
Q3) Recent studies on the effects of antibiotics on the normal intestinal microbial flora confirm previous views that these medications are entirely harmless to humans.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 3: Protista, Plantae, and Fungi
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Q1) Sexual reproduction requires the fusion of special cells called ____________________.
Answer: gametes
Q2) Lichen can be useful as pollution indicator species; lacking a cuticle they tend to readily absorb airborne pollutants.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) The kingdom Plantae consists of four major groups; the _____ are believed to have been the first to colonize the land.
A)angiosperms
B)ferns
C)gymnosperm
D)mosses
Answer: D
Q4) Xylem is specialized for transporting water and dissolved nutrients.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 4: Animalia
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Q1) Which of the following investigations would be the least likely to provide useful information about the relationships within the kingdom Animalia?
A)which developmental sequences occur during embryonic growth
B)an examination of the construction of the cell membrane
C)a comparative examination of the proteins used in photosynthesis
D)in what way various organs and organ systems have become modified over time
Q2) A variety of tapeworms can infect humans, but two relatively simple measures can break the infective cycle:
A)do not allow pets to sleep in your home and treat your house periodically with insecticide.
B)consume dairy products only if pasteurized and water only if chlorinated.
C)properly cook any meats and refrigerate all types of perishable foods.
D)avoid consuming raw meats and ensure sanitary management of human wastes.
Q3) Mammals are classified as endothermic homeotherms; if exposed to hot or cold temperatures their body temperature will remain relatively stable.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Endoderm forms the ____________________ layer of an animal embryo.
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Chapter 5: The Chemistry of Life
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Q1) Which of the following levels of protein structure involves more than one polypeptide chain?
A)primary structure
B)secondary structure
C)tertiary structure
D)quaternary structure
Q2) Chemical reactions rearrange atoms but do not create or destroy them.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Oxygen has six electrons in its outer shell that can hold up to eight electrons. As a result, oxygen will commonly form ____________________ covalent bonds.
Q4) Individual water molecules orient toward each other because of the _____ bonds that form between them.
A)covalent
B)hydrogen
C)peptide
D)ionic
Q5) Lipids with a four-ring structure are called ____________________.
Q6) The monomers in proteins are ____________________.
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Chapter 6: Cell Structure and Internal Compartments
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Q1) Which of the following statements is true of chloroplasts?
A)They produce proteins used by other parts of the cell.
B)They capture energy from sunlight.
C)They give an animal cell its shape.
D)They contain an entire copy of a cell's genetic material.
Q2) Cilia are usually thicker and longer than flagella.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The ____________________ endoplasmic reticulum is covered with ribosomes.
Q4) DNA analysis supports the hypothesis that prokaryotes evolved from earlier eukaryotes through adaptive simplification-a process where unnecessary cellular structures are gradually lost.
A)True
B)False
Q5) ____________________ pinch off from a membrane, enclose material, and then fuse with another membrane to release their contents at their destination.
Q6) A microscope is used to obtain a magnified view of an object.
A)True
B)False
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Cell Membranes, Transport, and Communication
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Q1) Water moves across a membrane from a hypotonic solution to a ____________________ solution.
Q2) Several types of lipoproteins exist; the best balance for cardiovascular health is achieved with ____________________ LDL and ____________________ HDL.
Q3) Animal cells are attached to neighboring cells by A)their extracellular matrix.
B)gap junctions.
C)tight junctions.
D)all of the above
Q4) The viscous coating found around most animal cells is called the extracellular ____________________.
Q5) Soon after a certain molecule enters a cell, the cell begins producing a new type of protein. The molecule was probably a A)receptor molecule.
B)hydrophilic molecule.
C)carrier protein.
D)hydrophobic hormone.
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Q6) Cells in the liver typically acquire cholesterol by receptor-mediated
Chapter 8: Energy, Metabolism, and Enzymes
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Q1) What do catalysts and enzymes have in common?
A)They decrease the number of collisions between substrate molecules.
B)They increase the amount of activation energy required.
C)They increase the amount of substrate that is available.
D)They decrease the amount of activation energy required.
Q2) A molecule of methane burns, producing carbon dioxide, heat, light, and water. The direction of the event is dictated by the ____________________ law of thermodynamics.
Q3) ____________________ are the organelles where the breakdown products of food are oxidized, thereby generating most of a cell's ATP.
Q4) According to the ____________________ model, the active site of an enzyme adjusts its shape to mold around a substrate after binding.
Q5) As a molecule becomes more oxidized, it loses electrons.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Sugar molecules are more oxidized than carbon dioxide molecules.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Photosynthesis and Cellular Respiration
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Q1) You have been shrunk to molecular size and find yourself in a mitochondrial chamber where protons are being pumped out across a membrane into another chamber. You are in the mitochondrion's ____________________.
Q2) During exercise, the increase in respiration rate and heartbeat speed are driven by the need to replenish the oxygen used to support A)lactic acid fermentation.
B)carbon dioxide synthesis in the lungs.
C)oxidative phosphorylation in muscle cell mitochondria.
D)in-the-dark reactions of photosynthesis.
Q3) The burning pain in your muscles during strenuous exercise is a result of A)the buildup of lactic acid during fermentation.
B)signals sent to the nervous system by O<sub>2</sub>-starved cells.
C)the accumulation of pyruvate in the absence of oxidative phosphorylation.
D)the lack of ATP needed to regulate the pain receptors in your muscle cells.
Q4) ATP synthase is a protein involved in the redox reactions of the electron transport chain.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The innermost membrane in a chloroplast is the ____________________ membrane.
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Chapter 10: Cell Division
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Q1) The most critical stage of interphase for a cell that needs to undergo cell division is the ____________________ phase. If the cell does not complete this phase, it cannot undergo DNA segregation.
Q2) What feature(s)distinguish an embryo from a zygote?
A)The cells of an embyro are diploid, whereas those of the zygote are haploid.
B)A zygote consists of a single cell, whereas an embryo is multicellular.
C)An embryo has differentiated to the extent that rudimentary organs are present, whereas a zygote's cells are still undifferentiated.
D)both a and c
Q3) Which of the following choices states a correct reason why the process of cell division is different for prokaryotic than for eukaryotic cells?
A)Prokaryotes have a circular DNA molecule.
B)Prokaryotic cells do not undergo cell division.
C)Prokaryotic cells are larger than eukaryotic cells.
D)Prokaryotic DNA contains different bases from those in eukaryotic DNA.
Q4) The spindle microtubules break down and new nuclear envelopes form during the ____________________ portion of mitosis.
Q5) Chromosomes become visible during the ____________________ stage of mitosis.
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Chapter 11: Stem Cells, Cancer, and Human Health
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Q1) Cigarette smoking is the leading cause of cancer deaths in the United States.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is not true of cancer?
A)Cancer involves cell proliferation.
B)Cancer can be caused by viruses.
C)Cancer results from a balanced production of positive and negative growth regulators.
D)Cancer involves the loss of a cell's ability to control cell division.
Q3) Regenerative medicine and stem cell therapy promise a possible cure for ____________________ disease, a devastating neurological disorder marked by uncontrollable body movements.
Q4) The fact that the human genome contains proto-oncogenes means that
A)there is nothing we can do to reduce our chance of developing cancer.
B)our genomes are constantly producing cancerous cells.
C)the disruption of certain cellular controls can lead to cancer.
D)we will all develop cancer during our lifetimes.
Q5) ____________________ starts with a single cell that loses its ability to control cell division.
Q6) Mutations cause changes in ____________________ produced by a gene.
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Chapter 12: Patterns of Inheritance
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Q1) Is it possible for two organisms with the same genotype to have different phenotypes?
A)No; identical genotypes lead to identical phenotypes.
B)No; the DNA of the recessive alleles not expressed in the phenotype is degraded within each cell.
C)Yes; the expression of the genotype can be affected by the environment.
D)Yes; the phenotype expressed determines what the genotype will be.
Q2) If both copies of a given gene in an organism are identical, the organism is homozygous for that trait.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Most traits are under the control of more than one gene.
A)True
B)False
Q4) ____________________ dominance is expressed in a genetic cross in which the heterozygous phenotype is intermediate between the two homozygous phenotypes.
Q5) Temperature can affect phenotype.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Chromosomes and Human Genetics
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Q1) This chromosomal disorder known as Cri du chat syndrome is the result of missing a part of chromosome 5, an example of chromosome A)inversion. B)deletion. C)translocation. D)duplication.
Q2) The chance that any two siblings will be genetically identical is astronomically small. A)True B)False
Q3) Because chromosomal alterations like duplications often affect several genes, they tend to have serious impacts including slowed growth and mental retardation. A)True B)False
Q4) Lethal ____________________ mutations are not eliminated from a population because they can be "hidden" in symptom-free individuals also carrying dominant alleles.
Q5) All sex-linked genes are either X-linked or _-linked.
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Chapter 14: Dna and Genes
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Q1) During interphase, the genes that are most tightly packed are not being expressed because
A)ribosomes are unable to bind to their promoters.
B)the proteins needed for transcription cannot reach them.
C)housekeeping genes are not produced.
D)repressor proteins cover their promoters.
Q2) Specific types of proteins can attach to long-lived mRNA molecules to prevent their ____________________ when the cell does not need their protein product.
Q3) A permanent change in the DNA base sequence due to an uncorrected mismatch error is called a ____________________.
Q4) When a cell divides, it
A)breaks down its DNA.
B)deletes old genetic information.
C)copies information from neighboring cells.
D)copies its own genetic information.
Q5) In eukaryotes, some genes with related functions are found on different chromosomes.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: From Gene to Protein
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Q1) ____________________ is different than DNA replication in that it involves the copying of just a small portion of a chromosome rather than the entire chromosome.
Q2) The ____________________ is a sequence of DNA where RNA polymerase binds to begin transcription.
Q3) A codon can specify up to three different amino acids.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The third position in the ____________________ of some tRNAs is said to wobble because it can pair with up to three different bases.
Q5) As transcription begins, RNA polymerase binds to a segment of a gene called a(n) A)promoter.
B)intron.
C)start codon.
D)anticodon.
Q6) In the genetic code, an amino acid is specified by A)a stop codon.
B)rRNA.
C)a series of four introns. D)a sequence of three mRNA bases.
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Dna Technology
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Q1) The polymerase chain reaction (PCR)is used to
A)produce many copies of a selected DNA sequence.
B)insert DNA from one organism into a new host.
C)screen for a particular gene.
D)deliver DNA products into a human patient.
Q2) The use of DNA analysis to identify individuals is known as A)PCR testing.
B)DNA fingerprinting.
C)genetic modification.
D)cloning.
Q3) If you wanted to know what proteins were produced in a bacterium in response to the presence of a particular chemical, you would look to scientists in the field of ____________________.
Q4) Which of the following is not involved in creating recombinant DNA?
A)restriction enzymes
B)ligase
C)RNA
D)plasmids
Q5) Hind III and AluI are examples of ____________________ used to cut DNA at specific sites.
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Chapter 17: How Evolution Works
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Q1) Which of the following is not likely to contribute to evolution within a population?
A)mutation
B)natural selection
C)genetic drift
D)unchanging environment
Q2) Pangaea is
A)the process of continental drift.
B)the combined fossil record of ancient species.
C)an ancient, giant continent.
D)the result of natural selection.
Q3) Evolutionary changes on a small scale are called ____________________.
Q4) Scientists disagree on whether evolution occurs.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which of the following statements about evolution is true?
A)Evolution only results in the addition of traits to existing organisms.
B)Evolution only results in the loss of traits from existing organisms.
C)Evolution can result in the addition or loss of traits in existing organisms.
D)Evolution has nothing to do with the addition or loss of traits.
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Chapter 18: Evolution of Populations
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Q1) When a population shrinks, causing low genetic variation or the fixation of a harmful allele, a genetic ____________________ has occurred.
Q2) A population of 8,250 mice occupies the sand dunes in a coastal area. A severe hurricane washes out several miles of sand dunes. As a result, only 50 mice remain. The population has experienced
A)horizontal gene transfer.
B)gene flow.
C)founder effect.
D)a bottleneck.
Q3) Larger male elephant seals have more mates than smaller male elephant seals because they are better at defending their territory (and mates). This is an example of ____________________.
Q4) Which of the following is not a mode of natural selection?
A)directional selection
B)disruptive selection
C)dormant selection
D)stabilizing selection
Q5) Genetic drift causes random changes in ____________________ frequency.
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Chapter 19: Speciation and the Origins of Biological Diversity
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Q1) Adaptations result from natural selection.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The faster a cheetah can run, the more likely it is to capture its prey. Cheetahs with longer legs are able to run faster than those with shorter legs. Although the existing cheetah population shows a variety of leg lengths, cheetah legs are not continuing to increase in length from one generation to the next. Which of the following is a possible explanation?
A)The genes that are involved in cheetah leg length do not undergo mutation.
B)Cheetahs with long legs are reproductively isolated from cheetahs with short legs.
C)Natural selection does not act on traits involved in predation.
D)Longer cheetah leg bones are more likely to break.
Q3) Individuals of the same species generally
A)experience prezygotic barriers to reproduction.
B)do not interbreed extensively.
C)share many common physical and behavioral characteristics.
D)vary only very slightly in appearance.
Q4) The great diversity of life on Earth is caused by ____________________-the formation of new species.
Page 21
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Chapter 20: The Evolutionary History of Life
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Q1) The most recent mass extinction, which occurred during the Cretaceous period, may have been caused by
A)extra heat from the sun.
B)the pull of the moon on Earth.
C)the dinosaurs.
D)an asteroid hitting Earth.
Q2) The term that describes the upright walking of humans on two legs is ____________________.
Q3) The Cambrian explosion
A)caused a lack of air in Earth's atmosphere.
B)was caused by an increase in volcanic activity.
C)was volcanic in nature.
D)increased the diversity of animal life on Earth.
Q4) The ____________________ hypothesis of human origins suggests that modern humans evolved from H. erectus populations located throughout the world.
Q5) The earliest forms of life evolved and lived in ____________________.
Q6) Mammals evolved from ____________________ about 220 million years ago.
Q7) The first members of the genus Homo originated on the continent of ____________________.
Page 22
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Chapter 21: The Biosphere
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Q1) Which of the following would have the greatest climatic effect over the largest area?
A)the Missouri River
B)the Great Lakes
C)tropical rainforests
D)the Gulf Stream current
Q2) Terrestrial biomes are generally named based on the
A)dominant types of plant life.
B)geographical location of the biome.
C)dominant types of animal life.
D)climate of the region.
Q3) Species that are accidentally introduced to new geographic regions
A)can become serious pests.
B)usually quickly die out.
C)can form hybrids with native species.
D)all of the above
Q4) A ____________________ is a wetland dominated by trees and shrubs.
Q5) An ecosystem consists of both biotic (living)and ____________________ (nonliving)factors.
Q6) The ____________________ consists of all life and its surroundings.
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Chapter 22: Growth of Populations
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Q1) The amount of productive land and water that individuals or populations require to provide their required resources and dispose of its wastes is called the
A)sustainable area.
B)ecological footprint.
C)biological acreage.
D)environmental measure.
Q2) Which of the following has the highest population density?
A)1 grasshopper living in an area of 10 square meters
B)100 rabbits living in an area of 10,000 square meters
C)200 sparrows living in an area of 20,000 square meters
D)1,500 oysters living in an area of 1,500 square meters
Q3) Population size ____________________ when the combination of death and emigration rates are lower than the combination of birth and immigration rates.
Q4) The Rapanui people created an environmental disaster on Easter Island by
A)planting crops that required too much water.
B)overfishing the lagoons around the island.
C)cutting down too many of the island's palm trees.
D)using resources to make statues instead of using these resources as fertilizer.
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Chapter 23: Ecological Communities
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Q1) The relationship between humans and domesticated livestock is
A)symbiotic and competitive.
B)parasitic and predatory.
C)competitive and symbiotic.
D)predator and prey.
Q2) Human cells contain mitochondria, which are responsible for processing the energy needed by our cells. Remember that the ancestors of mitochondria may once have been free-living prokaryotes. If mitochondria were still considered to be separate organisms within our cells, which of the following would best describe our relationship with them?
A)parasitic
B)mutualistic
C)competitive
D)pathogenic
Q3) A tapeworm is living in the intestine of a human and absorbing nutrients. This relationship is one of A)pathogen/prey.
B)pathogen/host.
C)parasite/host.
D)predator/host.
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Chapter 24: Ecosystems
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Q1) Cougars defend a relatively large territory; consider the following facts and estimate how much area a cougar would require: A cougar requires 490 kg annually and obtains most of its food from deer, which average 55 kg. In a typical deer habitat, the NPP is 35 kg per acre. One deer consumes approximately 1,150 kg of vegetation each year.
A)300 acres
B)1,925 acres
C)3,000 acres
D)4,500 acres
Q2) Which of the following describes the ultimate disposition of most energy in an ecosystem?
A)It is used to construct the bodies of decomposers.
B)It is trapped as fossil fuels when producers die and become fossilized.
C)It is continuously recycled back into the ecosystem.
D)It eventually returns to space in the form of heat.
Q3) In an ecosystem the assemblage of living organisms constitutes the ____________________ component.
Q4) Nutrients that have a(n)____________________ cycle move relatively quickly through terrestrial and aquatic ecosystems.
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Chapter 25: Global Change
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Q1) The amount of nitrogen that cycles among organisms is ____________________ than the amount that is in the atmosphere.
Q2) What best describes the relationship between cutting down forests and changes in atmospheric carbon dioxide levels?
A)Herbivore populations decline in the absence of forests, and without their respiration less carbon dioxide is recycled into the atmosphere.
B)The carbon dioxide used by the plants for cellular respiration would all be released into the atmosphere at once.
C)Trees naturally die and decompose, but when turned into lumber their carbon is prevented from recycling back to the atmosphere.
D)In the absence of forest plants, there would be less carbon dioxide removed from the atmosphere for use during photosynthesis.
Q3) The highest concentrations of environmental pollutants are typically found in the predators at the top of the food web.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The conversion of N to NH is called ____________________.
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Chapter 26: Internal Organization and Homeostasis
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Q1) Animals can gain or lose heat by conduction and radiation, but the process of ____________________ only results in heat loss.
Q2) A molecule of ammonia leaving a cell would first move into
A)a capillary.
B)the interstitial fluid.
C)the blood plasma.
D)a nephron.
Q3) Cooling by evaporation requires A)radiation.
B)a dried surface.
C)a wet surface.
D)conduction.
Q4) To maintain constant internal conditions, an animal
A)must produce more metabolic heat than it loses to its surroundings.
B)needs to take in more water than it loses to its surroundings.
C)needs to lose and gain equal amounts of heat and water but lose more solutes than it gains.
D)must gain and lose equal amounts of heat, solutes, and water.
Q5) Secretion and ____________________ take place in the U-shaped kidney tubule.
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Q6) In kidneys, the glomerulus is composed of a bed of ____________________.
Chapter 27: Nutrition and Digestion
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Q1) If a person wishes to lose weight, he or she must
A)expend more kcals of heat energy compared to the kcals of potential energy ingested.
B)conserve more kcals of heat energy compared to the kcals of potential energy ingested.
C)eat more lipids due to their lower kcal/g ratio.
D)become a vegetarian and cut protein from the diet.
Q2) Food passing though our digestive tract would contain the fewest nutrients in the A)small intestine.
B)stomach.
C)colon.
D)esophagus.
Q3) The main function of enzymes in the human digestive tract is to
A)create the chemical bonds that form complex carbohydrates.
B)ensure that fats remain grouped together in large droplets.
C)catalyze chemical reactions that break specific chemical bonds in food molecules.
D)neutralize the acids produced by the stomach.
Q4) Vitamins are either water soluble or ____________________ soluble.
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Chapter 28: Circulation and Gas Exchange
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Q1) Unlike aquatic organisms, humans have their gas exchange surfaces on the inside rather than the outside. This adaptation evolved to
A)reduce water loss during gas exchange.
B)allow better uptake of carbon dioxide.
C)prevent the loss of oxygen during gas exchange.
D)allow more efficient production of carbohydrates.
Q2) Which of the following would not be a characteristic of an organ used for gas exchange?
A)high surface area
B)covered by waterproofing layers
C)moist surfaces
D)very thin tissues
Q3) Pieces of cells found in blood plasma that can collect and block blood flow are called ____________________.
Q4) Once oxygen has entered the blood stream, its ultimate destination is the A)alveoli.
B)lungs.
C)cells.
D)mitochondria.
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Chapter 29: Animal Hormones
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Q1) Because steroid hormones are ____________________, they are able to pass through a cell's plasma membrane without the assistance of membrane transport proteins.
Q2) Once a hormone enters the bloodstream, it
A)is usually broken down within minutes.
B)remains active for months.
C)is broken down after it has performed its function on target cells.
D)produces enzymes that affect target cells.
Q3) Birth control pills prevent pregnancy by maintaining high levels of the hormone ____________________, tricking the body into thinking it is pregnant.
Q4) Which of the following statements about the human reproductive system is true?
A)The level of hormones in mature females remains constant.
B)Females do not produce mature eggs continuously.
C)In females, progesterone stimulates the cyclical maturation and release of eggs from the ovaries.
D)Estrogen levels fall during the first two weeks of a woman's menstrual cycle.
Q5) In a human female, the hormone ____________________ controls the development of female reproductive structures.
Q6) A(n)____________________ is a specialized organ in which hormones are produced.
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Chapter 30: Nervous and Sensory Systems
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Q1) Botulism is a type of paralysis (inability to move muscles)caused by a specific type of bacteria. The bacteria release a toxin that prevents the release of acetylcholine (a neurotransmitter)from the neurons that form synapses with muscle cells. Why might botulism toxin cause paralysis?
A)Without acetylcholine, action potentials never get to muscle cells because they cannot move from one node of Ranvier to the next.
B)Since acetylcholine is responsible for establishing the concentration gradient of sodium ions, action potentials cannot form in the neurons of individuals with botulism.
C)If acetylcholine is not released, action potentials that stimulate muscle contraction cannot be transmitted across the synaptic cleft to muscle cells.
D)In the absence of acetylcholine, sensory neurons are unable to communicate with motor neurons so motor neurons never receive the signal to cause muscle contraction.
Q2) The flow of ions across an axon's plasma membrane generates an electrical impulse known as the ____________________.
Q3) The ____________________ nervous system ferries signals to and from the central nervous system.
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Chapter 31: Skeletons, Muscles, and Movement
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Q1) The axial skeleton includes the
A)spinal column only.
B)spinal column, skull, and rib cage.
C)all bones in the arms and legs.
D)spinal column and pelvis.
Q2) Humans are likely to continue breaking 100-meter sprint records with further training.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Where would you not expect to find spongy bone?
A)your arm
B)your hip bones
C)your ear
D)your leg
Q4) Which of the following is part of the appendicular skeleton?
A)the spinal column
B)the arm
C)the skull
D)the rib cage
Q5) Tendons are connective tissues that connect ____________________ to bone.
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Chapter 32: Defenses Against Disease
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Q1) Which of the following areas of the human body is not the location of a major concentration of white blood cells?
A)tonsils
B)appendix
C)kidneys
D)spleen
Q2) Histamine
A)makes capillaries near a wound more porous.
B)is converted to prostaglandin near a wound.
C)closes down arterioles near a wound.
D)is an antibody.
Q3) Each T cell and each B cell binds only to one specific type of A)antibody.
B)neutrophil.
C)antigen.
D)prostaglandin.
Q4) Salt in the sweat is a component of adaptive immunity.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Macrophages and neutrophils make up a ____________________ response to invaders.
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Chapter 33: Reproduction and Development
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Q1) In mammals, the blastocyst consists of the trophoblast and the A)placenta.
B)inner cell mass.
C)zygote.
D)embryo.
Q2) In the last few weeks of pregnancy, the level of estrogen in a woman's blood rises. This causes
A)the fetus to develop more rapidly.
B)the amount of prostaglandin secreted by the placenta to decrease.
C)the muscles of the uterus to become more sensitive to the hormone oxytocin.
D)even more estrogen to be released from the pituitary.
Q3) The four sperm produced by spermatogenesis is identical to the sequence of the sperm precursor cell.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The three layers of cells in a human embryo are ectoderm, endoderm, and ____________________.
Q5) Once all the organ systems are developed in a human, about 9 weeks after fertilization, the developing child is considered a(n)____________________.
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Chapter 34: Animal Behavior
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Q1) In ____________________ behaviors, the response to a stimulus depends on past experiences.
Q2) Which of the following is not found with eusocial organisms?
A)separate living spaces for group members
B)a common nest or living space
C)communication among members
D)division of labor among members
Q3) Imprinted behaviors are fixed behaviors.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following statements about behavior is false?
A)It allows organisms to respond quickly to their changing environments.
B)It allows organisms to respond without using either their senses or motion.
C)It allows organisms to respond flexibly to their changing environments.
D)It allows organisms to coordinate their own activities with those of other organisms.
Q5) Lending a friend money when you do not have much money to spare is being
Q6) Because genes can have an influence on behaviors, it is possible for behaviors to ____________________.
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Chapter 35: Plant Structure, Nutrition, and Transport
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Q1) Most aboveground plant growth occurs with the repeated addition of ____________________ units.
Q2) A benefit of using organic fertilizers over synthetic fertilizers is that organic fertilizers
A)supply energy to plant roots.
B)provide large quantities of potassium.
C)help soil hold water within which nutrients can dissolve.
D)help rid soil of harmful minerals.
Q3) Although plants require nine macronutrients, plant fertilizers typically provide just nitrogen, phosphorus, and ____________________.
Q4) A cotyledon is the
A)food-storing organ found in the seeds of flowering plants.
B)embryonic root of a seedling.
C)reproductive organ of a plant.
D)type of ground tissue in mechanical reinforcement of stem structure.
Q5) Carnivorous plants are often found in habitats deficient in nitrogen and phosphorus.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 36: Plant Growth and Reproduction
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Q1) Embryo sacs are found in the A)stamen.
B)carpel.
C)anther.
D)sepal.
Q2) Plants grow in length
A)from lateral meristems located within the stem.
B)due to the elongation of cells throughout the body of the plant.
C)from vascular cambium located just under the bark.
D)only at the tips of the roots and the shoots where apical meristems are located.
Q3) The flesh of an apple forms from the A)stamen.
B)ovule.
C)carpel.
D)ovary.
Q4) Apical dominance develops when the shoot apex produces ____________________, a hormone that suppresses the outgrowth of lateral buds.
Q5) Seed coats develop from the outer portion of the ____________________.
Q6) A plant's physiological response to day length is called ____________________.
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