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Biology for Non-Majors is an introductory course designed to provide students from diverse academic backgrounds with a fundamental understanding of biological principles and their relevance to everyday life. The course covers essential topics such as cell structure and function, genetics, evolution, ecology, and the diversity of living organisms. Emphasis is placed on how biological concepts impact society, human health, and the environment. Through lectures, discussions, and laboratory activities, students develop critical thinking skills and scientific literacy, enabling them to make informed decisions about biological issues affecting their lives and communities.
Recommended Textbook
Biology Science for Life with Physiology Edition 5th Edition by Colleen M. Belk
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Q1) Which hypothesis was tested by Warren and Marshall during their research involving Helicobacter pylori bacteria and stomach ulcers?
A) Eating spicy food increases populations of H. pylori in the stomachs of people susceptible to ulcers.
B) The cause of many stomach ulcers is the bacterium H. pylori, not spicy food.
C) Stomach acid production is decreased by H. pylori bacteria in the stomachs of people with ulcers.
D) Acute stomach pain is often caused by H. pylori bacteria, not ulcers.
Answer: B
Q2) What type of experimental result (two words) is one that is very unlikely to be due to chance differences between the experimental and control groups?
Answer: statistically significant
Q3) Why are double-blind experiments used?
A) The results will be more biased.
B) The results will be more controlled.
C) The results will be more objective.
D) The results will be more statistically significant.
Answer: C
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Q1) Which macromolecule has a sugar-phosphate backbone?
A) lipid
B) nucleic acid
C) protein
D) polysaccharide
Answer: B
Q2) Which element is the basis for the macromolecules found in living things?
A) carbon
B) hydrogen
C) nitrogen
D) oxygen
Answer: A
Q3) Which component of amino acids accounts for the differences in their properties?
A) the amino group
B) the carboxyl group
C) the side group
D) the type of bonds
Answer: C
Q4) What are the smallest units into which an element can be broken down?
Answer: atoms
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Q1) Which process does not involve molecules moving across cell membranes?
A) osmosis
B) facilitated diffusion
C) active transport
D) hydrogenation
Answer: D
Q2) In commercial food manufacturing, what is the purpose of hydrogenation?
A) to make an unsaturated fat more saturated
B) to reduce the amount of "empty calories" in a carbohydrate
C) to convert fatty acids into amino acids
D) to convert vitamins into minerals
Answer: A
Q3) What two-word term describes food that has been stripped of most of its nutrients?
Answer: processed food
Q4) What are the "work-bench" structures where cell proteins are assembled?
Answer: ribosomes
Q5) In what molecular form does the human body store excess carbohydrates in muscles and the liver?
Answer: glycogen
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Q1) What is the resting energy requirement of a person who is awake but not active? (three words)
Q2) What weight classification would include a person with a BMI of 23?
Q3) What proteins, working in series, catalyze the reactions of the citric acid cycle?
Q4) Activation energy is similar to the "push" needed to start rolling a stalled car down a hill. How do enzymes fit into this analogy?
A) Enzymes increase the effort that's needed to start the car moving.
B) Enzymes decrease the effort that's needed to start the car moving.
C) Enzymes add a roadblock on the hill that the car will roll down.
D) Enzymes decrease the size and shape of the car that needs to be moved.
Q5) Which component of fat can be metabolized for the production of ATP?
A) amino acids
B) monosaccharides
C) nucleic acids
D) glycerol
Q6) What are the two molecules produced by cellular respiration?
Q7) What 3-carbon molecules are produced when a 6-carbon glucose is broken down during glycolysis? (two words)
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Q1) What does the glucose molecule supply to cells?
Q2) What does temperature measure?
A) the potential energy in a substance
B) how fast the molecules in a substance are moving
C) the energy lost from a substance to its surroundings
D) how much heat is being absorbed by a substance
Q3) Which gas is considered a greenhouse gas?
A) water vapor
B) carbon monoxide
C) gaseous nitrogen
D) nitrous oxide
Q4) What relationship has been shown by the data from Antarctic ice cores?
A) a positive correlation between carbon dioxide concentration and ice core temperature
B) a negative correlation between carbon dioxide concentration and ice core temperature
C) no correlation between carbon dioxide concentration and ice core temperature
D) a confusing relationship between carbon dioxide concentration and ice core temperature
Q5) What cells regulate gas exchange by opening and closing the stomata?
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Q1) Which is a common feature of cancer cells?
A) anchorage dependence
B) contact inhibition
C) metastasis
D) controlled division
Q2) What are the two halves of a duplicated chromosome? (two words)
Q3) Which statement describes human sperm or egg cells?
A) They are produced by the process of mitosis.
B) They have one copy of each chromosome.
C) They have two copies of each chromosome.
D) They are genetically identical to all gametes made by a person.
Q4) During which part of mitosis does the nuclear envelope break down?
A) anaphase
B) metaphase
C) prophase
D) telophase
Q5) What are specialized cells (egg cells and sperm cells, for example) used for sexual reproduction?
Q6) What enzyme assists in DNA synthesis? (two words)
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Q1) What genotype would be found in an individual who is a carrier for a recessive genetic disorder but does not have symptoms of the disorder?
A) heterozygous
B) homozygous for the recessive allele
C) homozygous for the dominant allele
D) either homozygous for the recessive allele or heterozygous
Q2) Which genotype would have an advantage if a recessive allele changed cellular proteins that led to circulatory problems and premature death?
A) Any homozygous individual will always have an advantage over any heterozygous individual.
B) Any heterozygous individual will always have an advantage over any homozygous individual.
C) Any homozygous dominant individual will always have a disadvantage compared to any heterozygous individual.
D) Any heterozygous individual will have an advantage over any homozygous recessive individual.
Q3) What term refers to an individual who has two copies of the same allele?
Q4) What term refers to the genetic makeup of an organism?
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Q1) Which member(s) of the Romanov family shared DNA sequences with England's Prince Philip?
A) both the tsar and the tsarina
B) only the tsar
C) only the tsarina
D) neither the tsar nor the tsarina
Q2) Which offspring will receive a harmful allele for a sex-linked trait from a man who carries the allele?
A) all of his daughters
B) only half of his daughters
C) only half of his sons
D) all of his children
Q3) In addition to the environment, what genetic factor affects human bone size and structure?
A) polygenic inheritance
B) codominance
C) simple dominance
D) sex-linked recessive inheritance
Q4) In human ABO blood types, what description applies to the alleles for A and B because they're both expressed?
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Q1) Which nitrogenous base percentage is complementary to the 22% guanine found in a double-stranded DNA molecule?
A) 22% thymine
B) 22% cytosine
C) 44% adenine
D) 48% thymine
Q2) What are genetically modified organisms (GMOs) also called?
A) artificial crop plants
B) artificially selected organisms
C) transgenic organisms
D) mutant crop plants
Q3) Why might crop plants be genetically modified?
A) to decrease pesticide resistance in the plants
B) to make the plants more resistant to freezing
C) to reduce the amount of fat in the plants
D) to increase the incidence of galls in the plants
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Q1) Which description would be considered a scientific theory like the theory of evolution?
A) a theory about why an apple falls to the ground when dropped
B) a theory about why your neighbor has the nicest car in the neighborhood
C) a theory about which of your classmates is the source of your cold
D) a theory about why blue is your favorite color
Q2) Which statement best describes the now-discredited theories of Lamarck?
A) All life was created in the form we see today.
B) Modern life forms are the descendants of past individuals who were the most fit.
C) Organisms acquire traits during their lifetime and pass those traits on to their offspring.
D) Earth is extremely old and has undergone many changes.
Q3) Based on DNA evidence, fossil evidence, homology, and vestigial structures, what do humans and chimpanzees share?
Q4) What is the molecular clock?
A) The rate at which mutations accumulate in DNA within a species.
B) The rate at which new species diverge from ancestral species.
C) The rate at which structures no longer needed become small and insignificant.
D) The rate at which new discoveries are made about gene homology.
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Q1) As natural selection acts on a trait in a population, how will the amount of variation associated with that trait in the population change?
A) Variation will decrease.
B) Variation will increase.
C) Variation will remain the same.
D) Variation will disappear altogether.
Q2) You notice in the fall that the oak trees on campus change color at slightly different times, even though the environment is the same for all the trees. What is the most likely explanation?
A) Natural selection is causing some trees to change.
B) There are different alleles of the gene responsible for color change.
C) The weather changes the genes of the oak trees each year.
D) All the trees have the same genes, but each tree makes different proteins from the genes.
Q3) What process could result from the natural selection explained by Darwin in his book The Origin of Species?
Q4) What traits increase fitness in a particular environment?
Q5) What is the raw material for evolution?
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Q1) Which scenario best describes the terms "subspecies" and "race"?
A) a population of rabbits that lives near a lake and sometimes breeds with rabbits farther inland
B) two populations of birds that have different amounts of orange coloration and could produce offspring if they were not separated by a mountain range
C) two populations of frogs that cannot produce offspring
D) a breed of dog with a longhaired coat instead of a shorthaired coat
Q2) You read that the frequency of a particular disease-associated recessive allele in a population is 12%. What does that mean?
A) 12% of the population has the disease caused by that allele.
B) 12% of the population is a carrier for that disease.
C) For every 100 people, there are 12 copies of the allele.
D) The allele is present in 12% of the cells in your body.
Q3) What trait in humans is correlated with the humidity in the air to which the group is adapted?
Q4) What species concept is used by paleontologists as they compare the physical characteristics of fossils to understand human evolution?
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Q1) In what way are fungi similar to animals?
A) Both take in food from the outside.
B) Both produce hair-like hyphae.
C) Both form embryos when they reproduce.
D) Both produce antibiotics.
Q2) For what reason might scientists change the most current classification system?
A) if more species became extinct
B) if more types of vertebrates were discovered
C) if more information became available on the evolutionary history of existing species
D) if new species evolved
Q3) The evolution of which trait allowed plants to grow taller?
A) seeds
B) vascular tissue
C) flowers
D) photosynthesis
Q4) True or false: It's possible for the same species to be categorized under two different names in different natural history museums around the world.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) According to this plot, how are growth rate and doubling time related?
A) directly proportional
B) inversely proportional
C) not related to one another
D) equally proportional to one another
Q2) How does exponential growth appear on a graph?
A) as a straight line
B) as an "S" curve
C) as a "J" curve
D) as a wavy line that goes up and down regularly
Q3) By how many people does the global human population increase each day?
A) 1000
B) 12,500
C) 250,000
D) 2,500,000
Q4) Which factor is a population-limiting, density-dependent factor?
A) a heavy flood that destroys a large area around a river
B) a heat wave in which some organisms can't survive
C) a drought that limits food availability
D) the rapid spread of tuberculosis in heavily populated areas
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Q1) How many years is the average life span of a species on Earth?
A) 1000
B) 100,000
C) 1 million
D) 100 million
Q2) Ants from the genus Pseudomyrmex live in bull's horn acacia trees, Acacia cornigera. The ants will attack any predators of the tree. In return, the ants live protected in the thorns of the tree and eat the nectar and protein-rich secretions of the tree. What term describes this relationship?
A) parasitism
B) mutualism
C) competition
D) commensalism
Q3) Life on Earth has experienced several mass extinctions. What likely caused one or more of these extinctions?
A) an asteroid impact
B) worldwide drought
C) genetic drift
D) an increase in large predatory mammals
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Q1) Hypothetically, how could scientists lower Earth's temperature in order to combat global warming?
A) by moving ice from the Arctic to the tropical oceans
B) by forcibly melting more glaciers and polar ice caps
C) by reflecting more light from land masses
D) by decreasing the reflectance of cities
Q2) What factor affects the average temperature of a region?
A) the amount of cloud cover that exists
B) the amount of light energy per unit area hitting it
C) whether there's an El NiƱo that year
D) the amount of precipitation it receives
Q3) Which biome includes plants that are adapted to frequent fires?
A) boreal forest
B) temperate forest
C) chaparral
D) desert
Q4) In a general sense, ________ refers to short term environmental conditions, and ________ refers to long term environmental conditions.
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Q1) If a car is similar to an organism, then what is similar to an organ system?
A) a valve in the engine
B) the steering wheel
C) the electrical system
D) gasoline
Q2) After a large meal is digested, how does the liver reduce blood glucose levels?
A) by converting glucose to glycogen
B) by breaking down glucose into waste products
C) by stimulating the pancreas to store excess glucose
D) by releasing hormones that inhibit the pancreas
Q3) Which tissue type lines the intestines and helps in the absorption of nutrients?
A) muscle
B) connective
C) epithelial
D) nervous
Q4) How do ectotherms primarily regulate their body temperature?
A) by adjusting their rate of metabolism
B) by absorbing or releasing heat
C) by eating more or less, depending on their need for body heat
D) by panting when it gets too hot and shivering when it gets too cold
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Q1) A person can live a normal life without which digestive system organ?
A) liver
B) gall bladder
C) pancreas
D) small intestine
Q2) What function does the gall bladder serve?
A) nutrient absorption
B) bile storage and concentration
C) sugar digestion
D) fat storage
Q3) What strategy will encourage a safer engagement with alcohol?
A) adding energy drinks to any alcoholic beverage
B) alternating drinking glasses of water with alcoholic drinks
C) drinking only two to three alcoholic beverages per hour
D) eating a large meal after consuming alcohol
Q4) Which organ system acts upon substances contained in the alimentary canal?
A) circulatory system
B) digestive system
C) integumentary system
D) excretory system
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Q1) Which best describes an artery?
A) Arteries carry blood away from the heart.
B) Arteries carry oxygenated blood.
C) Arteries contain valves.
D) Arteries have thinner walls than veins.
Q2) Although children believe that "holding my breath until I die" is possible, why should parents not be concerned by this threat?
A) As a child holds his or her breath, oxygen levels build, stimulating breathing by the brain stem.
B) As a child holds his or her breath, oxygen levels decrease, stimulating breathing by the brain stem.
C) As a child holds his or her breath, carbon dioxide levels decrease, stimulating breathing by the brain stem.
D) As a child holds his or her breath, carbon dioxide levels increase, stimulating breathing by the brain stem.
Q3) What is the chemical in tobacco smoke that's able to activate the brain's reward pathways, thus making smoking a very addictive process?
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Q1) An antibiotic kills 99.9% of a bacterial population. What will be the result of the continued application of this antibiotic?
A) Every time the antibiotic is given, it will kill 99.9% of the bacterial population.
B) Through time, the antibiotic will become less effective at killing the bacteria.
C) Eventually, the entire bacterial population will be wiped out.
D) The bacterial population will reach an equilibrium point at which the antibiotic is 50% effective.
Q2) What happens during an allergic reaction?
A) Immune cells attack the body's healthy cells.
B) The body mounts an immune reaction to a harmless substance.
C) Substances that were previously harmless become pathogenic.
D) The immune system overreacts to a mild pathogen.
Q3) Which pathogen is a eukaryote?
A) Giardia
B) rabies virus
C) E. coli
D) Staphylococcus
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Q1) Which type of skeleton protects a human's soft internal organs?
Q2) Which system is an internal system of regulation and communication involving hormones, glands, and target cells?
Q3) What happens to a sarcomere when muscle contraction occurs?
A) It shortens.
B) It lengthens.
C) It remains the same.
D) It lengthens and then shortens.
Q4) If healthy men have a range of body fat from 3 to 29% and healthy women have a range of body fat from 12 to 32%, what would you predict for the sex of an individual having 20% body fat?
A) The individual is male.
B) The individual is female.
C) The individual's sex can't be predicted from body fat percentage.
D) No one has 20% body fat.
Q5) Which component of bone tissue forms the hard outer shell of bones?
A) bone marrow
B) compact bone
C) spongy bone
D) cartilage
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Q1) What effect of endocrine disruptors has been shown by laboratory studies?
A) to decrease the ability of human sperm to fertilize eggs
B) to cause human birth defects
C) to cause reproductive problems in nonhuman animals
D) to cause endometriosis in women
Q2) Jane is a 20-year-old individual who externally resembles a female but who is actually genetically a male (XY). Based on your knowledge of human development, how could this be possible?
A) Although Jane is genetically a male, she has produced an abnormal amount of estrogen since birth.
B) During development, Jane's body produced an excessive amount of testosterone, leading to the development of female external genitalia.
C) Jane's embryonic gonads did not produce androgens, or they lacked functional testosterone receptors.
D) Due to a genetic defect, Jane lacks sufficient aromatase activity, the enzyme that converts testosterone into estrogen.
Q3) What are the primary female reproductive organs that are responsible for producing egg cells?
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Q1) Following a medical examination, an individual discovers that she has a large tumor located in the area of the brain known as the reticular formation, located in the lower part of the brain stem. Which symptoms would this person experience as a consequence?
A) difficulty swallowing and breathing
B) inability to feel pain
C) inability to maintain balance
D) difficulty concentrating in a noisy room
Q2) Which drug, when taken by an adult, will produce similar symptoms as the symptoms of a child with ADD?
A) alcohol
B) ecstasy
C) marijuana
D) nicotine
Q3) What part of the brain is highly developed in animals that have finely tuned balance and complex coordination?
A) cerebellum
B) medulla
C) thalamus
D) temporal lobe
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Q1) What is the ability of a plant to continue to grow throughout its lifetime?
A) determinate growth
B) indeterminate growth
C) secondary growth
D) vernalization
Q2) What is a leaf blade attached to a stem by a stalk-like structure?
A) internode
B) stoma
C) petiole
D) node
Q3) The roots of monocots are generally ________, whereas the roots of dicots are generally ________.
A) thick taproots; thin and fibrous
B) spread out laterally; deep
C) deep; spread out laterally
D) covered in root hairs; lacking root hairs
Q4) What is the concentration of persistent toxic chemicals at higher levels within a food chain or food web?
Q5) Pollination occurs when the pollen of a flower lands on which plant structure?
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Q6) What is the emergence of a plant embryo from a seed?
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Q1) Which plants live for many years and produce flowers every year?
Q2) If the sugary phloem sap in a fruit tree is divided into many sugar sinks, then how will each individual fruit be affected?
A) The fruit will be small and sugary.
B) The fruit will be large and sugary.
C) The fruit will be small and diluted.
D) The fruit will be large and diluted.
Q3) What is the tendency of water molecules to stick together?
A) cohesion
B) adhesion
C) tension
D) transpiration
Q4) Which action allows a plant to conserve water?
A) increasing photosynthesis during the day
B) opening stomata only at night
C) possessing large leaves
D) developing wide vessel elements
Q5) Plants that have undergone a gradual cooling period and are able to resist cold environmental temperatures are referred to as ________.
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