

Biology for Non-Majors Exam Solutions
Course Introduction
Biology for Non-Majors offers an engaging introduction to core biological principles for students without a science background. The course covers fundamental topics such as cell structure and function, genetics, evolution, ecology, and the diversity of life. Emphasis is placed on real-world applications of biology, promoting scientific literacy and understanding of how biological concepts impact health, the environment, and society. Through lectures, discussions, and hands-on activities, students develop critical thinking skills and an appreciation for the role of biology in everyday life.
Recommended Textbook
Human Biology Concepts and Current Issues 7th Edition by Michael D. Johnson
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24 Chapters
2002 Verified Questions
2002 Flashcards
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Page 2

Chapter 1: Human Biology, Science, and Society
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66 Verified Questions
66 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/20601
Sample Questions
Q1) Data obtained from scientific experiments can best be displayed in a(n) ________, which can be used to explain the results of an experiment as well.
Answer: graph
Q2) Because the natural world includes all energy and matter, it also includes all living organisms.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Which one of the following taxa (subgroups used in classification) applies to humans?
A) Mammals
B) Protista
C) Invertebrates
D) Prokarya
E) Bacteria
Answer: A
Q4) A group of tissues working together for a common purpose is known as a(n)
Answer: organ
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Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Living Things
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Sample Questions
Q1) A student has isolated a large compound (macromolecule) from cells. Chemical analysis of the compound shows that it is made up of the following elements: carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen, and phosphorus. To which group of macromolecules does this compound most likely belong?
A) carbohydrate
B) protein
C) nucleic acid
D) lipid
E) aqueous
Answer: C
Q2) Which one of the following is a very important source of energy for nearly all cells?
A) cellulose
B) deoxyribose
C) starch
D) glucose
E) ribose
Answer: D
Q3) A substance that helps to maintain a stable pH is a(n) ________.
Answer: buffer
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Page 4

Chapter 3: Structure and Function of Cells
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105 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a runner or other long-distance athlete hits the "wall," the individual is experiencing oxygen debt in muscle cells. In those cells, the pyruvate generated in glycolysis would be expected to be converted to
A) fat
B) lactic acid
C) glucose
D) carbon dioxide
E) water
Answer: B
Q2) In the cell, proteins that are synthesized for immediate use by the cell are normally produced
A) in the plasma membrane
B) in the nucleus
C) in the Golgi apparatus
D) on smooth endoplasmic reticulum
E) on free-floating ribosomes
Answer: E
Q3) ________ are long slender structures that enable a cell, such as a sperm, to swim.
Answer: Flagella
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Page 5

Chapter 4: From Cells to Organ Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) During long, sustained aerobic exercise, a lot of heat is generated that elevates body temperature. Describe how a homeostatic control system would likely work to cool body temperature back to normal. Specify each component of the control system.
Q2) Blood, cartilage, and bone are types of ________ tissue.
Q3) Skeletal muscle is considered ________ muscle because conscious control can be exercised over its movement.
Q4) Cells in cartilage that produce the ground substance are the ________.
Q5) Connective tissue is unique because the cells secrete a(n) ________ that can be semiliquid or hardened.
Q6) In which one of the following locations would one expect to find cartilage?
A) between the skin and the underlying muscle
B) between the vertebrae
C) in a tendon
D) in the wall of a blood vessel
E) in adipose tissue
Q7) Spot desmosomes are actually ________ junctions, which allow for slight flexibility in an epithelium.
Q8) Skeletal muscle attaches to ________, which connect the muscle to bone.
Q9) A(n) ________ epithelium allows gas exchange in the lungs.
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Chapter 5: The Skeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) diaphysis
Q2) Cartilage-forming cells are referred to as chondroblasts.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The type of cell responsible for the production of red and white blood cells in bone marrow is the
A) osteon
B) osteocyte
C) osteoclast
D) stem cell
E) canaliculi
Q4) The process by which the cartilage of fetal bones is gradually replaced with bone tissue is ________.
Q5) When a bone breaks, a(n) ________ forms until later being replaced with bone.
A) cyst
B) growth plate
C) hematoma
D) callus
E) pore
Q6) Tendons attach ________ to bone.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: The Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Plantar fasciitis is an inflammation of the fascia within the sole of the foot, resulting in foot and heel pain. What is a fascia?
A) a bundle of muscle cells that are enclosed in a connective tissue sheath
B) a bundle of protein filaments (thick and thin) located within muscle cells
C) the fibrous connective tissue sheath that surrounds the fascicles of the muscle
D) a connective tissue structure that attaches one muscle to another muscle
E) the area where the actin and myosin filaments overlap within a muscle cell
Q2) Contraction of a skeletal muscle cell is initiated by the
A) release of acetylcholine by a neuron terminating at the neuromuscular junction
B) release of calcium ions by the neuron into the neuromuscular junction
C) electrical current traveling from the neuron directly into the muscle cell
D) hormones delivered by the blood supply to the nearby tissue
E) release of sodium ions by the neuron into the neuromuscular junction
Q3) A protein that stores oxygen in slow-twitch muscle fibers is ________.
Q4) The mechanical force that is generated when a muscle contracts is known as ________.
Q5) The contractile proteins that are located in myofibrils are called ________ and ________.
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Chapter 7: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Blood poisoning (septicemia) is typically treated with transfusions.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Platelets are pieces of ________.
Q3) When a blood vessel gets damaged, contractions of smooth muscle referred to as ________ help constrict the vessel to reduce blood flow.
A) vascular spasms
B) hemostasis
C) homeostasis
D) formed elements
E) endocytosis
Q4) An athlete participating in blood doping would be expected to have a low hematocrit.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The hormone ________, secreted by the ________, stimulates the production of red blood cells when the level of oxygen in the body decreases.
Q6) The swelling, itching, and redness associated with injury to a tissue are known as ________.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Heart and Blood Vessels
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Sample Questions
Q1) In which one of the following blood vessels is blood under the lowest pressure?
A) artery
B) arteriole
C) capillary
D) venule
E) vein
Q2) Which one of the following plays the most significant role in regulating the distribution of blood into tissues?
A) arteries
B) veins
C) capillaries
D) arterioles
E) venules
Q3) Arthrosclerosis is a condition that results in a thickening of arterial walls due to buildup of fatty deposits containing
A) glycerol
B) albumin
C) phospholipids
D) glucose
E) cholesterol
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Chapter 9: The Immune System and Mechanisms of Defense
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Sample Questions
Q1) Plasma cells and memory cells are types of ________ lymphocytes; both types of cells secrete proteins called ________ as part of the immune response.
Q2) The only T lymphocyte that directly attacks and destroys other cells is the ________ T cell.
Q3) Which of the following is TRUE regarding HIV and AIDS?
A) Most of the people infected with HIV live in South America, where the disease originated.
B) Approximately 100,000 people worldwide die each year from AIDS.
C) Due to improved education and prevention methods in the United States, the number of newly diagnosed cases of AIDS is rapidly declining.
D) Symptoms of AIDS do not normally appear until years after HIV detection.
E) If an individual with AIDS gets proper medical attention, he or she probably will not die from complications associated with this syndrome.
Q4) Cell-mediated immunity involves the activity of ________ lymphocytes.
Q5) T cells are activated by macrophages and activated B cells, which fulfill this role by acting as ________.
Q6) B lymphocytes mature in the ________.
Q7) The ________ are lymphatic tissue that protect the throat.
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Chapter 10: The Respiratory System: Exchange of Gases
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Sample Questions
Q1) A condition in which wheezing occurs with breathlessness and a persistent cough, and yields yellowish or greenish phlegm is
A) asthma
B) bronchitis
C) lung cancer
D) lupus
E) anemia
Q2) Which one of the following muscles separates the thoracic cavity from the abdominal cavity?
A) intercostal
B) intracostal
C) cardiac
D) diaphragm
E) spleen
Q3) The rate and depth of normal breathing are controlled by the need to get rid of CO .
A)True
B)False
Q4) The amount of air that enters and leaves the lungs with each breath is the
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Chapter 11: The Nervous System: Integration and Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are functions of the myelin sheath EXCEPT which one?
A) The myelin sheath speeds up transmission of action potentials.
B) The myelin sheath insulates a neuron and saves the neuron energy.
C) The myelin sheath plays an important role in synaptic transmission.
D) The myelin sheath is involved in the repair of damaged neurons in the peripheral nervous system.
Q2) removal of this region would eliminate coordinated movements in response to sight A)True
B)False
Q3) The absolute refractory period characteristic of neurons is important in ensuring that action potentials travel in only one direction.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Shifting the membrane potential of a neuron from negative to positive, due to inward movement of sodium ions, is referred to as ________.
Q5) The neurotransmitter released by the postganglionic neurons of the parasympathetic nervous system is ________.
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Page 13

Chapter 12: Sensory Mechanisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) The vitreous humor fills the main chamber of the eye. Which one of the following structures of the eye would vitreous humor come in contact with?
A) sclera
B) cornea
C) iris
D) choroid
E) retina
Q2) ________ pain oftentimes is not even detected until seconds or even minutes after an injury; this is due to the activation of chemically sensitive pain receptors.
Q3) Which one of the following parts of the eye is continuous with the cornea and forms the outer surface of the back of the eye?
A) retina
B) choroid
C) oval window
D) iris
E) sclera
Q4) The ________ sorts sounds by tone and converts them into electrical impulses.
Q5) The ________ regulates the amount of light entering the eye.
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Chapter 13: The Endocrine System
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80 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following is required in the diet in order for active thyroid hormones to be produced?
A) calcium
B) phosphorus
C) iodine
D) zinc
E) iron
Q2) All of the following statements about the endocrine system are TRUE EXCEPT which one?
A) Many hormones are not able to cross the blood-brain barrier.
B) Hormones are distributed via the circulatory system.
C) Hormones exert their effects on cells that have the specific hormone receptor.
D) Hormones act more quickly than the nervous system.
E) The endocrine system and the nervous system frequently interact.
Q3) During prolonged fasting, cortisol assists in maintaining blood glucose levels by stimulating the conversion of proteins to amino acids in muscle.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: The Digestive System and Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) The amount of energy needed by the body to perform essential functions such as breathing is the ________.
Q2) Important components of food that are needed by the body for reproduction, growth, and good health are ________.
Q3) Which one of the following might result if the lower esophageal sphincter malfunctions?
A) gastric ulcer
B) duodenal ulcer
C) gluten intolerance
D) acid reflux
E) stomach cancer
Q4) The small, fingerlike structure that extends from the cecum is the ________.
Q5) produces bile
Q6) The watery mixture of partially digested food produced in the stomach is called
A) bolus
B) chyme
C) segmentation
D) dentin
E) mucin
Q7) Fats that are liquids at room temperature are ________.
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Chapter 15: The Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Renin stimulates the secretion of aldosterone.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Osmotic concentration in the descending limb of the loop of Henle increases as water moves out.
A)True
B)False
Q3) When urine leaves the kidneys, it enters the
A) urethra
B) liver
C) ureter
D) urinary bladder
E) nephron
Q4) Not only are the kidneys considered organs of excretion, but they have an endocrine function as well as an important role in the maintenance of homeostasis through the regulation of blood pH.
A)True
B)False
Q5) muscular tube that passes urine out of the body
Q6) functions in ion reabsorption into blood
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Chapter 16: Reproductive Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) structure that transports sperm to the ejaculatory duct; sperm are stored here until ejaculation
Q2) Endometrial tissue sometimes migrates out of the uterus and attaches to other abdominal organs.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The lining of the uterus is termed the myometrium.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Since the chance of any one particular sperm fertilizing an egg is very low, large numbers of sperm are produced by the male reproductive system.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Nourishment is provided to a primary oocyte via which one of the following?
A) the endometrium layer in the uterus
B) the afferent capillaries
C) the zona pellucida
D) the cervical plug
E) a layer of granulosa cells
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Chapter 17: Cell Reproduction and Differentiation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The result of mitosis is the production of two daughter cells that are genetically identical to each other but not to the parent cell.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Cloning for the specific purpose of treating human disease is referred to as ________ cloning.
Q3) Mutations in human DNA rarely impair normal cell function because
A) repair of DNA prevents all mutations from ever causing damage to a cell
B) damaged cells commit "suicide" to prevent damage to the body
C) cells have one major repair enzyme that corrects the mutations quickly
D) multiple DNA repair enzymes usually quickly correct the mutations before any damage can occur
E) the cells attack dysfunctional gene products, averting damage to the cell
Q4) metaphase
Q5) Meiosis in females is not complete until ________ occurs.
Q6) The beginning of each gene in DNA is marked by the presence of a unique base sequence called the ________.
Q7) Initiation of translation begins with a tRNA binding to a(n) ________ on mRNA.
Q8) occurs just before cytokinesis
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Chapter 18: Cancer: Uncontrolled Cell Division and Differentiation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cancers that metastasize and invade normal tissues to impede their functions are called
A) benign tumors
B) keratosis
C) malignant tumors
D) in situ cancer
E) neoplasm
Q2) Which one of the following types of cancer kills the highest percentage of people diagnosed with the condition?
A) lung
B) breast
C) prostate
D) skin
E) colon
Q3) A cell progressing toward cancer may develop an enlarged nucleus, a condition referred to as ________.
Q4) If you or a family member received the unfortunate news of cancer, why is it that being told the cancer is in situ is more encouraging in terms of treatment than a cancer that metastasizes?
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Genetics and Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) If the two alleles of a particular gene pair are the same, the individual is ________ for that gene.
Q2) A display of an individual's chromosomes is known as a(n) ________.
Q3) Sickle-cell anemia is a disease that alters the structure of hemoglobin, and in turn, can cause severe health problems in individuals if left untreated. The disease is expressed in homozygous recessive individuals, whereas the heterozygous condition usually does not result in any symptoms of the disease. Sickle-cell anemia primarily affects Africans and Caucasians of Mediterranean descent. Typically, when a disease occurs only in the homozygous recessive condition, the incidence of the gene in the population is predicted to decline overtime, particularly when it can be detected either phenotypically or by genetic testing. In East Africa, the disease still occurs in about 40% of the population. Give an explanation for why the incidence of the disease has remained so high in African populations.
Q4) Which of the following human traits is an example of codominance?
A) sickle-cell anemia
B) variation in eye color
C) human height
D) AB blood type
E) both sickle-cell anemia and AB blood type
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Chapter 20: DNA Technology and Genetic Engineering
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Sample Questions
Q1) A scientist is working in a lab sequencing DNA. After reading the results from a column of gel scanned in a fluoroscope, she determines that the sequence of bases in the newly synthesized DNA is AATTCCCGG. Which one of the following represents the sequence of bases on the complementary strand?
A) GGCCAAATT
B) UUTTCCCGG
C) AATTCCCGG
D) UUAAGGGCC
E) TTAAGGGCC
Q2) In recombinant DNA technology, DNA is cut at specific nucleotide sequences by ________ enzymes.
Q3) Through genetic engineering, it is possible for scientists to identify the sequence of bases in DNA, determine the location of certain genes in DNA, and create more DNA from DNA samples.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The insertion of human genes into human cells to treat a disease is known as ________.
Q5) Programmed cell death in somatic cells is known as ________.
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Chapter 21: Development and Aging
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Sample Questions
Q1) The blastocyst begins to form a second hollow cavity that will eventually become the A) placenta
B) fundus
C) amniotic cavity
D) embryonic disk
E) embryo
Q2) Which one of the following organs is not fully developed in a fetus and is therefore bypassed by the ductus arteriosus?
A) liver
B) pancreas
C) heart
D) lungs
E) bladder
Q3) As an adult human ages, the blood vessels lose their elasticity, and blood pressure drops as dilation occurs.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The cell formed by the union of egg and sperm during fertilization is the ________.
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Page 23

Chapter 22: Evolution and the Origins of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following processes tends to mix gene pools?
A) gene flow
B) the bottleneck effect
C) founder effect
D) continental drift
E) adaptive radiation
Q2) In an evolutionary context, ________ structures do not currently have a function in present-day organisms.
Q3) The first self-replicating molecule hypothesized to have formed on Earth was
Q4) The branch of science that deals with the naming and grouping of organisms is known as
A) histology
B) molecular biology
C) chemistry
D) taxonomy
E) ecology
Q5) Humans are classified as ________ because of our larger bodies, bigger brains, and lack of tails in relation to other primates.
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Chapter 23: Ecosystems and Populations
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Sample Questions
Q1) With the exception of lipids, plants are capable of producing all the organic molecules they need using water and minerals from the soil and energy stored in the sugar molecules they make through photosynthesis.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Population sizes begin to stabilize near the carrying capacity when
A) zero population is achieved
B) the number of species in the environment begins to decrease
C) environmental resistance begins to limit the population's biotic potential
D) the replacement fertility rate reaches 2.1
E) a population's biotic potential becomes unlimited
Q3) A species moving into a new habitat will be able to adapt only if there is genetic change in the population.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The introduction of invasive species may increase the environmental resistance for a native species.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 24: Human Impacts, Biodiversity, and Environmental Issues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Freshwater is most likely to be polluted
A) by oil spills in ocean water moving inland
B) as a result of eutrophication
C) primarily by contaminants from aquifers moving to surface waters
D) from runoff associated with urban areas' chemicals used in farming in rural areas
E) by radioactive waste seeping from nuclear reactors
Q2) Increasing population density on marginal lands in rural areas has resulted in desertification, which reduces the ability of the land to sustain the population.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Commercial logging by European countries in the Ivory Coast has reduced the pristine 70 million acres of forests that once existed to about
A) fewer than 1 million acres
B) 5-7 million acres
C) 15-20 million acres
D) 30 million acres
E) 50 million acres
Q4) CFCs are the primary air pollutants that destroy the ________.
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