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Biology for Non-Majors Exam Review - 2275 Verified Questions

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Biology for Non-Majors Exam Review https://quizplus.com/study-set/1346 55 Chapters 2275 Verified Questions


Biology for Non-Majors Exam Review Course Introduction Biology for Non-Majors is an introductory course designed to give students from all backgrounds a fundamental understanding of biological principles and their relevance to everyday life. The course explores the basic concepts of cell structure and function, genetics, evolution, ecology, and the diversity of living organisms. Emphasis is placed on critical thinking, scientific literacy, and the application of biological knowledge to societal and environmental issues. Topics are presented in a context that highlights their importance to health, the environment, and technology, making biology accessible and meaningful to non-science majors.

Recommended Textbook Biological Science 2nd Canadian Edition by Scott; Sharp

Available Study Resources on Quizplus 55 Chapters 2275 Verified Questions 2275 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1346

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Chapter 1: Biology and the Tree of Life Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 35 Verified Questions 35 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26832

Sample Questions Q1) What hypothesis was being tested in the initial experiment with open versus sealed jars? A)Spontaneous generation is more likely during the long days of summer. B)The type of meat used affects the likelihood of spontaneous generation. C)Maggots do not arise spontaneously,but from eggs laid by adult flies. D)Spontaneous generation can occur only if meat is surrounded by air. Answer: C Q2) Starting from the wild mustard Brassica oleracea,breeders have created the strains known as Brussel sprouts,broccoli,kale,and cabbage.Which of the following statements is supported by this observation? A)In this species,there is enough heritable variation to create a variety of features. B)Heritable variation is low-otherwise the wild strain would have different characteristics. C)Natural selection has not occurred very frequently in the wild populations. D)In

this

species,most

of

the

variation

present

is

due

to

differences

soil,nutrition,amount of sunlight,or other aspects of the environment. Answer: A To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

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in


Chapter 2: Water and Carbon: the Chemical Basis of Life Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 51 Verified Questions 51 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26833

Sample Questions Q1) The Q10 rule states that,within their survivable range,the rates of biochemical processes of many ectothermic organisms approximately double with every 10-degree (C)rise in temperature.Why would this be true? A)Warmer molecules interact faster. B)There are more vibrational harmonics with greater temperature. C)Organisms move faster when they are warmer. D)Sunlight warms all organisms. Answer: A Q2) The cities of Portland,Oregon,and Minneapolis,Minnesota,are at about the same latitude,but Minneapolis has much hotter summers and much colder winters than Portland.Why? (Portland is near the Pacific Ocean;Minneapolis is near a number of large lakes.) A)They are not at exactly the same latitude. B)The ocean is so large that it has a highly moderating influence on temperature. C)Freshwater is more likely to freeze than saltwater. D)Minneapolis is much windier,due to its location in the middle of a continent. Answer: B To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

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Chapter 3: Protein Structure and Function Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 54 Verified Questions 54 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26834

Sample Questions Q1) Amino acid side chains (R groups)with what characteristic(s)dissolve best in water? A)small sizes and simple structures B)at least one ring structure C)polarity or charged structures D)the presence of sulfur Answer: C Q2) A series of hydrophobic side chains will congregate together as a protein folds in an aqueous solution and be stabilized by A)disulfide bonds. B)van der Waals interaction. C)hydrogen bonds. D)quaternary structure bonds. Answer: B Q3) Three important functions of proteins are cell A)wall composition,cushioning,and membrane fluidity. B)movement,signaling,and reaction catalysis. C)information coding,conversion,and transfer. Answer: B To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 5


Chapter 4: Nucleic Acids and the Rna World Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 40 Verified Questions 40 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26835

Sample Questions Q1) What is gel electrophoresis used for? A)to denature proteins for further analysis B)to separate macromolecules by size or charge C)to separate the two helices that make up the DNA double helix D)to identify the first self-replicating molecule that formed during chemical evolution Q2) Nucleic acids have a definite polarity,or directionality.Stated another way,one end of the molecule is different from the other end.How are these ends described? A)One end has a hydroxyl group on the 2 carbon;the other end has a hydrogen atom on the 2 carbon. B)One end contains a nitrogenous base;the other end lacks it. C)One end has an unlinked 3 carbon;the other end has an unlinked 5 carbon. D)One end has one phosphate group;the other end has two phosphate groups. Q3) What feature of mononucleotides provides the energy needed for polymerization when nucleic acids are formed? A)their methyl groups B)their sugar groups C)their nitrogenous bases D)their phosphate groups To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 6


Chapter 5: An Introduction to Carbohydrates Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 40 Verified Questions 40 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26836

Sample Questions Q1) How do the α and β forms of glucose differ? A)Their ring structures differ in the location of a hydroxyl group. B)Their linear structures differ in the location of a hydroxyl group. C)The α form can be involved in 1,4 and 1,6 glycosidic linkages;the β form can participate only in 1,4 linkages. D)The oxygen atom inside the ring is located in a different position. Q2) Which of the following carbohydrates contains a peptide bond? A)Carbohydrates don't contain peptide bonds;only proteins do. B)cellulose C)chitin D)peptidoglycan E)glycogen Q3) Why do artificial sweeterns have less calories than sucrose and fructose,but still taste sweet? A)They bind to specific taste receptor,but are quickly metabolized by the body. B)They do not bind to any receptors and are quickly eliminated from the body. C)They bind to a specific taste receptor,but do not have any ATP. D)They bind to ATP,which then binds to the taste receptor. To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 7


Chapter 6: Lipids, membranes, and the First Cells Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 54 Verified Questions 54 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26837

Sample Questions Q1) What region of a steroid is hydrophilic? A)the methyl (-CH₃)groups B)the terminal hydroxyl group C)the ring structures D)the long hydrocarbon chain Q2) Which of the following increases the strength of the hydrophobic interactions in lipid bilayers and thus makes them less permeable to polar molecules? A)the presence of double bonds B)increasing temperature C)removing cholesterol D)increasing length of the hydrocarbon chains Q3) What type of functional group results when the alcohol group on glycerol reacts with the carboxylic acid group on a fatty acid? A)ester B)hydrocarbon C)peptide bond D)glycosidic bond To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

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Chapter 7: Inside the Cell Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 38 Verified Questions 38 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26838

Sample Questions Q1) You are sitting in lecture and you decide to leave the room for a minute.When you return,the professor is describing a cytoskeletal component and states that these fibres are thin and consist of two rows of protein subunits wound around each other in a long spiral.Since you left the room,you did not hear which cytoskeletal component is being referred to,but,since you read the book before you came to class,you know that it is A)the microtubules. B)the intermediate filaments. C)microfilaments. D)none of the above. Q2) How is the structure of kinesin related to its function? A)Kinesin has two intertwined polypeptides that make up the stalk and enable it to contract and shorten. B)Kinesin has a tail region that binds to vesicles and two heads that can attach to microtubules. C)The kinesin tail has an ATP binding site to fuel its activities. D)Kinesin has two heads to attach to the vesicle being moved,and a tail region that attaches to microtubules. To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

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Chapter 8: Cell-Cell Interactions Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 38 Verified Questions 38 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26839

Sample Questions Q1) Plasmodesmata are cell-cell junctions that can be found between A)skeletal muscle cells. B)plant cells. C)cells of connective tissue in animals. D)none of the above. Q2) Why are receptors for steroid hormones located inside the cell rather than on the membrane surface? A)The receptors can be stimulated to exit to the membrane surface under conditions in which a cell needs to be regulated by the steroid hormone. B)Steroid hormones are lipid soluble and thus can readily diffuse through the lipid bilayer that makes up the cell membrane. C)The receptors are repressible,meaning they are actively altering cell function unless the target hormone is present. D)Cells with steroid hormone receptors inside the cell are not able to respond to steroid hormones. To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

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Chapter 9: Cellular Respiration and Fermentation Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 38 Verified Questions 38 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26840

Sample Questions Q1) In the figure above,where are the enzymes of the Krebs (citric acid)cycle located? Choose the arrow that corresponds. A)A B)B C)C D)D Q2) After glycolysis,but before the Krebs cycle and electron transport chain/oxidative phosphorylation,most of the energy from the original glucose is in the form of which molecule? A)ATP B)CO₂ C)H2O D)NADH E)pyruvate Q3) The electron transport chain A)is a series of redox reactions. B)is a series of substitution reactions. C)is driven by ATP consumption. D)takes place in the cytoplasm of prokaryotic cells. To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 11


Chapter 10: Photosynthesis Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 39 Verified Questions 39 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26841

Sample Questions Q1) As electrons are passed through the system of electron carriers associated with photosystem II,they lose energy.What happens to this energy? A)It excites electrons of the reaction center of photosystem I. B)It is lost as heat. C)It is used to establish and maintain a proton gradient. D)It is used to phosphorylate NAD⁺ to NADPH,the molecule that accepts electrons from photosystem I. Q2) How are the light-dependent and light-independent reactions of photosynthesis related? A)They cannot occur in the absence of light. B)The products of light-dependent reactions are used in light-independent reactions. C)The products of light-independent reactions must be present for light-dependent reactions to take place. D)They are not related. To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

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Chapter 11: The Cell Cycle Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 39 Verified Questions 39 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26842

Sample Questions Q1) If a cell has accumulated DNA damage,it is unlikely to A)pass the G₂ checkpoint. B)activate DNA repair mechanisms. C)enter G₁ from mitosis. D)synthesize cyclin-dependent kinases. Q2) How is plant cell cytokinesis different from animal cell cytokinesis? A)The cleavage furrow in animal cells is composed of protein contractile filaments;the contractile filaments found in plant cells are structures composed of carbohydrates. B)Plant cells deposit vesicles containing cell-wall building blocks on the metaphase plate;animal cells form a cleavage furrow. C)The structural carbohydrates of the plant cells separate the two cells,whereas in animal cells,a cell membrane separates the two daughter cells. D)Animal cells have centrosomes that are involved in this process,but plant cells have microtubular organizing centers that are not detectable during most of the cell cycle. To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

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Chapter 12: Meiosis Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 39 Verified Questions 39 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26843

Sample Questions Q1) Egg and sperm,involved in sexual reproduction,are formed through a process called A)binary fission. B)mitosis. C)meiosis. D)fertilization. Q2) Somatic cells of roundworms have four chromosomes.How many chromosomes would you find in an ovum from a roundworm? A)four B)two C)eight D)a diploid number Q3) Chromosome number of hexaploid wheat,Triticum aestivum,can be represented by which of the following? A)n B)2n C)4n D)6n To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

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Chapter 13: Mendel and the Gene Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 42 Verified Questions 42 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26844

Sample Questions Q1) In humans,blue eyes are inherited as a recessive autosomal trait and color blindness is an X-linked recessive trait.A woman with blue eyes and normal color vision whose father was color blind marries a man who also has normal color vision.He has brown eyes,but his mother had blue eyes.Which of the following do you expect to be true for their sons? A)One-half of their sons will have normal color vision and brown eyes;1/2 of their sons will have normal color vision and blue eyes. B)Their sons will all have normal color vision and brown eyes. C)One-fourth of their sons will be color blind and have blue eyes,1/4 of their sons will be color blind and have brown eyes,1/4 of their sons will have normal color vision and blue eyes,1/4 of their sons will have normal color vision and brown eyes. D)Their sons will all have normal color vision and blue eyes. E)One-half of their sons will be color blind and have blue eyes;1/2 their sons will be color blind and have brown eyes. To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

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Chapter 14: Dna and the Gene: Synthesis and Repair Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 39 Verified Questions 39 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26845

Sample Questions Q1) Refer to Figure 14.1.What bases will be added to the primer as DNA replication proceeds? The bases should appear in the order that they will be added. A)C,A,G,C,A,G,A B)T,C,T,G,C,T,G C)A,G,A,C,G,A,C D)U,G,U,C,G,U,C Q2) What is the difference between the leading strand and the lagging strand in DNA replication? A)The leading strand is synthesized in the 3′→5′ direction in a discontinuous fashion,while the lagging strand is synthesized in the 5′→3′ direction in a continuous fashion. B)The leading strand requires an RNA primer,whereas the lagging strand does not. C)The leading strand is synthesized continuously in the 5′→3′ direction,while the lagging strand is synthesized discontinuously in the 5′→3′ direction. D)There are different DNA polymerases involved in elongation of the leading strand and the lagging strand. Q3) Refer to Figure 14.3.Which structure is responsible for stabilizing DNA in its single-stranded form? To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

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Chapter 15: How Genes Work Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 39 Verified Questions 39 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26846

Sample Questions Q1) Which of the following observations may have resulted in the hypothesis that a codon is made up of three bases? A)A codon of 2 bases in length,from 4 different bases,would code for a maximum of 16 different amino acids;therefore,2 are too few. B)A codon of 3 bases in length,from 4 different bases,would code for a maximum of 12 different amino acids;therefore 3 are too few. C)A codon of 4 bases in length,from 4 different bases,could code for a maximum of 24 different amino acids;therefore,4 is likely. D)A codon of 3 bases in length,from 4 different bases,would code for a maximum of 64 different amino acids;therefore,3 is possible. Q2) Codons,the three base sequences that code for specific amino acids,are part of A)protein. B)mRNA. C)tRNA. D)rRNA. To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

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Chapter 16: Transcription, RNA Processing, and Translation Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 39 Verified Questions 39 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26847

Sample Questions Q1) Put the following events of transcription in chronological order. 1. Sigma binds to the promoter region. 2)

The

double

helix

of

DNA

is

unwound,breaking

hydrogen

bonds

between

complementary strands. 3) Sigma binds to RNA polymerase. 4) Sigma is released. 5) Transcription begins. A)2,3,4,5,1 B)2,3,1,4,5 C)3,1,2,5,4 D)3,2,1,4,5 Q2) Ribosomes can attach to prokaryotic messenger RNA A)once post-transcriptional modification is complete. B)before transcription is complete. C)once replication is complete. D)once the primary transcript has been released from RNA polymerase. To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

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Chapter 17: Control of Gene Expression in Bacteria Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 38 Verified Questions 38 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26848

Sample Questions Q1) According to the lac operon model proposed by Jacob and Monod,what is predicted to occur if the operator is removed from the operon? A)The lac operon would be transcribed constitutively. B)Only lacZ would be transcribed. C)Only lacY would be transcribed. D)Galactosidase permease would be produced,but would be incapable of transporting lactose. Q2) Imagine that you've set up a genetic screen to identify E.coli mutants that cannot metabolize the amino acid tryptophan.Beginning with a master plate containing many colonies,you prepare replica plates on medium with glucose or tryptophan as the only energy source.You would look for colonies that A)cannot grow on either type of media. B)can grow on both types of media. C)can grow only on the plates with tryptophan. D)can grow only on the plates with glucose. To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

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Chapter 18: Control of Gene Expression in Eukaryotes Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 39 Verified Questions 39 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26849

Sample Questions Q1) Which of the following types of mutation would convert a proto-oncogene into an oncogene? A)a mutation that blocks transcription of the proto-oncogene B)a mutation that creates an unstable proto-oncogene mRNA C)a mutation that greatly increases the amount of the proto-oncogene protein D)a deletion of most of the proto-oncogene coding sequence Q2) Predict what would occur in the experiment shown in Figure 18.1 if Tonegawa and colleagues had mistakenly inserted the antibody gene enhancer in reverse orientation (backward)into the β-globin gene. A)There would be no β-globin gene expression in the antibody-producing cells. B)There would be minute levels of β-globin gene expression in the antibody-producing cells. C)There would be transcription of the β-globin gene,but on the opposite strand of DNA from the one normally transcribed. D)There would be little difference in the results of this experiment and the one shown in the figure. To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

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Chapter 19: Analyzing and Engineering Genes Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 41 Verified Questions 41 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26850

Sample Questions Q1) For applications in gene therapy,what is the most favorable characteristic of retroviruses? A)Retroviruses have an RNA genome. B)Retroviruses possess reverse transcriptase. C)DNA copies of retroviral genomes become integrated into the genome of the infected cell. D)Retroviruses cause many serious diseases,including AIDS and cancer. Q2) The answer set for this question shows a series of short amino acid sequences obtained from a protein.If you were faced with choosing one of these to design a probe for a particular gene,which would provide the simplest probe or probe set? (To answer this question,consult the codon table shown in the figure above ). A)leucine-leucine-serine-leucine B)leucine-serine-proline-proline C)proline-methionine-proline-leucine D)tryptophan-methionine-tryptophan-tryptophan To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

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Chapter 20: Genomics Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 41 Verified Questions 41 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26851

Sample Questions Q1) Imagine that you've sequenced the genome of a human pathogenic bacterium.In the early stages of analysis,you discover a stretch of DNA that has a significantly different GC content (the proportion of bases that are G and A)convergent evolution. B)that the DNA sequence analysis is in error. C)a high rate of mutation. D)a low rate of mutation. E)lateral gene transfer. Q2) Why are transposable elements considered to be selfish genes? A)They produce products toxic to the host. B)They replicate outside of the chromosome. C)They replicate using the host's resources without direct benefit to the host. D)They spread rapidly throughout the genome. E)They produce products that prevent cooperation between cells. Q3) The mechanism for the spread of LINES involves some unusual features,including A)translation in the cytoplasm of an mRNA that was synthesized in the nucleus. B)the nuclear localization of RNA polymerase. C)the transport of mRNA from the cytoplasm to the nucleus. D)the use of an enzyme that cuts DNA. E)the use of RNA polymerase to transcribe an mRNA. To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 22


Chapter 21: Principles of Development Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 39 Verified Questions 39 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26852

Sample Questions Q1) Suppose the pair-rule genes were inactivated in Drosophila embryos.What is the likely result of the experiment? A)The embryos would develop normally. B)The embryos would lack several segments. C)The embryos would have impaired anterior-posterior polarity. D)The embryos would have missing alternate segments. Q2) The protein of the bicoid gene in Drosophila determines A)the anterior-posterior axis of the embryo. B)the ventral-lateral axis of the embryo. C)the medial-lateral axis of the embryo. D)the number of segments in the embryo. Q3) What types of changes in the regulation of development can lead to evolutionarily significant morphological changes? A)Changes in when developmental genes are expressed. B)Changes in where developmental genes are expressed. C)Changes in development are not evolutionarily significant. D)Both A and B are evolutionarily significant. To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

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Chapter 22: An Introduction to Animal Development Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 40 Verified Questions 40 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26853

Sample Questions Q1) Which of the following is the most basic process in the developing embryo because all of the other processes listed can occur only after or in conjunction with it? A)organogenesis B)cell differentiation C)mitosis D)morphogenesis E)germ layer formation Q2) In Xenopus embryos,which developmental sequence is correct? A)neurula,blastula,gastrula,cleavage B)cleavage,neurula,gastrula,blastula C)gastrula,neurula,cleavage,blastula D)cleavage,blastula,gastrula,neurula E)cleavage,gastrula,blastula,neurula Q3)

During

gastrulation,mesoderm

is

found

between

the

ectoderm

and

endoderm.The mesoderm gives rise to all of the following EXCEPT A)the skin epidermis. B)the circulatory system. C)the lining of the body cavity. D)the skeletal system. To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 24

the


Chapter 23: An Introduction to Plant Development Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 37 Verified Questions 37 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26854

Sample Questions Q1) In their study of the Madagascar lace plant,how did the researchers establish that the holes were formed through programmed cell death? A)They tested for apoptosis using the TUNEL assay. B)They found suberin around the margins of the holes. C)They found no nutrients in the cells forming the hole. D)They tested for a waxy substance that triggered programmed cell death. Q2) Many flowering plant species have elaborate mechanisms to prevent an individual's pollen from fertilizing its own egg cells.Why? A)to prevent inbreeding B)to prevent polyspermy C)to prevent cross-species fertilization and the production of dysfunctional hybrid offspring D)to prevent double fertilization and the formation of endosperm Q3) If the expression of the PHAN gene is blocked in plants,what will be the likely result? A)Plants will fail to develop leaves. B)Plants will develop more leaves than usual. C)Plants will develop leaves in very simple shapes. D)Plants will develop leaves in inappropriate places. To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 25


Chapter 24: Evolution by Natural Selection Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 42 Verified Questions 42 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26855

Sample Questions Q1) You sequence the genes that code for an important glycolytic enzyme in a moth,a mushroom,a worm,and an alga,and find a high degree of sequence similarity among these distantly related species.This is an example of A)structural homology. B)developmental homology. C)genetic homology. D)analogy/convergent evolution. Q2) Researchers have found fossils of Eocene horse species in Colorado.Deeper deposits contain smaller species,and more recent deposits contain larger species.How does this observation support the theory of evolution? A)It suggests that species are unchanging and of recent origin. B)It proves that environments have changed over time. C)It provides evidence that species change over time. D)It shows that all species are related to each other. E)It does not support the theory of evolution. Q3) Explain how one of the following supports the idea that species change through time:

artificial

selection,extinction,transitional

forms,vestigial

traits,or

antibiotic

resistance. To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 26


Chapter 25: Evolutionary Processes Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 50 Verified Questions 50 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26856

Sample Questions Q1) Currently the only predators of Galápagos marine iguanas are Galápagos hawks.Iguana body size is not correlated with risk of hawk predation,although small iguanas can sprint faster than large iguanas.If predators (e.g.,cats)that preferably catch and eat slower iguanas are introduced to the island,iguana body size is likely to ________ in the absence of other factors;the iguanas would then be under ________ selection. A)increase;directional B)increase;disruptive C)decrease;directional D)decrease;stabilizing E)stay the same;stabilizing Q2) Which of the following is FALSE with respect to natural selection and genetic drift? A)Both natural selection and genetic drift result in allele frequency changes. B)Both natural selection and genetic drift involve differences in fitness. C)Both natural selection and genetic drift require genetically inherited traits. Q3) A beneficial point mutation occurs in a plant ovule,which is fertilized.The seed matures,falls to the ground,and starts to grow.Is the plant's population likely to show evolutionary change as a result of this mutation? Why or why not? To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 27


Chapter 26: Speciation Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 41 Verified Questions 41 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26857

Sample Questions Q1) The two populations are A)different subspecies,under the morphospecies concept. B)different species,under the biological species concept. C)different species,under the phylogenetic species concept. D)All of the above. Q2) The snake family Typhlopidae consists of small,burrowing species with vestigial eyes.They are found in Australia,sub-Saharan Africa,India and some adjacent areas,and South America.What is the most likely explanation for this distribution? A)rafting to the different continents from the point of origin on one of these continents B)convergent evolution in the different regions C)origin on Gondwana followed by continental drift and some range expansion D)all of the above Q3) Which of the following does not tend to promote speciation? A)the founder effect B)gene flow C)natural selection D)polyploidy To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

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Chapter 27: Phylogenies and the History of Life Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 43 Verified Questions 43 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26858

Sample Questions Q1) Your professor wants you to construct a phylogenetic tree of orchids.She gives you tissue from seven orchid species and one lily.What is the most likely reason she gave you the lily? A)to serve as an out-group B)to see if it's a cryptic orchid species C)to see if the lily and the orchids show all the same shared derived characters (synapomorphies) D)to see if you were paying attention Q2) The graphs above show percentage of change in three different molecular sequences plotted against time.Which of these molecular sequences would make a good candidate for a molecular clock? A)Graph A,because the curve levels off over time B)Graph B,because DNA is more important to organisms and,therefore,will give a more accurate picture of divergence C)Graph C,because the change in sequence is the most rapid D)Graph A or C,because changes in amino acid sequence are more likely to be neutral than changes in DNA E)Graph B or C,because they are straight lines To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

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Chapter 28: Bacteria and Archaea Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 38 Verified Questions 38 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26859

Sample Questions Q1) What is the goal of bioremediation? A)Improve human health with the help of living organisms such as bacteria. B)Clean up areas polluted with toxic compounds by using bacteria. C)Improve soil quality for plant growth by using bacteria. D)Improve bacteria for production of useful chemicals. E)All of the above are correct. Q2) You might be interested to know how many different types of bacteria live on the shower curtain in your bathroom.What is the most efficient method for answering this question? A)enrichment culture B)direct sequencing C)Enrichment culture and direct sequencing are equally efficient methods. Q3) What do Bacteria have in common with Archaea but not with Eukarya? A)unicellular structure B)peptidoglycan cell walls C)transcription mechanism begins with formylmethionine D)absence of nucleus E)all of the above To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 30


Chapter 29: Protists Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 36 Verified Questions 36 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26860

Sample Questions Q1) Which of the following statements best describes the term synapomorphy? A)A trait that is shared by more than one monophyletic group. B)A trait common in a single monophyletic group,but not generally found outside of that group. C)The state of having several traits in common with different monophyletic groups. D)A trait that evolved in several different monophyletic groups simultaneously. Q2) Which of the following groups is matched with an incorrect anatomical feature? A)foraminifera → tests with holes B)dinoflagellata → two flagella C)oomycota → apical complex D)diatoms → silicon-rich tests E)phaeophyta → exclusively multicellular Q3) What is the major distinguishing feature of Amoebozoa? A)Cells have chloroplasts with a double membrane. B)Cells lack cell walls and so,when portions of the cell extend for movement,large lobes are formed. C) Cells lack cell walls and so,when portions of the cell extend for movement,they are slender in shape. D)Cells have pronounced "feeding grooves" for digesting prey or organic debris. To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 31


Chapter 30: Green Algae and Land Plants Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 54 Verified Questions 54 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26861

Sample Questions Q1) Which is the most diverse group of land plants? A)angiosperms B)pines C)gymnosperms D)ferns Q2) Which of the following possess stomata? A)Ulvophyceae B)Hepaticophyta C)Charaphyaceae D)Anthocerophyta E)All of these answers apply. Q3) Molecular phylogenies show all land plants are a monophyletic group.This suggests that A)there were many different transitions from aquatic to terrestrial habitats. B)wind-pollinated plants arose first. C)land plants have undergone a diversification since they first colonized terrestrial habitats. D)there was a single transition from aquatic to terrestrial habitats. To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 32


Chapter 31: Fungi Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 40 Verified Questions 40 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26862

Sample Questions Q1) Which of the following is an important role for fungi in the carbon cycle? A)Fungi help release fixed carbon back to the environment for other plants and photosynthetic organisms to utilize. B)One of fungi's main roles is to provide already fixed carbon to plants that the plants then use for the production of cellular tissues. C)Fungi get involved in the fixation of carbon by undergoing photosynthesis. D)All of the above are important roles for fungi. Q2) Using grams of biomass as an indicator of abundance,which species is most likely the dominant species in this ecosystem (see Figure 31.5)? A)Bromus erectus B)Carax flacca C)Sanguisorba officinalis D)Centaurium erythrea Q3) Looking at Figure 31.1,draw a new graph that plots the percentage of plant species in the fossil pollen and spore record,and write a figure legend comparing it to the original figure. To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

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Chapter 32: An Introduction to Animals Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 42 Verified Questions 42 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26863

Sample Questions Q1) As you are on the way to Tahiti for a vacation,your plane crash-lands on a previously undiscovered island.You soon find that the island is teeming with unfamiliar organisms and,as a student of biology,you decide to survey them (with the aid of the Insta-Lab Portable Laboratory you brought along in your suitcase).You select three organisms and observe them in detail,making the notations found in Figure 32.1. Which organism would you classify as an animal? A)organism A B)organism B C)organism C Q2) Which one of the following objects most closely resembles the pattern of the tube-within-a-tube body plan? A)a bowling ball (with finger holes drilled) B)a pipe with a straw inside C)a cup with a straw in it D)a soda can with the tab removed Q3) In a habitat with only one abundant food source,which type of metamorphosis would you expect an animal species to undergo? A)holometabolous metamorphosis B)hemimetabolous metamorphosis To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 34


Chapter 33: Protostome Animals Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 38 Verified Questions 38 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26864

Sample Questions Q1) As stated in the text,"DNA sequence data indicated that two major subgroups existed within the protostomes." This finding contradicts the long-held hypothesis that the protostomes are a monophyletic group. A)True B)False Q2) How would a terrestrial centipede most likely benefit from the ability to close its spiracles? A)Closing spiracles would allow the centipede to move more quickly. B)Closing spiracles would allow the centipede to retain more moisture in its tissues. C)Closing spiracles would allow the centipede to stay warmer. D)Closing spiracles would allow more oxygen from the environment to reach the centipede's tissues. E)The centipede would not benefit at all. Q3) The common ancestor of the protostomes had a coelom.What does this suggest? A)All lophotrochozoans have a coelom. B)There are no pseudocoelomates within the protostomes. C)There are no acoelomates within the protostomes. D)None of the above answers apply. To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 35


Chapter 34: Deuterostome Animals Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 43 Verified Questions 43 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26865

Sample Questions Q1) The discovery of Microraptor gui is significant in evolutionary biology because it strengthened which one of the following hypotheses? A)Vertebrates were the first group to develop a jaw. B)An asteroid impact caused the extinction of dinosaurs. C)The echinoderm endoskeleton is a trait that identifies them as a monophyletic group. D)The

three

phyla-Echinodermata,Xenoturbellida,and

Hemichordata-form

monophyletic group. E)Birds evolved from a dinosaur ancestor. Q2) In what respect do humans differ from all other anthropoids? A)lack of a tail B)eyes on the front of the face C)bipedal posture D)opposable thumbs E)diurnal activity Q3) In an amniotic egg,where is the embryo found? A)just inside the outer shell or membrane B)just outside the membrane containing the albumen C)directly within the albumen D)inside the amnion To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 36

a


Chapter 35: Viruses Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 35 Verified Questions 35 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26866

Sample Questions Q1) If a viral host cell has a mutation that interferes with the addition of carbohydrates to proteins in the Golgi,which of the following could likely result? A)The viral envelope proteins will not be glycosylated and may not arrive at the host plasma membrane. B)The viral capsid proteins will not be glycosylated and may not arrive at the host plasma membrane. C)The viral core proteins will not be glycosylated and may not arrive at the host plasma membrane. D)None of the above will happen. Q2) As obligate intracellular parasites,viruses have which of these characteristics? A)After entering a cell,they manufacture their own ATP and carbon-containing compounds,like proteins and nucleic acids,in order to survive. B)After entering a cell,they use the host cell's machinery to make more copies of themselves using host proteins. C)After entering a cell,they use their own protein-synthesizing machinery to make more viral proteins that are used to assemble more copies of themselves. To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

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Chapter 36: Plant Form and Function Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 36 Verified Questions 36 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26867

Sample Questions Q1) Which of these is not an example of a parenchyma cell? A)stem cells that form a callus in the making of cuttings B)cells that can form clones in tissue culture of plants C)support cells near the outside of nonwoody stems D)edible cells in fruits and vegetables E)tissue in leaves that photosynthesizes Q2) What part of the root is responsible for water and nutrient absorption? A)root cap B)mucigel C)zone of cellular division D)zone of cellular elongation E)zone of cellular maturation Q3) The most effective way to kill a tree is to remove a ring of bark from the circumference.Why does the tree die? A)No water can be transported from the roots to the leaves. B)No water can be transported from the leaves to the roots. C)No sugars can be transported from the leaves to the roots. D)Both water and sugars are prevented from being transported. Q4) Explain why it is possible for big old hollow trees to live and grow for many years,still producing green leaves. Page 38 To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.


Chapter 37: Water and Sugar Transport in Plants Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 42 Verified Questions 42 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26868

Sample Questions Q1) Which of the following statements about phloem unloading at sinks is not consistent with our current understanding? A)Passive transport plays a role. B)Regardless of the type of sink,the conversion of sucrose to storage compounds,such as starch,is a major part of the process. C)The mechanisms of sucrose movement and the membrane proteins involved vary among different plant species. D)The mechanisms of sucrose movement and the membrane proteins involved vary among different sinks within a plant. E)Active transport plays a role. Q2) How does a flaccid cell differ from a turgid cell? A)Flaccid cell has higher pressure potential. B)Flaccid cell has lower pressure potential. C)Flaccid cell has higher solute potential. D)Flaccid cell has lower solute potential. To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

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Chapter 38: Plant Nutrition Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 37 Verified Questions 37 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26869

Sample Questions Q1) Give two reasons that relatively few plants thrive in bogs. Q2) Iron shortage is the most common human nutritional deficiency in the world.Plants are the major source of iron in most diets,so researchers are interested in understanding their mechanism of iron intake and in developing iron-rich crops.Recently,researchers showed (Vert et al.,IRT1,an Arabidopsis transporter essential for iron uptake from the soil and for plant growth.Plant Cell 14 [2002]:1223-33)that under iron-deficient conditions,the IRT1 gene is responsible for most of the iron uptake activity in roots.To demonstrate the importance of IRT1 for iron accumulation,researchers measured leaf iron content in irt1-1 mutants containing deactivated IRT1.Mutant plants were grown in iron-poor soil (irt1-1 in graph)and soil rich with iron (irt1-1 +Fe in graph).Wild-type (WT)plants grown in iron-poor soil were used as a control.Which of the graphs represent the data researchers might have received in their experiment? A) A B) B C) C D) D To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

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Chapter 39: Plant Sensory Systems, signals, and Responses Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 65 Verified Questions 65 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26870

Sample Questions Q1) Figure 39.3 is a Northern blot showing the expression of Myb mRNA in cultured aleurone layer cells that were treated with gibberellin versus control cells that were not treated with gibberellin.Only the gibberellin-treated cells expressed the Myb mRNA,but the Myb mRNA was not detectable until 6-12 hours after gibberellin application.Why did it take so long? A)Gibberellin had to bind to a receptor and initiate a signal transduction cascade that,in turn,had to activate a transcription factor that triggered the transcription of the Myb gene. B)Gibberellin had to diffuse into the aleurone layer cells and be metabolized in order to trigger activation of a transcription factor that triggered transcription of the Myb gene. C)Gibberellin had to enter the cells and find the Myb gene among the large plant genome. Q2) Why would the researchers study the association between cell death,nitric oxide,and reactive oxygen intermediates? A)to gain insight into how R genes are inherited B)to gain insight into how R proteins recognize avr proteins C)to gain insight into what happens after R-avr protein binding D)to gain insight into how pathogens kill plant cells To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

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Chapter 40: Plant Reproduction Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 41 Verified Questions 41 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26871

Sample Questions Q1) A summer occupation in the Corn Belt states is de-tasseling the corn: removing unwanted male flowers so that female flowers on the same plant are pollinated by the desired pollen for the hybrid corn.What does this tell you about corn? A)The flowers are perfect and the plant is dioecious. B)The flowers are perfect and the plant is monoecious. C)The flowers are imperfect and the plant is dioecious. D)The flowers are imperfect and the plant is monoecious. Q2) Home flower gardeners in northern latitudes like to grow plants that flower only in the spring or flower only in the late summer and fall.They are planting flowers that are most sensitive to A)their summer vacation schedule. B)night length. C)temperature differences. D)the watering schedule. E)fertilizer applications. Q3) Plants in crop fields such as corn are genetically very similar.What are benefits of this phenomenon? What are pitfalls of that phenomenon? To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

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Chapter 41: Animal Form and Function Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 38 Verified Questions 38 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26872

Sample Questions Q1) You begin exercising vigorously.This will,in a short time,cause your blood pH to begin dropping due to the release of carbon dioxide into your bloodstream.Which component of your homeostatic feedback system is responsible for deciding if your blood pH is far enough from normal that a response is necessary? A)effector B)sensor C)integrator D)assimilator Q2) Epithelial tissues have polarity,with an apical side that faces the environment and a basolateral side that faces the interior of the animal.Because of the harsh environmental exposure on the apical side,epithelial cells have a short life span of 2-6 days.Which of the following is the most likely reason that the tissue as a whole does not wear away,despite the short life spans of the cells? A)The epithelial tissue is unusually thick. B)The degraded tissue is recycled and restored to its original site. C)The tissue has cells that actively undergo mitosis and cytokinesis to replace the lost cells. D)New cells are transported in the blood to the site where old cells have worn away. To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

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Chapter 42: Water and Electrolyte Balance in Animals Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 41 Verified Questions 41 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26873

Sample Questions Q1) Where does filtration take place in the figure above? Q2) What role do chloride cells play in osmoregulation of marine fish with bony skeletons? A)They actively transport chloride into the gills. B)They mediate the movement of salt from seawater through their gills. C)They are involved in excretion of excess salt. D)They actively transport salt across the basolateral membrane of the rectal gland. Q3) Malpighian tubules form pre-urine,which is further processed by which of the following anatomical structures? A)hindgut B)hemolymph C)rectal gland D)chloride cells Q4) Which of the following affects the osmolarity of a solution? A)glucose concentration B)water concentration C)salt concentration D)all of the above To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 44


Chapter 43: Animal Nutrition Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 43 Verified Questions 43 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26874

Sample Questions Q1) What is the importance of the mucins that are released by salivary glands? A)They aid in degradation of triglycerides to fatty acids and monoglycerides. B)They are beginning the process of starch digestion. C)They are hormonal molecules that stimulate the release of gastric juice by the stomach in anticipation of receipt of the contents of the mouth. D)They are glycoproteins that make food slippery enough to slide easily through the esophagus. Q2) If there is a strong genetic link for type II diabetes mellitus in your family,how might you minimize your risk of developing the disorder? A)Monitor your blood glucose levels daily. B)Take oral insulin daily. C)Diet and exercise. D)Eat carbohydrates like starch instead of sweets. Q3) Protein digestion begins where? A)in the mouth B)in the stomach C)in the small intestine D)in the bloodstream To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 45


Chapter 44: Gas Exchange and Circulation Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 46 Verified Questions 46 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26875

Sample Questions Q1) Which of the following functions is not a function of insect hemolymph? A)transport of hormones B)transport of wastes C)transport of carbon dioxide D)transport of cells involved in the immune response Q2) When you are jogging,your muscles are using more oxygen and releasing more carbon dioxide into the blood than when you are at home on the couch.Which of the following would occur during your jog? A)Blood pH would increase by at least 1 pH unit. B)The concentration of bicarbonate ions (HCO₃⁻)in the blood would decrease. C)The medullary respiratory center would increase the rate of breathing. D)All of the above answers apply. Q3) Which of the following best describes the process of ventilation? A)the movement of oxygen gas through the blood of the circulatory system B)the movement of carbon dioxide gas through the blood of the circulatory system C)the movement of air through lungs or gills D)the diffusion of gases into and out of the circulatory system E)the diffusion of gases into and out of tissues where cellular respiration occurs To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 46


Chapter 45: Electrical Signals in Animals Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 40 Verified Questions 40 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26876

Sample Questions Q1) Where are the sodium channels that trigger an action potential located? A)axon hillock B)axon dendrite C)axon terminal D)axon cell body Q2) Which letter on Figure 45.1 corresponds to the action of the sodium-potassium pump and potassium leak channels? A)A B)B C)C D)D E)E Q3)

Tetrodotoxin

blocks

voltage-gated

sodium

channels

and

ouabain

blocks

sodium-potassium pumps.If you added both tetrodotoxin and ouabain to a solution containing neural tissue,what responses would you expect? A)immediate loss of resting potential B)immediate loss of action potential with gradual loss of resting potential C)slow decrease of resting potential and action potential amplitudes D)no effect;the substances counteract each other To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 47


Chapter 46: Animal Sensory Systems and Movement Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 43 Verified Questions 43 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26877

Sample Questions Q1) Rhodopsins are light-sensitive molecules composed of a protein (opsin)and a pigment (retinal).The opsin portion of rhodopsin is an example of a A)peripheral protein. B)monotopic integral membrane protein. C)polytopic integral membrane protein. D)phospholipid. Q2) When a doctor tests your patellar reflex by tapping the tendon on the front of your knee,your lower leg comes forward.Which muscle is activated in this reflex? A)hamstring (located in the back of your thigh) B)quadriceps (located in the front of your thigh) Q3) What effect would this conotoxin have on the prey? A)It would cause muscle spasms in the prey. B)It would result in paralysis of the skeletal muscle. C)It would stimulate digestive tract smooth muscle to cause nausea and vomiting. D)Either B or C,or both B and C. Q4) Acidic amino acids will taste sour. A)true B)false To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 48


Chapter 47: Chemical Signals in Animals Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 38 Verified Questions 38 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26878

Sample Questions Q1) What changes might you predict/expect if a mutation caused a change in the timing of juvenile hormone,such that it remained high throughout the lifetime of the organism? A)The organism would undergo metamorphosis at an earlier time. B)The organism would maintain its juvenile state for the remainder of its life. C)The organism would mature reproductively. D)The organism would form structures that allowed it to respond to stress. Q2) All of the following are examples of amplification of a hormone signal EXCEPT A)epinephrine initiates an enzyme cascade. B)steroids bind hormone-response elements in the cell and initiate gene transcription. C)0)09 mg of growth hormone leads to a 10,000-mg weight gain in a cow. D)different cell types have different receptors capable of binding the same hormone. Q3) Which of the following is not considered a second messenger? A)cAMP B)IP3 C)norepinephrine D)DAG To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

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Chapter 48: Animal Reproduction Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 39 Verified Questions 39 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26879

Sample Questions Q1) Why has RU-486 been dubbed by some as "the abortion pill"? A)It prevents the zygote from implanting in the uterus,thus the zygote never develops beyond a few cells in size. B)It blocks certain hormonal actions that result in menstrual flow occurring after implantation. C)It mimics testosterone,which interferes with GnRH synthesis and thus terminates the pregnancy after several days. D)A negative feedback on the pituitary stimulates the release of too much luteinizing hormone that prevents proper blood vessel formation in the embryo. Q2) Which of the following hormones would you use if you want to induce ovulation right away? A)estradiol (estrogen) B)progesterone C)luteinizing hormones (LH) D)human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) Q3) All vertebrates rely exclusively on sexual reproduction. A)true B)false To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 50


Chapter 49: The Immune System in Animals Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 38 Verified Questions 38 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26880

Sample Questions Q1) Which of the following is true of the humoral immune response and NOT true of the cell-mediated immune response? A)involves T cells at some level B)require CD8⁺ cells for activation C)involves destroying entire cells and not just the pathogen D)uses antibodies as its main weapon E)All of these answers are true of the humoral immune response and not true of the cell-mediated immune response. Q2) You and a friend are in line for a movie when you notice the woman in front of you sneezing and coughing.Both of you have been equally exposed to the woman's virus,but over the next few days,only your friend acquires flu-like symptoms and is ill for almost a week before recovering.Which one of the following is a logical explanation for this? A)You have an innate immunity to that virus. B)You have an acquired immunity to that virus. C)Your friend does not have the ability to fight off that particular virus. D)Answers B and C are both correct. To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

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Chapter 50: An Introduction to Ecology Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 41 Verified Questions 41 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26881

Sample Questions Q1) Which of the following statements regarding temperate grasslands is false? A)Prairie fires can result from lightening strikes. B)Grassland soils are not very fertile. C)Grasslands are lower in productivity than tropical forest communities. D)Grasslands have too little precipitation to support tree growth. Q2) Which abiotic factor would have the most significant physiological effect on migrating salmon? A)water solute content B)competition for resources C)water temperature D)human-built structural interferences Q3) What is the main difference between climate and weather? A)Weather typically describes a larger area than climate. B)Climate typically describes longer-term conditions. C)Climate typically describes shorter-term conditions. D)Weather includes temperature and climate does not. To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

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Chapter 51: Behavioural Ecology Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 39 Verified Questions 39 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26882

Sample Questions Q1) Homing pigeons' ability to always return to their home,no matter where they are released,is an excellent example of A)piloting. B)compass orientation. C)true navigation. D)all of the above. Q2) You observe that by flashing a small light in a particular sequence,you can attract male fireflies of a certain species.You begin to think how this signal may be used against these males.Which of the hypotheses seems to be the most logical? A)This particular signal will be used commonly by other firefly species as a way to lure males and prey on them. B)This particular signal will be used only by this species of firefly. C)This particular signal will be used widely by males of this species in territorial disputes. D)This particular signal will be used rarely by other firefly species as a way to lure males and prey on them. To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

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Chapter 52: Population Ecology Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 49 Verified Questions 49 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26883

Sample Questions Q1) The definition of a generation is A)20 years. B)the average time between a mother's first offspring and her daughter's first offspring. C)the average time between a father's first offspring and his son's first offspring. D)the average time between parents' first offspring and their child's first offspring. Q2) A model that estimates the likelihood that a population will avoid extinction for a given period of time is called a(n) A)metapopulation. B)population viability analysis. C)age pyramid. D)life table. Q3) What conclusion can you draw from the figure above? A)Hares control lynx population size. B)Lynx control hare population size. C)Lynx and hare populations are independent of each other. D)The relationship between the populations cannot be determined from this graph. To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

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Chapter 53: Community Ecology Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 39 Verified Questions 39 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26884

Sample Questions Q1) What is the term used to describe the process shown in the panels in the figure above? A)competition B)species interaction C)niche differentiation D)niche realization Q2) Some birds follow moving swarms of army ants in the tropics.As the ants march along the forest floor hunting insects and small vertebrates,birds follow and pick off any insects or small vertebrates that fly or jump out of the way of the ants.This is an example of what kind of species interaction? A)competition B)consumption C)commensalism D)parasitism E)mutualism Q3) According to Figure 53.11,a species has the highest chance of extinction when A)the island is large and close to the mainland. B)the island is small and close to the mainland. C)the island is large and remote. D)the island is small and remote. To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 55


Chapter 54: Ecosystems Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 41 Verified Questions 41 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26885

Sample Questions Q1) Which of the following could be a cause of eutrophication? A)adding a large amount of a limiting resource to an aquatic ecosystem B)adding a large amount of a limiting resource to a terrestrial ecosystem C)removing a limiting resource from an aquatic ecosystem D)removing a limiting resource from a terrestrial ecosystem Q2) Which category in the figure above makes available the highest productivity per square meter? A)tropical wet forest B)open ocean C)algal beds and reefs D)wetlands Q3) From which one of the following environmental issues have we not documented either a slowdown,partial,or significant recovery? A)phosphate pollution B)global warming C)acid rain D)ozone hole Q4) How are the components in the figure above linked by the flow of energy? To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 56


Chapter 55: Biodiversity and Conservation Biology Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper 38 Verified Questions 38 Flashcards Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/26886

Sample Questions Q1) By knowing the interrelatedness of various snake species,the type of antivenom can be chosen depending on the species involved in the bite.Based on Figure 55.2,which snake antivenom would you administer to a person bitten by an Australian copperhead? A)taipan B)common brown snake C)red-bellied black snake D)death adder E)tiger snake Q2) Based on Figure 55.9,what can you conclude about land-use legacy in New England? A)Population growth has increasingly devastated the forests. B)A spike in lake sediments caused massive deforestation due to loss of soil nutrients. C)Sediment spikes correlate with massive population growth. D)Lake sediments reflect deforestation and despite reforestation,do not recover. E)All of the above answers apply. To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

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