Biology for Non-Majors Exam Review
Course Introduction
Biology for Non-Majors offers an introduction to the fundamental principles and concepts of biological science for students not pursuing a degree in biology or related fields. The course covers key topics such as cell structure and function, genetics, evolution, ecology, and the diversity of life. Emphasis is placed on understanding how biological processes influence everyday life and current issues such as health, the environment, and biotechnology. Through lectures, discussions, and hands-on activities, students develop scientific literacy and critical thinking skills necessary to make informed decisions about biological topics in modern society.
Recommended Textbook
Campbell Essential Biology with Physiology 4th Edition by Eric J. Simon
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29 Chapters
1325 Verified Questions
1325 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Introduction- Biology Today
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the two main processes that ecosystems depend upon?
A) speciation and evolution
B) nutrient recycling and energy flow
C) decomposition and nutrient recycling
D) sunlight and photosynthesis
Answer: B
Q2) What is a gene?
A) a type of eukaryotic cell
B) an organelle that houses DNA
C) a type of prokaryotic cell
D) a unit of inheritance
Answer: D
Q3) Which of these would be a valid hypothesis?
A) Human history is determined by a series of supernatural events.
B) Humans should help in the conservation of other animal species.
C) Humans are controlled by forces beyond our understanding.
D) Humans and bacteria share a common genetic code.
Answer: D
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3
Chapter 2: Essential Chemistry for Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) How do radioactive isotopes differ from isotopes?
A) Radioactive isotopes have more neutrons than do isotopes.
B) Radioactive isotopes are stable; isotopes are unstable.
C) Radioactive isotopes have fewer neutrons than do isotopes.
D) Radioactive isotopes are unstable; isotopes are stable.
Answer: D
Q2) As water freezes,______.
A) its molecules move farther apart
B) it cools the surrounding environment
C) its hydrogen bonds break apart
D) it loses its polarity
Answer: A
Q3) Human body cells are approximately ______ water.
A) 95-99%
B) 25-35%
C) 50-55%
D) 70-95%
Answer: D
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4
Chapter 3: The Molecules of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) ______ is a hydroxyl group.
A) -NH<sub>2</sub>
B) -OH
C) -COOH
D) -H
Answer: B
Q2) Animals store carbohydrates as ______.
A) cellulose
B) glycogen
C) starch
D) maltose
Answer: B
Q3) Which of the following is hydrophilic?
A) cellulose
B) testosterone
C) butter
D) cholesterol
Answer: A
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Page 5
Chapter 4: A Tour of the Cell
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Q1) Plant cells,unlike animal cells,are characterized by the presence of a ______.
A) cell wall and contractile vacuole
B) cell wall and central vacuole
C) nucleus and cell wall
D) nucleus and contractile vacuole
Q2) Which of the following is a characteristic of chloroplasts that suggests that they might have evolved from free-living bacteria?
A) Chloroplasts have cell walls.
B) Chloroplasts contain pigments.
C) Chloroplasts have their own DNA.
D) A single, highly folded plasma membrane surrounds chloroplasts.
Q3) Which of the following is an adaptation to increase the surface area of a part of a cell that is involved in cellular respiration?
A) the cristae of a mitochondrion
B) the outer membrane of a chloroplast
C) the grana of a chloroplast
D) the endoplasmic reticulum
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Chapter 5: The Working Cell
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a measure of randomness in a system?
A) entropy
B) kinetic energy
C) potential energy
D) chemical energy
Q2) Relaying a message from a receptor protein to a molecule that performs a specific function within a cell is called ______.
A) signal transduction
B) inhibition
C) self-recognition
D) selective permeability
Q3) The amount of dietary Calories in one hard-boiled egg could raise the temperature of ______.
A) 75 grams of water by 1 degree Celsius
B) 750 grams of water by 1 degree Celsius
C) 1,000 grams of water by 75 degrees Celsius
D) 7,500 grams of water by 50 degrees Celsius
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Chapter 6: Cellular Respiration: Obtaining Energy from Food
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Q1) Which of these equations describes aerobic cellular respiration?
A) glucose lactic acid + energy
B) energy + carbon dioxide + water glucose + oxygen + water
C) glucose + oxygen carbon dioxide + water + energy
D) none of the above
Q2) Plants use photosynthesis to
A) store chemical energy, and they use cellular respiration to harvest energy.
B) store as well as harvest chemical energy.
C) harvest energy, and they use cellular respiration to store chemical energy.
D) obtain carbon dioxide.
Q3) A child is born with a rare disease in which mitochondria are missing from certain skeletal muscle cells.Physicians find that the muscle cells function.Not surprisingly,they also find that ______.
A) the muscles contain large amounts of lactic acid following even mild physical exercise
B) the muscles contain large amounts of carbon dioxide following even mild physical exercise
C) the muscles require extremely high levels of oxygen to function
D) the muscle cells cannot split glucose to pyruvic acid
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Photosynthesis: Using Light to Make Food
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Q1) The last stage of one complete turn of the Calvin cycle involves ______.
A) G3P production
B) oxidation of CO<sub>2</sub>
C) regeneration of RuBP
D) sugar production
Q2) In photosynthesis,an H<sup>+</sup> ion gradient forms across the ______.
A) thylakoid membrane
B) outer chloroplast membrane
C) endomembrane
D) inner chloroplast membrane
Q3) What name is given to a discrete packet of light?
A) phaser
B) wavelength
C) photon
D) quantum
Q4) The first step of the Calvin cycle is the incorporation of ______ into ______.
A) O<sub>2</sub>... G3P
B) RuBP... O<sub>2</sub>
C) CO<sub>2</sub>... RuBP
D) G3P... RuBP
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Cellular Reproduction: Cells from Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many chromosomes does an individual with Turner syndrome have?
A) 2n + 1
B) n + 1
C) 2n - 1
D) n - 1
Q2) Which of the following occurs during prophase?
A) Chromosomes line up on the midline of the cell.
B) The nuclear envelope forms.
C) Sister chromatids separate.
D) The mitotic spindle begins to form.
Q3) A cell that completed the cell cycle without undergoing cytokinesis would ______.
A) have less genetic material than it started with
B) not have completed anaphase
C) have its chromosomes lined up in the middle of the cell
D) have two nuclei
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10
Chapter 9: Patterns of Inheritance
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Q1) A mating between a purebred purple-flowered pea plant and a purebred white-flowered pea plant would produce a(n)______.
A) purebred variety
B) hybrid
C) P generation
D) F<sub>2</sub> generation
Q2) What would genetic counselors say is the probability that the second child will have the disease?
A) 1/2
B) 1/4
C) 1/8
D) 1/16
Q3) In humans,the inheritance of ______ is best explained as being polygenic.
A) cystic fibrosis
B) height
C) blood type
D) sickle-cell disease
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11
Chapter 10: The Structure and Function of DNA
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Sample Questions
Q1) The backbone of DNA consists of ______.
A) nitrogenous bases
B) a repeating sugar-nucleotide-sugar-nucleotide pattern
C) a repeating sugar-phosphate-sugar-phosphate pattern
D) paired nucleotides
Q2) How can bacteriophage DNA be spread from cell to cell without causing cell death?
A) by altering the way a cell splices its RNA
B) via a lytic cycle
C) via a lysogenic cycle
D) by altering its DNA
Q3) Once viruses are detected,the number of viruses increases rapidly.This is because ______.
A) lysogeny produces large numbers of bacteriophages
B) DNA viruses reproduce more rapidly than RNA viruses
C) the host cell speeds the release process
D) the viruses lyse the hosts to release mature viruses all at once
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12
Chapter 11: How Genes Are Controlled
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Q1) Which of these is a type of post-transcriptional regulation of gene expression?
A) inactivation of tRNA
B) alteration of DNA nucleotide sequences
C) alteration of proteins
D) binding of transcription factors to enhancers
Q2) How can a single RNA transcript be translated into different polypeptides?
A) There is more than one way to splice an RNA transcript.
B) There is more than one way to modify the coded polypeptide.
C) The length of its tail can vary.
D) Two different genes can produce the same RNA transcript, which will then be translated differently.
Q3) More people die of ______ cancer than of any other cancer.
A) lung
B) skin
C) pancreatic
D) breast
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Chapter 12: DNA Technology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following best defines the term transgenic organism?
A) an organism that is the first of its kind to bear a particular allele
B) an organism in which a genetic defect has been corrected using recombinant DNA therapy
C) an organism containing a gene from another species
D) an organism containing genes from three or more species
Q2) You can use this DNA fingerprinting information to make a judgment about maternity because ______.
A) the shade of DNA bands will differ
B) both mother and daughter contain only X chromosomes
C) of the position of the bands in the gel
D) of the size of the bands
Q3) Which of these can act as a vector to introduce new genes into a cell?
A) humulin
B) GM
C) PCR
D) plasmids
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Chapter 13: How Populations Evolve
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is likely to be the result of polygenic inheritance?
A) freckles
B) an extra finger
C) human height
D) ABO blood type
Q2) In The Origin of Species,Darwin argued that the mechanism of descent with modification was _____.
A) artificial selection
B) natural selection
C) inheritance of acquired characteristics
D) uniformitarianism
Q3) Which one of the following statements is true?
A) Natural selection works on variation already present in a population.
B) Natural selection works on non-heritable traits.
C) Individuals evolve through natural selection.
D) Organisms evolve structures that they need.
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Chapter 14: How Biological Diversity Evolves
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Sample Questions
Q1) Plate tectonics has been responsible for instances of all of the following except
A) volcanic explosions.
B) sympatric speciation.
C) allopatric speciation.
D) mass extinction.
Q2) The biological species concept cannot be applied to ______.
A) fungi that live on land
B) bacteria that only reproduce asexually
C) complex plants that have flowers
D) animals that use asexual and sexual reproduction
Q3) Biological species consist of groups of ______.
A) populations
B) domains
C) families
D) genera
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16
Chapter 15: The Evolution of Microbial Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a colonial form of green algae?
A) Volvox
B) Giardia
C) Paramecium
D) Plasmodium
Q2) Which of the following include the two classes of poisons produced by pathogenic bacteria?
A) exotoxins and endotoxins
B) chemoautotrophs and chemoheterotrophs
C) protozoans and fungi
D) bacilli and cocci
Q3) You discover a prokaryote that can make its own food in the absence of light. Nutritionally,you would classify this prokaryote as a ______.
A) chemoautotroph
B) photoheterotroph
C) photoautotroph
D) chemoheterotroph
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Chapter 16: Plants, Fungi, and the Move onto Land
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Sample Questions
Q1) The function of a mushroom is to _____.
A) produce seeds
B) store nutrients
C) produce spores
D) absorb food
Q2) Nearly all food plants are as ______.
A) bryophytes
B) gymnosperms
C) ferns
D) angiosperms
Q3) Exploring in the tropics,you discover a nonvascular plant that produces pollen.What type of plant have you discovered?
A) an angiosperm
B) a fern
C) a bryophyte
D) an entirely new type that you will get to name
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Chapter 17: The Evolution of Animals
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is a feature of birds that makes them valuable as biological indicators?
A) Many migrate long distances.
B) Many are brightly colored.
C) There are over 10,000 different species of birds.
D) Birdwatching is a popular hobby.
Q2) Nearly all ______ are aquatic.
A) crustaceans
B) arachnids
C) flatworms
D) roundworms
Q3) The arthropod skeleton is composed of ______.
A) cellulose
B) peptidoglycan
C) chitin
D) glycogen
Q4) The first hominid to spread beyond Africa was ______.
A) "Lucy"
B) Australopithecus afarensis
C) Homo erectus
D) Homo neanderthalensis
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are estuaries?
A) a type of freshwater biome
B) areas near the start of a river
C) regions where ocean meets land
D) a transition area between a river and the ocean
Q2) Water-storing plants and deeply-rooted shrubs are plants that characterize ______.
A) tropical forests
B) chaparral
C) deserts
D) savanna
Q3) With regard to the environment as a whole,when is the worst time to apply pesticide to your lawn?
A) when it is raining, or is about to rain
B) when it is cold, or is about to get cold
C) at the same time you apply fertilizer
D) at night
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Chapter 19: Population Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Competition among individuals of the same species is ______ competition.
A) extraspecific
B) intraspecific
C) interspecific
D) endospecific
Q2) The virus introduced to the island in 1982 that reduced the wolf population is an example of ______.
A) a density-independent factor
B) a density-dependent factor
C) acclimation
D) intraspecific competition
Q3) Which of these best describes Type II survivorship?
A) high survivorship for the very young
B) most individuals survive to older age intervals
C) survivorship is constant over the lifespan
D) survivorship is high for the few individuals that survive to a certain age
Q4) Which population is growing at the fastest rate?
A) Population A
B) Population B
C) Population C
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Chapter 20: Communities and Ecosystems
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Q1) Which type of ecosystem has low production but nonetheless contributes a large proportion of Earth's total net primary production?
A) tropical rain forest
B) coral reef
C) open ocean
D) desert
Q2) The primary goal of conservation biology is to ______.
A) catalog species
B) maximize the land set aside for wildlife
C) integrate human culture back into nature
D) counter the loss of biodiversity
Q3) Herbivory is an example of a _____ interaction.
A) +/+
B) -/-
C) 0/+
D) +/-
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Chapter 21: Unifying Concepts of Animal Structure and Function
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Q1) The fact that every organism continuously exchanges chemicals and energy with its surroundings indicates that organisms ______.
A) are open systems
B) are closed systems
C) maintain homeostasis
D) osmoregulate
Q2) A diuretic is a substance that ______.
A) promotes sweating
B) regulates the contraction of cardiac muscle
C) inhibits urinary water loss
D) promotes urinary water loss
Q3) Most homeostatic mechanisms depend on ______.
A) positive and negative feedback
B) negative feedback
C) predictable environmental conditions
D) predictable internal conditions
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Chapter 22: Nutrition and Digestion
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Q1) Someone with liver failure will,in particular,have problems with the digestion and absorption of ______.
A) minerals
B) fats
C) carbohydrates
D) proteins
Q2) A food ball moves through the esophagus by ______.
A) peristalsis
B) segmentation
C) mastication
D) regurgitation
Q3) The main function of salivary amylase is to ______.
A) moisten food
B) break down proteins
C) absorb nutrients
D) break down starch
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Circulation and Respiration
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Q1) In animals with a closed circulatory system,gas exchange occurs across the thin walls of ______.
A) arteries
B) arterioles
C) capillaries
D) venules
Q2) The ______ provide(s)a common passageway for both food and air.
A) bronchioles
B) trachea
C) pharynx
D) alveoli
Q3) In the human respiratory system,gas exchange occurs across the cells of the ______.
A) diaphragm
B) trachea
C) bronchi
D) alveoli
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Chapter 24: The Body's Defenses
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Q1) Which of the following cell types initiates a secondary immune response?
A) natural killer cells
B) memory cells
C) effector cells
D) plasma cells
Q2) A major function of natural killer cells is to ______.
A) attack and kill pathogenic microorganisms
B) attack virus-infected cells
C) tag pathogenic microorganisms with antibodies
D) phagocytize microorganisms that have been tagged with antibodies
Q3) A primary immune response is the ______.
A) production of primary-type antibodies in the first day of exposure to a microorganism
B) immune response elicited by the primary antigen of a disease-causing microorganism
C) immune response elicited by the first exposure of lymphocytes to a particular antigen
D) immune response elicited by the first exposure of memory cells to a particular antigen
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Chapter 25: Hormones
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Q1) Osteoporosis could be caused by overactivity of ______.
A) the thyroid gland
B) the parathyroid gland
C) the adrenal cortex
D) glucocorticoids
Q2) Which of the following is a nonsteroid hormone?
A) glucagon
B) a progestin
C) a glucocorticoid
D) androgen
Q3) Hormones regulate ______.
A) growth
B) reproduction
C) metabolism
D) all of the above
Q4) Steroid hormones ______.
A) trigger a signal transduction pathway when they bind to a receptor
B) bind to mRNA in the cytoplasm to initiate transcription
C) bind to receptors in the cytoplasm or nucleus
D) all of the above
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Chapter 26: Reproduction and Development
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Q1) Which of the following is associated with sexual reproduction?
A) fission
B) fragmentation
C) budding
D) none of the above
Q2) Which of the following types of pathogens cause sexually transmitted diseases that are generally not curable?
A) bacteria
B) viruses
C) fungi
D) HIV but not other viruses
Q3) At about what point in gestation can an ultrasound exam determine the sex of the fetus?
A) about 4 weeks after fertilization
B) at the end of the first trimester
C) about 20 weeks after fertilization
D) at the end of the second trimester
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28
Chapter 27: Nervous, Sensory, and Locomotor Systems
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Q1) Which of the following effects could result from activation of the sympathetic nervous system?
A) decreased heart rate
B) stimulated digestive organs
C) secretion of epinephrine
D) narrowing of the bronchi
Q2) Which of the following is(are)part of the central nervous system?
A) motor system
B) brain and spinal cord
C) brain only
D) spinal cord only
Q3) The cerebral cortex is highly folded.Why might this be an advantage for the functions of the cerebrum?
A) The increased surface area increases the area for higher-level thinking.
B) The increased surface area permits greater contact between the cerebrum and the cerebellum.
C) The folds form grooves that let the bones of the skull reach deeply down between brain regions.
D) The folds increase the areas where sensory receptors can reach the brain's surface.
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Chapter 28: The Life of a Flowering Plant
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Q1) Which of the following is responsible for the increase in girth (width)of trees?
A) primary growth
B) secondary growth
C) growth in apical meristems
D) an increase in the width of vessel elements
Q2) Which of the following best characterizes the eudicots?
A) flower parts in threes
B) leaves with parallel veins
C) an embryo with two seed leaves
D) stems with scattered vascular bundles
Q3) Which plant structure is adapted for attracting beneficial insects such as honeybees?
A) axillary bud
B) terminal bud
C) flower
D) petiole
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Chapter 29: The Working Plant
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Q1) Which of the following describes how phloem sap moves within a plant?
A) bulk-flow mechanism
B) sugar-flow mechanism
C) pressure-flow mechanism
D) sink-to-source mechanism
Q2) Which of the following hormones promotes seed dormancy?
A) cytokinin
B) ethylene
C) gibberellin
D) abscisic acid
Q3) Which of the following hormones promotes fruit ripening and dropping of leaves?
A) auxin
B) ethylene
C) gibberellin
D) abscisic acid
Q4) Which of the following convert soil ammonium to nitrate?
A) nitrifying bacteria
B) ammonifying bacteria
C) denitrifying bacteria
D) nitrogen-fixing bacteria
Page 31
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