Biology for Non-Majors Exam Preparation Guide
Course Introduction
Biology for Non-Majors offers a comprehensive introduction to the fundamental concepts of life science, tailored for students without a background in biology. The course explores essential topics such as cell structure and function, genetics, evolution, ecology, and the diversity of living organisms, emphasizing connections to everyday life and societal issues. Through discussions, hands-on activities, and real-world applications, students will gain a foundational understanding of biological principles and develop the critical thinking skills necessary to make informed decisions about health, the environment, and biotechnology.
Recommended Textbook
Biology The Essentials 3rd Edition by Marille Hoefnagels Dr
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Chapter 1: The Scientific Study of Life
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Q1) If you observed a newly discovered 'thing' and tried to decide if it might be alive,what would be the weakest distinction for life?
A) homeostasis
B) movement
C) structural organization
D) evolution
E) energy use
Answer: B
Q2) If you were grading a set of exams dealing with the scientific method,which statement would lead to a student losing points?
A) It is a general way of answering questions with evidence.
B) It is a framework to consider ideas in a repeatable way.
C) It begins with observations.
D) It does not apply to problems encountered in everyday life.
E) It enables the testing of ideas.
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Two hydrogen atoms and an oxygen atom bonded together form
A) a molecule, but not a compound.
B) a compound, but not a molecule.
C) a molecule and a compound.
D) an atom and a molecule.
E) an atom, but not a molecule or compound.
Answer: C
Q2) As part of a lab exam,you are given a vial of orange crystals.When you add them to pure,neutral pH water,the pH changes to 13.Other tests show that the crystals consist of a single chemical.You could conclude the chemical is
A) a weak acid.
B) a weak base.
C) neutral.
D) a strong acid.
E) a strong base.
Answer: E
Q3) Carbon is a compound.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 3: Cells
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Q1) A cytoskeleton is
A) a structure that aids in the process of cell division.
B) found in the cytoplasm of eukaryotic cells.
C) a system of tracks used for transport.
D) composed of microtubules and microfilaments.
E) All answers are correct.
Answer: E
Q2) If you were examining a plasmodesma under a microscope,you would expect to find a plant cell at each end.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Why are cells called "the fundamental unit of life"?
A) All known organisms have one or more cells.
B) Earliest life on Earth is hypothesized to have been single-celled.
C) Some cells are separate living entities that can survive individually.
D) Cells are the smallest unit of life that can function independently.
E) All answers are correct.
Answer: E
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Page 5
Chapter 4: The Energy of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a drug is designed to denature enzymes involved in digesting phenylalanine,why would patients treated with this drug develop phenylketonuria?
A) They lack an enzyme to break down phenylalanine.
B) They lack an enzyme to produce phenylalanine.
C) They produce too much phenylalanine.
D) They lack an inhibitor of an enzyme to break down phenylalanine.
E) They eat more phenylalanine than most people.
Q2) If a lion eats a gazelle,before the molecules have been broken down by its cells,the lion has gained
A) potential energy.
B) kinetic energy.
C) entropy.
D) respiratory capacity.
E) enzymes for digesting grass.
Q3) Energy sometimes appears spontaneously in living systems.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Photosynthesis
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Q1) The energy source for photosynthesis is
A) oxygen.
B) sunlight.
C) carbon dioxide.
D) chlorophyll.
E) glucose.
Q2) If you were placing orders for experiments with rubisco,you would need ribulose bisphosphate and what other molecule to conduct the experiments?
A) glucose
B) ATP
C) carbon monoxide
D) organic compounds
E) carbon dioxide
Q3) Water interacts with the machinery in photosystem II during the photosynthesis.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The carbon reactions produce ATP and NADPH.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Respiration and Fermentation
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Q1) Energy can be extracted from proteins by cellular respiration.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The theoretical net ATP yield from a molecule of glucose is ________ ATP molecules.
A) 2
B) 36
C) 4
D) 15
E) 42
Q3) In the Investigating Life,<i>Hot Plants Offer Heat Rewards</i>,what did scientists conclude about beetles and self-heating flowers?
A) At higher temperatures resting beetles saved energy.
B) At higher temperatures active beetles saved energy.
C) At lower temperatures active beetles saved energy.
D) At lower temperatures resting beetles saved energy.
E) Generating heat led to increased pollination of <i>Philodendron</i> flowers by beetles.
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Chapter 7: DNA Structure and Gene Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) RNA processing involves splicing.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Mutations produce new alleles that may
A) be beneficial to the organism's fitness.
B) have no effect on the organism's fitness.
C) decrease the organism's fitness.
D) increase diversity at a genetic locus.
E) All answers are correct.
Q3) HIV is a
A) double-stranded DNA virus.
B) single-stranded RNA virus.
C) single-stranded DNA virus.
D) double-stranded RNA virus.
E) prion.
Q4) Where is the majority of DNA located in a human cell?
A) nucleus
B) mitochondrion
C) chloroplast
D) ribosome
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Chapter 8: DNA Replication,Binary Fission,and Mitosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) How does the space between our fingers arise?
A) The cells form by apoptosis.
B) Mitosis of the cells is blocked.
C) The cells die by apoptosis.
D) Meiosis of the cells is blocked.
E) The cells become part of the fingers.
Q2) Exposure to UV radiation from the sun can increase the risk of cancer.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A part of a chromosome that attaches sister chromatids to each other defines the term
A) chromatin.
B) nucleosome.
C) centromere.
D) histone.
E) No answer is correct.
Q4) Some risk of cancer comes from genetic issues.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Sexual Reproduction and Meiosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) What creates genetically different offspring in both asexual and sexual reproduction?
A) mutations
B) mitosis
C) meiosis
D) mutations and mitosis
E) mitosis and meiosis
Q2) If human gametes were diploid
A) the products of fertilization would have the same number of chromosomes as their parents.
B) the products of fertilization would have fewer chromosomes than their parents.
C) fertilization could not occur.
D) the products of fertilization would have more chromosomes than their parents.
E) the embryo would be diploid.
Q3) Mitosis occurs in somatic cells throughout life.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Patterns of Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) In pedigree charts,autosomal dominant disorders typically
A) appear only in males.
B) appear only in females.
C) appear in every generation.
D) seem to disappear in one generation, only to reappear in the next generation.
E) occur every third generation.
Q2) If a diploid cell has 14 chromosomes,it will have
A) 14 pairs of homologous chromosomes.
B) 7 pairs of homologous chromatids.
C) 14 pairs of homologous chromatids.
D) 7 pairs of homologous chromosomes.
E) 14 alleles.
Q3) The alleles of each gene packaged into separate gametes summarizes Mendel's law of
A) segregation.
B) random fertilization.
C) population dynamics.
D) crossing over.
E) independent assortment.
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Chapter 11: DNA Technology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Florigene,the rose plant that produces blue flowers,is an example of A) a transgenic organism.
B) a clone.
C) stem cell research.
D) applying gene therapy.
E) traditional breeding.
Q2) DNA probes are typically labeled with a radioactive isotope or fluorescent tag to locate within the genome after binding.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The Taq ________ enzyme is used in polymerase chain reaction (PCR)because it remains stable at high temperatures.
A) DNA polymerase
B) RNA polymerase
C) ribosomal RNA (rRNA)
D) primase
E) cytoskeleton
Q4) 98.5% of the human genome does not encode proteins.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Forces of Evolutionary Change
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Q1) Ancestors of the Galápagos finches had two different types of seeds to eat on some islands.Some seeds were very small and required small beaks to handle.Other seeds were very large and required large strong beaks to crack.This led to ________ among the Galápagos finches.
A) directional selection
B) stabilizing selection
C) disruptive selection
D) artificial selection
E) sexual selection
Q2) Individuals,who have one normal allele and one sickle cell allele,are able to resist malaria.This gives them a better chance of reaching reproductive age.This is known as A) heterozygote advantage.
B) homozygote advantage.
C) artificial selection.
D) heterozygote disadvantage.
E) dominant advantage.
Q3) The hundreds of dog breeds are a product of natural selection.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Evidence of Evolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following pairs radioactive isotopes is used in radioactive fossil dating?
A) ¹ C and K
B) ¹²C and K
C) ¹²C and Ar
D) K and ¹ N
Q2) The wings of a bat and an insect are examples of
A) analogous structures.
B) homologous structures.
C) vestigial structures.
D) homeotic structures.
E) heterologous structures.
Q3) Earth once consisted of a single large landmass and one ocean.The landmass is named
A) Panthalassa.
B) Pangaea.
C) Laurasia.
D) Gondwana.
E) Ultima Continenta.
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Chapter 14: Speciation and Extinction
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Q1) Different geographical barriers physically separated the tortoises on the Galápagos Islands.This separation resulted in the evolution of subspecies.This is an example of ________ speciation.
A) prezygotic
B) allopatric
C) postzygotic
D) sympatric
E) outgroup
Q2) The impact of a large meteorite with Earth would have most likely caused mass extinctions by
A) causing a great prolonged rise in the earth's temperature and destroying plant life.
B) creating large clouds of dust that blocked out sunlight only.
C) causing a great prolonged rise in the earth's temperature only.
D) creating large clouds of dust that blocked out sunlight and destroying plant life.
E) destroying only plant life.
Q3) The more heritable traits organisms share,the more taxonomic levels they share.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Evolution and Diversity of Microbial Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following phyla of fungi contain the organism responsible for Dutch elm disease and chestnut blight?
A) Ascomycetes
B) Zygomycetes
C) Basidiomycetes
D) Chytridiomycetes
Q2) The main storage carbohydrate in fungi is
A) glycogen.
B) glucose.
C) starch.
D) cellulose.
E) chitin.
Q3) Fungi and animals are similar because they both
A) are phototrophs.
B) have cell walls made of chitin.
C) are heterotrophs.
D) use starch as their main storage carbohydrate.
E) are decomposers.
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Chapter 16: Evolution and Diversity of Plants
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Q1) Gymnosperms and angiosperms evolved ________ allowing them to live and reproduce in drier habitats than bryophytes and seedless vascular plants.
A) spores
B) seeds, spores, and fronds
C) vascular tissue, spores, and fronds
D) pollen grains and seeds
E) fruit and flowers
Q2) Which group of plants have phloem and xylem but lack seeds,flowers,and fruit?
A) liverworts, hornworts, and mosses
B) ferns, club mosses, horsetails, and whisk ferns
C) ginkgo, cycads, conifers, and gnetophytes
D) monocots and eudicots
E) All plants have phloem and xylem but lack seeds, flowers, and fruit.
Q3) The parts of the plant that absorb water and minerals are the A) stomata.
B) roots.
C) flowers.
D) pollen.
E) cuticle.
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Chapter 17: Evolution and Diversity of Animals
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Q1) What are the three major body regions of many arthropods?
A) head, thorax, and abdomen
B) head, abdomen, and legs
C) head, thorax, and legs
D) head, gastrovascular cavity, and thorax
E) head, gills, and legs
Q2) Which of the following characteristics do all animals share?
A) They are single-celled eukaryotes.
B) They are multicellular prokaryotes.
C) They are multicellular eukaryotes.
D) They are single-celled prokaryotes.
E) No answer is correct.
Q3) If you had found a flattened worm with bilateral symmmetry,you would know that you had found a flatworm.
A)True
B)False
Q4) If you found a worm with obvious segments and a complete digestive tract,you might conclude that it was an annelid.
A)True
B)False
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Populations
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Q1) In 2010,India had a population of 1,170,000,000,a birth rate of 0.027,and a death rate of 0.013.What was the growth rate of India's population?
A) 0.027
B) 0.013
C) 0.014
D) 0.040
E) 0.001
Q2) Based upon the age structure diagram,you expect the Indian population to
A) grow because all of the age classes have roughly equal proportions of people.
B) grow then shrink because many of the people will be entering the postreproductive years.
C) grow because a large proportion of the population will be entering the reproductive years.
D) grow then decline because a lower proportion of individuals are in prereproductive age classes.
E) No answer is correct.
Q3) When exponential growth is plotted over time a J-shaped curve emerges.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Communities and Ecosystems
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Q1) Mycorrhizal fungi contribute to nutrient cycles by aiding in the absorption of minerals,which they share with plants in return for carbohydrates.This shows that nutrient cycling can be an example of
A) commensalism.
B) parasitism.
C) mutualism.
D) predation.
E) herbivory.
Q2) What is a challenge that organisms living in an intertidal zone face that other aquatic organisms normally do not face?
A) damage from pollution
B) changes in temperature at different depths
C) movement of water
D) light penetrating only through the photic zone
E) daily changes in water depth
Q3) Examples of terrestrial biomes are grasslands,forests,lakes,and deserts.
A)True
B)False
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21
Chapter 20: Preserving Biodiversity
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Q1) Greenhouse gases block
A) carbon dioxide from escaping Earth's atmosphere.
B) oxygen from escaping Earth's atmosphere.
C) UV wavelengths from reaching Earth's surface.
D) UV wavelengths from escaping Earth's atmosphere.
E) heat from escaping Earth's atmosphere.
Q2) Conservation biologists breed some endangered species like the panda bear in captivity.Which is the most likely reason that panda populations in the wild are still threatened?
A) Not enough animals can be bred to release into the wild.
B) Their environment is polluted.
C) Loss of habitat has occurred.
D) The wild pandas cannot breed.
E) Their population density is too high.
Q3) Of every 100 species introduced,only one persists to take over a niche.
A)True B)False
Q4) The zebra mussel and the gypsy moth are native species of North America. A)True B)False
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Chapter 21: Plant Form and Function
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Q1) The primary organ of photosynthesis in a plant is the A) leaf.
B) stomata.
C) bark.
D) stem.
E) chlorophyll.
Q2) Carbon dioxide enters a plant from the atmosphere through pores called A) guard cells.
B) companion cells.
C) sieve tubes.
D) nodes.
E) stomata.
Q3) The opening and closing of a plant's stomata is regulated by the flow of ________ ions.
A) phosphorus
B) magnesium
C) copper
D) sulfur
E) potassium
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Chapter 22: Reproduction and Development of Flowering Plants
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Q1) A(n)________ is a chemical synthesized in small quantities in one part of an organism and transported to another,where a target cell is affected.
A) enzyme
B) megaspore
C) microspore
D) hormone
E) gametophyte
Q2) The reason why one bad apple can lead to a bushel of bad apples is that the bad apple produces lots of A) auxin.
B) cytokinin.
C) abscisic acid.
D) gibberellin.
E) ethylene.
Q3) Gymnosperms are flowering plants.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 23: Animal Tissues and Organ Systems
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Q1) The only type of connective tissue in which collagen is not secreted is A) bone.
B) blood.
C) cartilage.
D) adipose.
E) loose connective.
Q2) An action that counters an existing condition is called
A) negative feedback.
B) a mistake.
C) positive feedback.
D) directional control.
E) No answer is correct.
Q3) If you found a dinosaur fossil in which the nasal cavity cross section was proportionally as large as in a dog,you would probably have found an endothermal dinosaur.
A)True
B)False
Q4) An organ is defined as consisting of two or more interacting tissues.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 24: The Nervous System and the Senses
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Q1) A pheromone is a chemical substance that elicits a specific response in members of a different species.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The size of the opening for light coming into the eye is regulated by the A) cornea.
B) pupil.
C) iris.
D) cone.
E) lens.
Q3) The dendrite is the receiving end of a synapse.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A phenomenon in which sensations become less noticeable with prolonged exposure is called
A) gradient adaptation.
B) an action potential.
C) a graded potential.
D) radiating adaptation.
E) sensory adaptation.
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Chapter 25: The Endocrine System
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Q1) Which is an endocrine gland?
A) pancreas
B) thyroid gland
C) ovaries
D) testes
E) All answers are correct.
Q2) Prednisone would be most similar to which compound?
A) cortisol
B) insulin
C) TRH
D) oxytocin
E) glucagon
Q3) Which is not an endocrine gland?
A) hypothalamus
B) testes
C) gallbladder
D) pineal gland
E) adrenal gland
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Chapter 26: The Skeletal and Muscular Systems
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Q1) The interaction of both the muscular system and the skeletal system is necessary for animals to run,fly,and swim.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In muscle tissue,if there is not enough oxygen for aerobic respiration to occur,the muscle cell
A) can produce ATP by fermentation.
B) cannot make ATP.
C) uses creatine phosphate instead of ATP for energy.
D) can produce ATP from fats.
E) depletes its reserves of lactic acid.
Q3) The type of skeleton that is an internal support structure is a(n)
A) endoskeleton.
B) hydrostatic skeleton.
C) gastrovascular cavity.
D) exoskeleton.
E) vascular canal.
Q4) The high water content of cartilage allows it to cushion blows.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 27: The Circulatory and Respiratory Systems
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Q1) If you wanted to change airflow to alveoli,what tissue would you need to target?
A) connective
B) nonvascular
C) muscle
D) nervous
E) vascular
Q2) Blood transports the most carbon dioxide in what form?
A) as bicarbonate ions
B) in red blood cells
C) dissolved in the plasma
D) bound to hemoglobin
E) bound to myoglobin
Q3) In the systemic circulation,________ is expelled from the blood and ________ is picked up.
A) oxygen; nitrogen
B) carbon dioxide; nitrogen
C) carbon dioxide; oxygen
D) oxygen; carbon dioxide
E) nitrogen; oxygen
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Chapter 28: The Digestive and Urinary Systems
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Q1) In herbivores,the cecum is small because the food they ingest is easily digested.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Smelling food causes a hungry person to salivate.Which of the following begins to be digested in saliva?
A) proteins
B) fats
C) carbohydrates
D) nucleic acids
E) All answers are correct.
Q3) A person suffering from lactose intolerance cannot break down the disaccharide lactose.Where would lactose be found in a person with lactose intolerance,but not in a lactose-tolerant person?
A) in the mouth
B) in the stomach
C) in the large intestine
D) in the small intestine
E) No answer is correct.
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Chapter 29: The Immune System
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Q1) A preparation that "teaches" the immune system to recognize a disease-causing agent without actually causing disease is termed a(n)
A) antibiotic.
B) virus.
C) antiviral.
D) vaccination.
E) injection.
Q2) Since fever is not always present,it is an example of adaptive immunity.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In the section "Investigating Life: The Hidden Cost of Hygiene," the hypothesis states that people who have
A) more worm infections will have an overactive immune system.
B) better hygiene and are cleaner will have more worm infections.
C) better hygiene and are cleaner will have a weaker immune system.
D) fewer worm infections will have an overactive immune system.
E) better hygiene and are cleaner will have fewer worm infections.
Q4) If you see cytotoxic T cells,you know that a humoral response is underway.
A)True
B)False
Page 31
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Chapter 30: Animal Reproduction and Development
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Q1) A baby turtle growing into an adult that appears similar is an example of A) direct development.
B) external fertilization.
C) internal fertilization.
D) indirect development.
E) differentiation.
Q2) The diploid first cell of a new organism is a(n) A) gamete.
B) sperm.
C) polar body.
D) zygote.
E) ovum.
Q3) Birth control pills contain a combination of estrogen and progesterone and prevent pregnancy by
A) preventing sperm from reaching the egg.
B) leading to a non-viable embryo.
C) preventing implantation in the uterine wall.
D) acting as a spermicide, killing sperm.
E) preventing ovulation.
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