Biology for Non-Majors Exam Materials
Course Introduction
Biology for Non-Majors is an introductory course designed to provide students with a broad understanding of the fundamental principles of biology without requiring an extensive background in science. Topics covered include cell structure and function, genetics, evolution, ecology, and the diversity of life, emphasizing how biological concepts relate to everyday life and current issues. The course uses real-world examples and interactive activities to foster scientific literacy, encourage critical thinking, and highlight the importance of biology in personal and societal contexts. This course is ideal for students in non-science majors who seek to fulfill general education requirements and develop an appreciation for the living world.
Recommended Textbook
Biology The Unity and Diversity of Life 14th Edition by Cecie Starr
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Chapter 1: Invitation to Biology
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Q1) Which group of organisms does not depend directly on sunlight for energy?
I.terrestrial producers
II.animal consumers
III.decomposers
A) I only
B) II and III only
C) II only
D) III only
E) I and III
Answer: B
Q2) Which concept represents the lowest degree of certainty?
A) hypothesis
B) conclusion
C) fact
D) principle
E) theory
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Lifes Chemical Basis
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Q1) The number of electrons in the first energy level
Answer: B
Q2) Which atom is depicted in the accompanying figure?
A) hydrogen
B) sodium C) helium
D) chlorine
E) oxygen
Answer: B
Q3) The sharing of two pairs of electrons between two atoms is called a(n)
Answer: double bond
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Molecules of Life
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Q1) Cholesterol ____.
A) has a rigid backbone of four nitrogen rings
B) is the most common steroid in animal tissue
C) is a lipid with a fatty-acid component
D) is needed to inhibit sexual development and maturity
E) is needed to lubricate feathers
Answer: B
Q2) What kind of reaction produces small molecules by cleaving large molecules?
A) oxidation
B) reduction
C) condensation
D) hydrolysis
E) decarboxylation
Answer: D
Q3) Write the empirical formula for a carbohydrate.
Answer: (CH O)n
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Chapter 4: Cell Structure and Function
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Q1) microtubules
A)contain enzymes for intracellular digestion
B)primary cellular organelles where proteins are assembled
C)package cellular secretions for export
D)extract energy stored in carbohydrates; synthesize ATP; produce water and carbon dioxide
E)synthesize subunits that will be assembled into two-part ribosomes in the cytoplasm
F)molecules that participate in protein synthesis
G)store substances
H)encode hereditary information
I)help distribute chromosomes to the new cells during cell division
J)convert light energy to chemical energy stored in the chemical bonds of glucose or starch
Q2) microtubules
Q3) The ____________________ is used to package and ship components to other organelles and out of the cytoplasm.
Q4) nucleus
Q5) Chart the path of molecules of a secreted protein beginning at the DNA for a eukaryote.
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Chapter 5: Ground Rules of Metabolism
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Q1) adenosine triphosphate
A)amount of energy to start a reaction
B)coenzyme that carries electrons
C)attachment of a phosphate group by a high-energy bond
D)an excess of end-product molecules alters the shape of the first enzyme in the pathway and shuts off that metabolic pathway
E)part of an enzyme that binds to the substrate
F)by binding a regulatory molecule, it changes the activity of a metabolic pathway
G)affects rates of chemical reactions by reducing activation energy
H)important energy currency in metabolism
I)enzyme that participates in the neutralization of hydrogen peroxide
J)a measure of the degree of energy change after a concentrated form of energy has been dispersed
Q2) Allosteric enzymes ____.
A) have regions that bind with inhibitor or activator molecules
B) are associated with important energy-carrying nucleotides
C) are not affected by temperature or pH
D) have two active sites
E) have a broader range of working conditions
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Chapter 6: Where It Starts - Photosynthesis
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Q1) Any light-driven reaction that attaches phosphate to a molecule is called ____________________.
Q2) A pigment absorbs a photon if the energy of the photon is ____.
A) exactly enough to boost an electron of the pigment to a higher energy level
B) slightly more than the energy of the electron absorbing the photon
C) significantly more than the energy of the electron absorbing the photon
D) exactly twice the energy of the electron absorbing the photon
E) significantly less than the energy of the electron absorbing the photon
Q3) chlorophyll a
A)Peak A
B)Peak B
C)Peak C
D)Peak D
E)Peak E
Q4) When light energy is absorbed by a leaf, this will be the first result.
A)reduction of NADP+
B)phosphorylation of ADP
C)photolysis of water
D)oxidation of chlorophyll
E)reduction of chlorophyll
Page 8
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Chapter 7: How Cells Release Chemical Energy
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Q1) Why do some muscle cells produce ATP via lactate fermentation?
Q2) What molecule corresponds to the item labeled as "62" in the accompanying figure?
A)CO
B)NADH
C)ADP + Pi
D)FADH
E)ATP
Q3) The final step of the Krebs cycle regenerates ____.
A) pyruvate
B) acetyl-CoA
C) fructose bisphosphate
D) oxaloacetate
E) citrate
Q4) Glycolysis depends upon a continuous supply of NAD+ and ____.
A) NADP
B) pyruvate
C) glucose
D) NADH
E) H O
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Chapter 8: Dna Structure and Function
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Q1) The Hershey and Chase experiments, in which radioactive phosphorus (32P) and radioactive sulfur (35S) were used, demonstrated that ____.
A) DNA labeled with 35S and proteins labeled with 32P can be traced over the course of an experiment
B) DNA labeled with 32P is transferred from the bacteriophage to the virus
C) proteins labeled with 35S become deactivated and unable to be transferred D) bacteriophages transfer their DNA, not their coat proteins, into their hosts
E) DNA may be the hereditary material, although bacteriophages transfer both DNA and proteins into their hosts
Q2) DNA contains all of the following nitrogen-containing bases EXCEPT ____.
A) adenine
B) uracil
C) guanine
D) adenine.
E) thymine
Q3) A free nucleotide has a five carbon sugar (deoxyribose), ____________________ phosphate group(s), and one of four nitrogen-containing bases.
Q4) In ____________________, one somatic cell is fused with an enucleated egg.
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Chapter 9: From Dna to Protein
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Q1) A segment of DNA that specifies a sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide is called a(n)
A) codon.
B) intron.
C) messenger.
D) gene.
E) enzyme.
Q2) In eukaryotes, all of the different types of RNA are transcribed in the A) mitochondria.
B) cytoplasm.
C) ribosomes.
D) nucleus.
E) endoplasmic reticulum.
Q3) What is shown in the figure above?
A) transcription in eukaryotes
B) translation in prokaryotes
C) translation in eukaryotes
D) DNA replication
E) transcription in prokaryotes
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Chapter 10: Gene Control
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Q1) Is the lac operon transcribed when lactose is present?
A) Yes, lactose binds to the repressor, allowing RNA polymerase to bind to the promoter and transcribe the operon.
B) Yes, lactose binds to RNA polymerase, allowing it to bind to the promoter and transcribe the operon.
C) No, lactose binds to the repressor, allowing it to bind to the two operators preventing transcription.
D) No, lactose has no effect on transcription of the lac operon.
E) No, lactose binds to the second operator, blocking transcription by RNA polymerase.
Q2) In an egg, cytoplasmic localization of mRNA occurs when the transcripts
A) are bound to specific proteins.
B) are small enough.
C) are attached to fat soluble molecules.
D) contain specific introns.
E) are attached to ribosome subunits manufactured in the nucleus.
Q3) In female mammals, most genes on one of the two X chromosomes are permanently inaccessible, a phenomenon is called __________.
Q4) The __________ governs expression of three genes active in lactose metabolism.
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Page 12
Chapter 11: How Cells Reproduce
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Q1) After plant mitosis, the vesicles fuse into a disk-shaped __________.
Q2) event that divides a cytoplasmic mass
A)G2
B)mitosis
C)S
D)G1
E)cytokinesis
Q3) Chromosomes are copied during what stage of the cell cycle?
A) M
B) D
C) G1
D) G2
E) S
Q4) Genes replicate.
A)interphase
B)prophase
C)metaphase
D)anaphase
E)telophase
Q5) How could telomerase inhibitors be used to treat cancer?
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Meiosis and Sexual Reproduction
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Q1) Sexual reproduction
A) leads to uniform characteristics within a population.
B) results in new combinations of genetic traits.
C) creates genetic clones.
D) requires less tissue differentiation than asexual reproduction.
E) produces genetic clones and requires less tissue differentiation than asexual reproduction.
Q2) The accompanying illustration shows one possible outcome of the random alignment of homologous chromosomes at metaphase I. How many OTHER possible arrangements exist?
A) none
B) one
C) two
D) seven
E) eight
Q3) Sexual reproduction has many benefits from a genetic standpoint. Can you think of any downside to sexual reproduction?
Q4) Discuss the unique reproductive capacity of the bdelloid rotifer.
Q5) __________ are regions in an organism's DNA that encode information about heritable traits.
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Chapter 13: Observing Patterns in Inherited Traits
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Q1) Various forms that a single gene can take at a given locus are called
A) kinetochores.
B) alleles.
C) autosomes.
D) loci.
E) chromatids.
Q2) Which eye color has dense melanin deposits in the iris?
A) blue
B) gray
C) brown
D) green
E) brown and blue
Q3) What term is used for multiple effects from a single gene?
A) expressivity
B) continuous variation
C) codominance
D) pleiotropy
E) multiple alleles
Q4) Explain what genetic 'trick' could have confounded Mendel is his recognition of segregation?
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Chapter 14: Chromosomes and Human Inheritance
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Q1) translocation
A)3n; generally sterile
B)a chromosome segment is permanently transferred to a nonhomologous chromosome
C)(2n - 1); a zygote deprived of a chromosome
D)a repeat of a particular DNA sequence in the same chromosome or in nonhomologous ones
E)(2n + 1); three chromosomes of the same kind are present in a set of chromosomes
F)a piece of the chromosome is inadvertently left out during the repair process
G)encodes a transport protein in melanosome membranes
H)a chromosome segment that has been cut out and rejoined at the same place, but backward
Q2) Some conditions like progeria do not run in families despite being autosomal dominant. How is this possible?
Q3) This disorder is an autosomal recessive disorder.
A)galactosemia
B)Turner syndrome
C)progeria
D)hemophilia A
E)Down syndrome
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Chapter 15: Studying and Manipulating Genomes
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Q1) What is used to cut the DNA in panels 1 and 2?
A) restriction enzymes
B) reverse transcriptase
C) DNA polymerases
D) RNA polymerases
E) DNA ligases
Q2) Genetic engineering started with ____.
A) bacteria
B) viruses
C) fungi
D) plants
E) animals
Q3) Gene therapy ____.
A) has not yet been used successfully with mammals
B) is a surgical technique that replaces defective genes with normal genes
C) has been used successfully to treat victims of autosomal dominant disorders by replacing the dominant allele with a recessive allele
D) is a genetic engineering technique that replaces defective alleles with normal ones
E) is only possible in adults
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Chapter 16: Evidence of Evolution
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Q1) Which body of evidence is least supportive of plate tectonics theory?
A) the worldwide fossil record
B) the global distribution of existing species
C) the sea-floor spreading
D) the shape of the continents
E) the size of the oceans
Q2) The idea that geologic processes have formed Earth's surface by repeating the same actions over and over is known as ____.
A) the theory of catastrophism
B) plate tectonics
C) continental drift
D) the theory of uniformity
E) the theory of relativity
Q3) Why are fossils older than 60 000 years hard to date using C14?
Q4) The geologic time scale is often subdivided on the basis of ____.
A) the appearance of different radioactive isotopes in different strata
B) levels of background extinction
C) periods of mass extinction
D) the appearance of new species
E) climate change
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Chapter 17: Processes of Evolution
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Q1) The persistence of the sickle-cell anemia allele in some African populations is the result of ____.
A) a high rate of mutation of the normal allele to the sickle-cell anemia allele
B) the advantage of the heterozygous form over the homozygous forms
C) nonrandom mating
D) a decline in the occurrence of malaria in Africa
E) genetic drift
Q2) This is most likely to lead to the loss of genetic variation in a small population.
A)Mutation
B)gene flow
C)genetic drift
D)natural selection
Q3) Reproductive isolation is marked by the __________of gene flow between populations.
Q4) With __________ speciation, populations in physical contact speciate.
Q5) __________ can lead to the loss of genetic diversity.
Q6) __________ species of many plants (and a few animals) originated by chromosome doublings and hybridizations.
Q7) Give an example of exaptation in humans.
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Organizating Information About Species
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Q1) Similar body parts that reflect shared ancestry are called __________.
Q2) Which of the following are examples of homologous structures?
A) whale flipper and cat leg
B) human eye and octopus eye
C) bird and insect wings
D) body shape of sharks and dolphins
E) penguin wing and fish fin
Q3) Why do scientists favor the clade in which derived traits evolve the fewest times?
Q4) The Dlx gene encodes a transcription factor that signals clusters of embryonic cells to ____ and gives rise to an appendage.
A) fold into the cardiac muscle
B) protrude from the body
C) form reproductive structures
D) induce apoptosis in cells lining the appendages
E) develop into the immune system
Q5) A fairly conserved gene is compared between a human, a chimpanzee, a bear and a banana. How would you expect their DNA sequences to relate?
Q6) __________ is a set of methods that allow us to reconstruct phylogeny.
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Chapter 19: Lifes Origin and Early Evolution
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Q1) The bacterial species Gemmata obscuriglobus can withstand high levels of radiation because ____.
A) it has a membrane around its DNA
B) its DNA is extra stable
C) it is protected from the radiation by chloroplasts
D) its Golgi bodies decontaminate the cell
E) its circular DNA is inherently stable
Q2) Would the evidence suggest that mitochondria or chloroplasts were the first to evolve through endosymbiosis?
Q3) The ____ hypothesis states that mitochondria and chloroplasts evolved from bacteria.
A) invagination
B) exosymbiont
C) membrane folding
D) captured bacteria
E) endosymbiont
Q4) Are the three methods of producing the building blocks of life proposed in this chapter mutually exclusive?
Q5) What can RNA do that DNA cannot that makes RNA a good starting point for life?
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Chapter 20: Viruses - Bacteria - and Archaea
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Q1) Once inside the human body, HIV primarily infects ____.
A) liver tissue
B) kidney tissue
C) red blood cells
D) white blood cells
E) brain tissue
Q2) Why are viruses not considered to be alive?
Q3) How do archaeans and bacteria differ?
A) size
B) shape
C) plasma membrane composition
D) absence of a nucleus
E) mode of cellular division
Q4) Four of the following are viral diseases. Which one is the exception?
A) herpes
B) measles
C) bubonic plague
D) hepatitis
E) chicken pox
Q5) Why are endospores so dangerous to food production?
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Protists - the Simplest Eukaryotes
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Q1) __________ are heterotrophs that grow as a mesh of absorptive filaments. Some are plant pathogens.
Q2) Euglenoids live in freshwater; a(n) __________ rids them of excess water.
Q3) This group includes the diatoms.
A)apicomplexans
B)amoebozoans
C)euglenoids
D)dinoflagellates
E)trypanosomes
Q4) __________ and __________ are single-celled heterotrophs with a secreted shell.
Q5) Which group is most closely related to fungi?
A) radiolarians
B) stramenopiles
C) alveolates
D) choanoflagellates
E) oomycetes
Q6) In nutrient-rich water, photosynthetic protists may undergo population explosions known as __________.
Q7) Why is malaria such an effective disease?
Q8) __________ are single-celled and mostly or entirely heterotrophic. Page 23
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Chapter 22: The Land Plants
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Q1) Four of these statements about conifers are true. Which one is the exception?
A) They form seeds in female cones.
B) They have needlelike and scale-like leaves.
C) They have a thick cuticle.
D) They have motile sperm.
E) They are mostly evergreen.
Q2) ginkgos
A)have rhizoids, cuticle, and protected embryo sporophyte
B)one cotyledon
C)non-seed-bearing, heart-shaped gametophytes; spore-bearing leaves with sori
D)Lycopodium; cone-bearing sporophyte; free-living gametophyte
E)only one species left
F)cypress and redwood; heterosporous; mostly evergreen
G)confined to tropics or warm, temperate zones; resemble squat cone-bearing palm trees
H)two cotyledons
I)Equisetum; homosporous; rhizomes present; aerial stems jointed; scouring rushes
J)have coevolved with pollinating vectors
Q3) Ferns, roots, and fronds grow from __________.
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Chapter 23: Fungi
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Q1) The common black bread mold is a member of this group.
A)Zygomycetes
B)Ascomycetes
C)Basidiomycetes
D)Glomeromycetes
Q2) Most true fungi send out cellular filaments called ____.
A) mycelia
B) hyphae
C) mycorrhizae
D) stolons
E) rhizoids
Q3) __________ are an ancient fungal group and the only fungi with flagellated spores and gametes.
Q4) A dikaryotic cell ____.
A) is a spore
B) results from nuclear fusion
C) forms from two hyphae
D) becomes a zygote
E) becomes a gamete
Q5) What is the danger of Ug99 to global food production?
Page 26
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Chapter 24: Animal Evolution - the Invertibrates
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Q1) echinoderms
A)two pairs of legs per segment
B)Arachnids
C)planarians, flukes, tapeworms
D)Nematodes
E)snails, squids, clams
F)wheel animals
G)flagellated collar cells present
H)jellyfish and corals
I)crustaceans, ticks, and insects
J)polychaetes, earthworms, leeches
K)sea urchins, sea stars
Q2) Which statement is true of deuterostomes?
A) The second opening into the embryo becomes the anus.
B) They have two tissue layers.
C) The second opening into the embryo becomes the mouth.
D) The first opening into the embryo becomes the mouth.
E) They are typically radially symmetrical.
Q3) ___________, or water bears, have a reduced coelom and an external body covering.
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Chapter 25: Animal Evolution - the Chordates
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Q1) lampreys
A)cartilaginous skeleton; jaws
B)reptile with four-chambered heart
C)placental mammal
D)legless amphibian
E)invertebrate chordate; no metamorphosis
F)endotherm with feathers
G)limbless reptile
H)most primitive fishes with jaws; extinct
I)modern-day parasitic jawless vertebrate
J)marsupial
K)adult is called "sea squirt"
L)egg-laying mammal
M)swim bladder for buoyancy
N)may be sexually mature in larval form
Q2) __________ are jawless fishes with a backbone.
Q3) Mammals appeared 220 million years ago but did not begin to greatly diversify until 65 million years ago. Why is this?
Q4) One hypothesis proposes that an asteroid impact at the end of the ___________ led to the extinction of dinosaurs.
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Chapter 26: Human Evolution
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Q1) Four of the following are gorilla features. Which one is the exception?
A) spinal cord attached at rear of skull
B) C-shaped spine
C) legs longer than arms
D) flat foot
E) opposable big toe
Q2) The last known population of Homo neanderthalensis was found in ____.
A) China
B) Germany
C) France
D) Gibraltar
E) Libya
Q3) The last known population of Neanderthals lived as recently as ____ years ago.
A) 8,000
B) 18,000
C) 28,000
D) 38,000
E) 48,000
Q4) What skeletal features differentiate modern humans from apes, and what common purpose do all these differences serve?
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Chapter 27: Plant Tissues
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Q1) ____ are short sections of underground stem encased by overlapping layers of thickened, modified leaves called scales.
A) Stolons
B) Rhizomes
C) Bulbs
D) Corms
E) Tubers
Q2) The sexual organs of the plant are contained in the structure labeled __________.
Q3) This tissue gives rise to primary tissue forming xylem and phloem.
A)protoderm
B)ground meristem
C)procambium
D)vascular cambium
E)cork cambium
Q4) Cells rich in chlorophyll and thus the main sites of photosynthesis are in layers labeled ____.
Q5) Shoots and roots consist of ____________________, ____________________, and ____________________ tissue systems.
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Chapter 28: Plant Nutrition and Transport
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Q1) Which theory of water transport states that hydrogen bonding allows water molecules to maintain a continuous fluid column as water is pulled from roots to leaves?
A) pressure flow
B) evaporation-condensation
C) cohesion-tension
D) osmotic pressure
E) bulk flow
Q2) guard cells
A)responsible for opening and closing of stomata
B)region of a plant where sugars are being used
C)pipelines of the xylem
D)a mutually beneficial association between a fungus and a root
E)structures on roots that house nitrogen-fixing bacteria
F)pipelines of the phloem
G)evaporation of water from stems and leaves
H)provide metabolic functions necessary to sustain its paired sieve element
I)control the uptake of mineral ions into the vascular cylinder
J)transport of organic molecules from source region to sink
K)a waxy band that prevents water from diffusing through endodermal cell walls
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Chapter 29: Life Cycles of Flowering Plants
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Q1) The letter "D" in the above figure represents the ____.
A) style
B) ovary
C) stigma
D) anther
E) filament
Q2) Meiosis is indicated by the letter ____.
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
Q3) This is a fleshy fruit in which tissues derived from the receptacle enclose a core derived from the ovary wall.
A)dehiscent
B)indehiscent
C)drupe
D)berry
E)pome
Q4) filament
Page 32
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Chapter 30: Communication Strategies in Plants
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Q1) Synthetic auxin can be used as a(n) ____.
A) pesticide
B) herbicide
C) fungicide
D) insecticide
E) bacteriocide
Q2) Temperature extremes, lack of water, and other environmental stresses trigger an increase in ____ synthesis, release, and transport, which helps the plant survive the adverse conditions.
A) cytokinin
B) gibberellin
C) auxin
D) abscisic acid
E) ethylene
Q3) Farmers spray seedless grape plants with synthetic __________, which increases the size of the resulting fruit.
Q4) __________ refers to an organism's response to changes in the length of day relative to night.
Q5) Explain how gibberellin "removes the brakes" from some cellular processes.
Page 33
Q6) Explain what occurs when a plant exhibits heliotropism.
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Chapter 31: Animal Tissues
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Q1) Which organ in the human body has the largest surface?
A) heart
B) skin
C) lungs
D) liver
E) stomach
Q2) Cardiac muscle cells are ____.
A) involuntary
B) spindle-shaped
C) multinucleated
D) slow contracting
E) found in the walls of blood cells
Q3) Which body process most often involves in a negative feedback system?
A) hybridization
B) reproduction
C) pH adjustment
D) homeostasis
E) evaporation
Q4) Rubbery cartilage, calcium-hardened bone tissue, lipid-storing adipose tissue, and blood are examples of specialized ____________________ tissues.
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Chapter 32: Neural Control
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Q1) Radially symmetrical animals have a nerve __________.
Q2) white matter
A)integrates body position, motions, balance
B)in cnidarians; based on reflex pathways devoted to swimming and feeding
C)messages from here arouse the brain and maintain wakefulness
D)the cortical region that coordinates muscles required for speech
E)all parts of nerve cells outside the brain and spinal cord
F)acetylcholine is an example
G)reflex control center for breathing, heart rate, and blood pressure
H)axons of the central nervous system that are sheathed with fatty myelin
I)at top of the brainstem bordering the cerebral hemispheres; influences learning and emotional behavior
J)motor neurons that are divided into sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions
K)membrane coverings over brain and spinal cord
L)part of the brainstem; plays roles in reward-basesd learning and voluntary movements
M)connects right and left cerebral hemispheres
N)group of nerve cell bodies that form an integrative center
O)contains centers concerned with body temperature regulation and with salt and water balance
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Chapter 33: Sensory Perception
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Q1) The portion of the eye where photoreceptors are located is the ____.
A) lens
B) cornea
C) pupil
D) fovea
E) retina
Q2) An individual reports to the doctor that they are experiencing pain in their left arm. What would the doctor think may be wrong?
Q3) This structure contains rods and cones in vertebrates.
A)cornea
B)lens
C)retina
D)ommatidium
E)vitreous body
Q4) The utricle and saccule ____.
A) each contain an organ of dynamic equilibrium
B) detect rotation of the head
C) detect how the head is oriented relative to the ground
D) are semicircular canals
E) use the auditory nerve to send information to the brain
Page 36
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Chapter 34: Endocrine Control
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Q1) Which endocrine gland is the main center for control of the internal environment?
A) pineal
B) hypothalamus
C) thyroid
D) adrenal cortex
E) thalamus
Q2) Because a steroid hormone is nonpolar, it ____.
A) must be transported across a cell membrane with a receptor molecule
B) is equipped with specific receptor molecules
C) can dissolve in blood
D) can diffuse directly across a cell membrane
E) is an inhibiting hormone
Q3) The three stress hormones are _____.
A) cortisol, FSH, and LH
B) epinephrine, cortisol, and FSH
C) norepinephrine, cortisol, and FSH
D) epinephrine, norepinephrine, and cortisol
E) epinephrine, norepinephrine, and FSH
Q4) hypothalamus
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Chapter 35: Structural Support and Movement
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Q1) The contractile unit of a muscle is the ____.
A) sarcomere
B) myosin head
C) phosphate group
D) myofibril
E) actin filaments
Q2) Allows for a variety of movements (for example, ball-and-socket joints).
A)fibrous joint
B)cartilaginous joint
C)synovial joint
Q3) Some bones have __________ that makes blood cells.
Q4) Which of the following is true concerning the pathogen that causes tetanus?
A) The bacteria are airborne.
B) The bacteria are spread by respiration.
C) The pathogen is a virus.
D) The bacteria tend to colonize wounds.
E) The toxin produced by the pathogen prevents muscle contraction.
Q5) Signals from motor neurons result in action potentials in muscle fibers, which in turn causes the __________ to release stored calcium ions.
Q6) The spinal cord runs through, and is protected by, the __________.
Page 38
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Chapter 36: Circulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) This blood component helps to transport steroid hormones.
A)right atrium
B)left atrium
C)left ventricle
D)right ventricle
Q2) Blood passes to the lungs from this structure.
A)right atrium
B)left atrium
C)left ventricle
D)right ventricle
Q3) A circulatory system that allows some mixing of oxygenated and oxygen-poor blood is indicated by the letter(s) ____.
A) A only
B) B only
C) C only
D) A and B only
E) B and C only
Q4) The SA node, also known as the __________ spontaneously generates the action potentials that set the pace for cardiac contractions.
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Chapter 37: Immunity
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Q1) __________ are proteins, Y-shaped antigen receptors made only by __________ cells.
Q2) Which statement is true of carbon monoxide?
A) It is a waste product of photosynthesis.
B) It is always present when organic material burns.
C) It is harmless.
D) It has a strong odor.
E) It is a greenhouse gas.
Q3) These directly attack the foreign cells of an incompatible skin graft.
A)antigens
B)antibodies
C)helper T cells
D)cytotoxic T cells
E)effector B cells
Q4) Paired lungs are characteristic of ____.
A) spiders
B) all birds
C) all fishes
D) all amphibian life stages
E) all insects
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Chapter 38: Respiration
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Q1) Most of the carbon dioxide produced by the body is transported to the lungs ____.
A) in gaseous form
B) in the lymph system
C) as carbaminohemoglobin
D) in the form of bicarbonate
E) as carbonic acid
Q2) Contractions of the dome-shaped __________ and the intercostal muscles between the ribs alter the volume of the thoracic cavity during breathing.
Q3) epiglottis
Q4) Which of the following is not associated with pneumonia?
A) an inhaled allergen
B) bacteria
C) virus
D) fungi
E) shortness of breath
Q5) Why would athletes in aerobic sports benefit by training at high altitude?
Q6) left lung
Q7) intercostal muscles
Q8) Emphysema would have the greatest impact on which respiratory volume?
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Chapter 39: Digestion and Nutrition
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Q1) gastrin
A)made in the small intestine and pancreas; act on peptide fragments
B)glucose, fructose, and galactose are examples
C)made in the pancreas; acts on fats
D)made by the pancreas and salivary glands; acts on starch
E)made by the small intestine; acts on two-unit sugars
F)made by the pancreas; acts on proteins and polypeptides
G)contains cholesterol; helps emulsify fats
H)made in the stomach; acts on proteins
I)stimulates hydrochloric acid secretion
J)circular muscle; acts like valve
Q2) Calcium is a mineral that plays an important role in ____.
A) producing thyroid hormone
B) nerve function
C) intercellular signaling
D) supporting the hemoglobin molecule
E) maintaining the cell membrane
Q3) esophagus
Q4) large intestine
Q5) anus
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Chapter 40: Maintaining the Internal Environment
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Q1) Which of the following does NOT influence the pH of extracellular fluids?
A) respiration
B) a high protein diet
C) bicarbonate ions
D) excretion of filtrates
E) phosphate and ammonia ions
Q2) The hairpin turn of the nephron is the ____.
A) Bowman's capsule
B) renal medulla
C) distal tubule
D) loop of Henle
E) urethra
Q3) Acidic urine can indicate ____.
A) pregnancy
B) intoxication
C) toxins and drugs
D) metabolic problems
E) infection
Q4) Kidney __________ are small, tubular structures that interact with nearby capillaries to form urine.
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Chapter 41: Animal Reproductive Systems
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Q1) Oral contraceptives work by _____.
A) changing the pH of the uterus so sperm cannot live
B) changing the temperature of the uterus so sperm cannot live
C) blocking the entrance to the uterus
D) killing sperm
E) preventing ovulation
Q2) Chart the path of sperm from production to exit from the body.
Q3) Which statement is true regarding trichomoniasis infection?
A) It is the least curable STD.
B) It is caused by a protozoan.
C) It cannot cause infertility.
D) It has obvious symptoms.
E) It typically goes away on its own.
Q4) bulbourethral gland
Q5) urinary bladder
Q6) clitoris
Q7) A male gamete is called a(n) __________ and a female gamete is called a(n)
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Q8) During the luteal phase, a(n) __________ forms from cells that surrounded the egg.
Chapter 42: Animal Development
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Q1) __________ regulates the maturation of the mammary glands, and then oxytocin causes __________.
Q2) During pregnancy, a maternal antibody transported across the placenta to the fetal bloodstream can cause a problem if the mother ____.
A) has passed on any teratogens
B) and baby have different Rh factors
C) is producing HCG
D) smokes during pregnancy
E) uses alcohol during pregnancy
Q3) gastrulation
A)somites
B)blastomeres
C)ectoderm
D)mesoderm
E)endoderm
Q4) Nutrients and antibodies move across the placenta from mother to embryo or fetus, as do __________, which can cause birth defects.
Q5) What would happen if human chorionic gonadotropin levels did not rise adequately during pregnancy?
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Chapter 43: Animal Behavior
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Q1) The adult male who jumps overboard to save a drowning niece is exhibiting
A)imprinting
B)sexual selection
C)learned behavior
D)defense behavior
E)altruism
Q2) A garter snake learns to avoid dangerous or unpalatable prey. This is an example of
A)imprinting
B)sexual selection
C)learned behavior
D)defense behavior
E)altruism
Q3) Why are human behaviors so difficult to study?
Q4) With __________, an animal learns to associate an involuntary response to one stimulus with another stimulus.
Q5) Genes that affect the __________ system often affect behavior.
Q6) __________ behavior is altered by experience.
Q7) Chemical signals such as __________ have roles in social communication.
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