Biology for Non-Majors Exam Materials
Course Introduction
Biology for Non-Majors provides an accessible introduction to fundamental concepts in biology, tailored for students without a strong scientific background. The course covers essential topics such as the structure and function of cells, genetics, evolution, ecology, and the diversity of living organisms. Emphasis is placed on understanding the relevance of biology in everyday life, ethical issues in modern biology, and the impact of biological principles on health, the environment, and society. Through lectures, discussions, and practical activities, students develop critical thinking skills and scientific literacy needed to make informed decisions about biological issues in the world around them.
Recommended Textbook
Human Biology Concepts and Current Issues 7th Edition by Michael D. Johnson
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24 Chapters
2002 Verified Questions
2002 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Human Biology, Science, and Society
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following is a TRUE statement?
A) Molecules are considered to be the smallest unit capable of exhibiting all the characteristics of life.
B) Cells arise spontaneously from nonliving chemical elements.
C) All living things are made up of at least one cell.
D) Cells are incapable of maintaining homeostasis because they are too small.
E) Complex organisms can be unicellular.
Answer: C
Q2) The ability to stand upright and walk on two legs is termed ________.
Answer: bipedalism
Q3) Information that takes the form of a testimonial is considered to be ________, not scientific.
Answer: anecdotal
Q4) Humans can grasp objects between their thumbs and fingers because the thumb is ________.
Answer: opposable
Q5) When data are presented in a graph, independent variables such as time or age should be plotted on the ________ (abscissa/ordinate).
Answer: abscissa
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Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Living Things
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Sample Questions
Q1) The molecule with which an enzyme reacts is a(n) ________.
Answer: substrate (reactant)
Q2) Chlorine has an atomic number of 17 and an atomic mass of 35. Therefore, chlorine has ________ electrons and ________ neutrons.
A) 17, 18
B) 18, 17
C) 17, 35
D) 35, 17
E) 18, 18
Answer: A
Q3) Which one of the following is TRUE regarding enzymes?
A) Enzyme function is not affected by changes in temperature or pH.
B) Enzymes slow the rate of chemical reactions in living systems.
C) Enzymes are consumed in a chemical reaction, so an organism must constantly replace these enzymes.
D) Each enzyme catalyzes one specific reaction or group of reactions.
E) Enzymes convert products into reactants.
Answer: D
Q4) Isotopes of this element would differ in the number of ________.
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Structure and Function of Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) Glycolysis can occur in the presence or absence of oxygen.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Most of the ATP produced during cell respiration is produced during the citric acid cycle.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Oxygen and carbon dioxide are able to pass through the plasma membrane of a cell because
A) they are both polar molecules
B) both are lipid soluble
C) they move through ion pores
D) each binds to a transport protein that "pulls" it across the membrane
E) they are small and nonpolar, and readily pass between phospholipids
Answer: E
Q4) Anabolic reactions result in the ________ of large molecules and therefore ________ energy.
Answer: synthesis, require
Page 5
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Chapter 4: From Cells to Organ Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following functions is associated with one type of connective tissue?
A) contraction
B) a membrane potential
C) absorption of digestive products
D) transport
E) secretion
Q2) Connective tissue is unique because the cells secrete a(n) ________ that can be semiliquid or hardened.
Q3) In a negative feedback system, which one of the following statements is TRUE?
A) A sensor detects a stimulus, which in turn amplifies the original disturbance.
B) Deviations from a desired condition are automatically detected and counteracted.
C) Homeostasis cannot be re-established until the effector is turned off.
D) The effector activates the sensor.
E) A sensor is not needed because the body anticipates the coming change.
Q4) Cardiac muscle is located only in the ________.
Q5) These junctions join cardiac cells, allowing transfer of ions and water between cells.
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Chapter 5: The Skeletal System
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Q1) The outer surface of a bone is covered with a tough connective tissue called the
Q2) Osteoclasts dissolve the hydroxyapatite and digest the matrix during bone remodeling.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Vertebrae of the spinal cord are separated from each other by compressible, flat structures called ________.
Q4) During normal healing of broken bones, a callus forms between the two broken ends.
A)True
B)False
Q5) epiphysis
Q6) Bones are connected to other bones across a joint by A) ligaments
B) tendons
C) osteocytes
D) cartilage
E) trabeculae
Q7) location of yellow bone marrow
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Chapter 6: The Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The neurotransmitter, ________, has an excitatory effect on skeletal muscle, causing it to contract.
Q2) In the absence of ATP, a contracted muscle can't relax.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which one of the following is characteristic of cardiac and smooth muscle, but not skeletal muscle?
A) voluntary contraction
B) striated appearance
C) presence of gap junctions
D) presence of actin and myosin in muscle cells
E) contraction is initiated by motor neurons
Q4) Fast-twitch fibers contain large amounts of myoglobin and predominate in "red" muscle.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Muscles constitute 60-70% of our body mass.
A)True
B)False
Q6) What is the role of calcium ions during contraction of a skeletal muscle?
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) The practice by which athletes abuse commercial erythropoietin by injecting it to increase the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood is known as ________.
Q2) The color changes associated with a healing bruise can be attributed to the breakdown of heme groups to ________.
Q3) Foreign cells that enter human body have unique cell surface proteins, known as ________, which stimulate body's defense to attack.
A) leukocytes
B) Rh factors
C) antibodies
D) platelets
E) antigens
Q4) In addition to the circulatory system, the ________ system is also characterized by possessing a series of fluid-filled vessels.
Q5) The largest group of solutes in plasma is made up of ________.
Q6) The percentage of red blood cells compared to blood volume is known as the ________.
Q7) Fragments of cells that are important in blood clotting are called ________.
Q8) Granular and agranular describe types of ________ blood cells.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Heart and Blood Vessels
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Q1) When an athlete trains for a marathon, the goal is to increase cardiovascular output. What does that actually mean in terms of heart function?
Q2) Life-threatening aneurisms are most likely to occur in
A) veins
B) venules
C) capillaries
D) arterioles
E) arteries
Q3) Artificial hearts are used routinely today to replace damaged hearts when a donor heart is not available for transplant.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Fluid that "escapes" from the circulatory system due to high pressure is referred to as
A) digestive fluid
B) interstitial fluid
C) formed elements
D) platelets
E) aneurysm
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Chapter 9: The Immune System and Mechanisms of Defense
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Q1) Tears and saliva contain ________, an enzyme that kills bacteria.
Q2) Helicobacter pylori can survive the acidic conditions of the human stomach and have been found to cause the development of stomach ________.
Q3) Which of the following antibodies would most likely be involved with the immune response against a microorganism entering the digestive or reproductive tract?
A) IgA
B) IgD
C) IgG
D) IgM
E) IgE
Q4) All of the following are ways in which a mild fever participates as part of the body's second line of defense and aids the body EXCEPT
A) increasing the metabolic rate of body cells
B) speeding up defense reactions
C) increasing the rate of tissue repair
D) creating an inhospitable internal environment for pathogenic bacteria
E) enhancing the secretion of antibodies by plasma cells
Q5) The ________ are lymphatic tissue that protect the throat.
Page 11
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Chapter 10: The Respiratory System: Exchange of Gases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hemoglobin binds more tightly to carbon monoxide than to oxygen.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A little girl was playing in the snow one day and found that she was wiping her nose quite often. The "runny nose" that she was experiencing due to the cold temperatures resulted from
A) an insufficient production of mucus
B) an inadequate supply of blood to the nasal epithelium
C) the slowed activity of nasal cilia
D) a buildup of tears in the nasal septum
E) the inability of the sinuses to drain
Q3) The pleural cavity, which is located between the pleural membranes, contains small amounts of ________.
Q4) External respiration is the process of
A) transporting gases in the blood stream to target cells
B) exchanging air in lungs with the surrounding environment
C) moving gases into or out of the blood stream within lung tissue
D) gas uptake by target cells
E) carbon dioxide release by cells into the bloodstream
Q5) The respiratory system functions to ________ with the environment.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: The Nervous System: Integration and Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) Preganglionic motor neurons of the ________ division of the nervous system originate in the thoracic and lumbar regions of the spinal cord.
A) sympathetic
B) parasympathetic
C) central nervous system
D) paralumbar
E) cerebral cortex
Q2) ________, a type of neural information processing is depicted in the figure above.
Q3) Bacterial and viral infections of the brain are rare because of the protective nature of the ________.
Q4) By which one of the following methods is a stronger stimulus coded by neurons differently from a weaker stimulus?
A) A stronger stimulus results in greater depolarization.
B) A stronger stimulus results in more action potentials/unit time.
C) A stronger stimulus results in action potentials, which travel faster.
D) A stronger stimulus results in hyperpolarization of the neuron.
E) A stronger stimulus results in prolonged influx of Na ions and a delay before repolarization.
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Sensory Mechanisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) The human body may stop responding to a stimulus even though the original stimulus is still present; this is a process referred to as receptor adaptation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which one of the following types of receptors are most likely to be classified as "silent" receptors?
A) pain receptors
B) receptors in skin for light touch
C) joint receptors
D) chemoreceptors
E) thermoreceptors
Q3) Olfactory receptors are located in which one of the following?
A) taste buds
B) muscles
C) upper part of nasal passages
D) skin surrounding nasal openings
E) upper regions of mouth
Q4) Pain caused by a heart attack in men is often felt in the left shoulder and left arm. This phenomenon is known as ________ pain.
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Chapter 13: The Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Insufficient production of growth hormone by the anterior pituitary may result in
A) diabetes insipidus
B) a drop in blood glucose levels
C) acromegaly
D) dwarfism
E) gigantism
Q2) ovaries
Q3) Epinephrine and norepinephrine secreted by the adrenal gland enhance the response of the parasympathetic nervous system.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The ovaries of women function as endocrine organs by producing A) estrogen and progesterone
B) oxytocin
C) growth hormone
D) ADH
E) prostaglandins
Q5) Nonsteroid hormones are ________ acting than steroid hormones because they activate enzyme cascades within a cell.
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Chapter 14: The Digestive System and Nutrition
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Q1) The small, fingerlike structure that extends from the cecum is the ________.
Q2) Secretin is released by the liver to stimulate the pancreas to release bicarbonate into the small intestine.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which one of the following would likely develop in a person with celiac disease who continues to consume gluten?
A) acid reflux
B) malabsorption
C) colon polyps
D) gastric ulcer
E) duodenal ulcer
Q4) Circular rings of smooth muscle that regulate the movement of food through the gastrointestinal tract are ________.
Q5) Postmenopausal women are often advised to take the mineral ________ as a supplement to their diet in order to prevent bone loss due to osteoporosis.
Q6) The amount of energy needed by the body to perform essential functions such as breathing is the ________.
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Chapter 15: The Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) passes urine to ureter
Q2) Continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis involves the circulation of a patient's blood through an artificial kidney machine in order to remove metabolic waste and excess ions; this procedure can now be done in the home.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The internal urethral sphincter is composed of smooth muscle, and the external urethral sphincter is composed of skeletal muscle; together, they control the process of urination.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The capillaries that serve as the major blood supply to the kidneys are called the A) Bowman's capsule
B) cortex
C) proximal tubules
D) hepatic portal system
E) glomerulus
Q5) functions in ion reabsorption into blood
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Chapter 16: Reproductive Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) The seminal vesicles produce which one of the following to serve as the energy source to fuel sperm motility?
A) fat
B) fructose
C) glutamine
D) prostaglandin
E) glucose
Q2) Secretions from the bulbourethral gland lubricate and cleanse the urethra of urine residue prior to the entry of sperm.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Trichomoniasis is a bacterial infection that is sexually transmitted; chronic infection often results in blindness, damage to the nervous system, and eventually death.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The only completely effective method of birth control is ________.
Q5) The process by which eggs in a test tube are fertilized by sperm is called
Q6) The cervix is indicated by letter ________.
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Cell Reproduction and Differentiation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain the importance of checkpoints to the cell cycle.
Q2) Chromosomes first become visible as two sister chromatids held together at the centromere during which one of the following phases?
A) G
B) metaphase
C) S
D) prophase
E) anaphase
Q3) During transcription, a portion of a cell's DNA is converted to a complimentary strand of mRNA. The mRNA is eventually used as the blueprint for making one or more proteins, but not immediately. A short lag time is necessary between transcription and the initiation of translation. Why?
Q4) Although a specific codon specifies only one amino acid, several different codons can specify the same amino acid.
A)True
B)False
Q5) During translation, attachment of a "start" codon to the small ribosomal subunit constitutes the beginning of the ________ stage.
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Chapter 18: Cancer: Uncontrolled Cell Division and Differentiation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Common side effects associated with chemotherapy are due to A) fevers induced by the chemicals
B) death of cancer cells and their subsequent removal from the body
C) change in blood pH caused by the chemicals
D) death of normal cells caused by the chemicals
E) destruction of RNA in most normal cells
Q2) If an entire tumor remains localized, it is said to be a(n) ________ cancer.
Q3) Tobacco is a carcinogen that has NOT been linked to the induction of cancer in which one of the following?
A) pancreas
B) lungs
C) mouth
D) pharynx
E) liver
Q4) Mutated forms of the ________ gene (a tumor suppressor gene) are associated with cancers of the cervix, colon, skin, bladder, and breast.
Q5) An X-ray of breast tissue used in the diagnosis of breast cancer is a(n) ________.
Page 20
Q6) The "ABCD" rule is used in the detection of a(n) ________.
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Chapter 19: Genetics and Inheritance
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Q1) Failure of sister chromatids to separate properly is called
A) segregation
B) nondisjunction
C) crossing-over
D) hemophilia
E) translocation
Q2) Linked genes are not influenced by crossing-over during meiosis.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Genes for different traits located on the same chromosome are called ________.
Q4) A father is blood type B and a mother is blood type A. They have a child with blood type O. What are the genotypes of the father and mother?
A) The father must be BB and the mother must be AO.
B) The father must be BO and the mother must be AA.
C) The father must be BO and the mother must be AO.
D) The father must be BB and the mother must be AA.
E) This isn't possible.
Q5) Genes located on the same chromosome are not always inherited together because of the process of ________, which occurs during meiosis; this process "reshuffles" the genes.
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Chapter 20: DNA Technology and Genetic Engineering
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Q1) Manipulation of the genetic makeup of cells or whole organisms is known as
A) genetic analysis
B) DNA splicing
C) molecular biology
D) genetic engineering
E) genomic splicing
Q2) Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder that is caused by the lack of a gene that encodes a cell membrane protein which transports ________ ions.
Q3) During DNA replication, a(n) ________ added to a DNA template serves as the beginning site of nucleotide addition.
A) initiation codon
B) 5' OH end of sugar group
C) 3' OH end of sugar group
D) primer
E) poly A tail
Q4) In recombinant DNA technology, DNA is cut at specific nucleotide sequences by ________ enzymes.
Q5) Short single-stranded pieces of DNA called ________ attach to a DNA template to serve as the beginning site of DNA replication.
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Chapter 21: Development and Aging
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Q1) Insertion of a thin tube through the vagina into the uterus to sample fetal tissue is called ________.
Q2) The blastocyst begins to form a second hollow cavity that will eventually become the
A) placenta
B) fundus
C) amniotic cavity
D) embryonic disk
E) embryo
Q3) While normally one secondary oocyte ruptures from an ovarian follicle at ovulation, what will be the result if two are released and both are fertilized?
A) identical twins
B) single birth because only one secondary oocyte can be fertilized
C) single birth because even though both may be fertilized, only one will be able to complete development
D) fraternal twins
Q4) If an embryo implants in an organ other than the uterus, the pregnancy is said to be
Q5) Ejection of milk from the breasts is caused by the hormone ________.
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Chapter 22: Evolution and the Origins of Life
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Q1) The first step in the development of living organisms was the formation of A) DNA
B) organic molecules from gases in the atmosphere
C) enzymes
D) inorganic molecules from elements in the ocean waters
E) simple sugars
Q2) In 2004, archaeologists unearthed a female skeleton on the Indonesian island of Flores that led to its classification as a member of the genus Homo instead of Australopithecus because of
A) a bone structure that reflected a raised brow of the skeleton
B) a bone structure that suggested she was able to walk upright and her type of chewing ability
C) the presence of a furrowing suture in the occipital lobe
D) the absence of complex tools for hunting
E) the absence of frontal molars in the jaw
Q3) Dinosaurs and modern humans coexisted for about a million years.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In an evolutionary context, ________ structures do not currently have a function in present-day organisms.
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Ecosystems and Populations
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Q1) Which statement describes the expected population growth in the next 50 years?
A) The population growth will be relatively equal throughout the world.
B) The greatest population growth is likely to occur in the more industrialized countries, including the United States and Europe.
C) Most countries worldwide will achieve zero population growth in the next 10 years.
D) The greatest population growth is likely to occur in the least industrialized countries.
E) There will be a net decline of population, with the United States and other industrialized countries contributing most to the population decline.
Q2) The figure above shows an ecological pyramid. Which level of this pyramid contains the primary producers?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) C and D
Q3) The type of location where a species lives is its ________.
Q4) The ________ is an organism's role in its community.
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Chapter 24: Human Impacts, Biodiversity, and Environmental Issues
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Q1) A thermal inversion occurs when a warm stagnant air mass traps a cooler air mass containing smog beneath it.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Explain how emissions of carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide create the greenhouse effect.
Q3) Creation of sustainable ecosystems cannot be achieved through
A) decreased human consumption of everything, and thus a lower production of waste
B) developing practices of recycling reusable materials
C) a reduction in world population growth
D) decreasing poverty so that people are not consumed by immediate needs (food, shelter) and can focus more on human's long-term impact on the environment
E) greater use of natural resources
Q4) Hydrocarbons and nitrogen oxides combine with water vapor in the presence of sunlight to form a gray layer of ________.
Q5) Urbanization typically increases the extent of biodiversity.
A)True
B)False
26
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