Biology for Non-Majors Exam Materials
Course Introduction
Biology for Non-Majors provides an engaging introduction to the fundamental principles of biology, designed specifically for students without a scientific background. The course explores essential topics such as the structure and function of cells, genetics, evolution, ecology, and the diversity of living organisms. Emphasis is placed on understanding how biological concepts are relevant to everyday life and to current societal issues, such as health, environmental sustainability, and biotechnology. Through interactive lectures, hands-on activities, and practical examples, students will develop scientific literacy and a greater appreciation for the living world around them.
Recommended Textbook
Essentials of Biology 4th Edition by Sylvia S. Mader Dr
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Chapter 1: Biology: The Science of Life
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Q1) Which of the following classification categories for humans is not correct?
A) Homo sapiens: Binomial Name
B) Homo: genus
C) Animalia: Kingdom
D) sapiens: family
E) Domain: Eukarya
Answer: D
Q2) Kevin is studying predator-prey interactions.One day he notices a spider eating a cricket caught in its web.Later that day,a bird eats the spider.Based on the organisms involved in this study,what level of organization is he studying?
A) population
B) community
C) ecosystem
D) biosphere
E) cells
Answer: B
Q3) The development of new technologies is based upon science.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 2: The Chemical Basis of Life
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Q1) Elements differ from each other in their
A) physical properties only.
B) atomic number only.
C) type of subatomic particles.
D) physical properties and atomic number.
E) type of electrons.
Answer: D
Q2) Bases can
A) release only hydrogen ions.
B) take up only hydrogen ions.
C) release only hydroxide ions.
D) both take up hydrogen ions and release hydroxide ions.
E) release hydrogen and release hydroxide.
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: The Organic Molecules of Life
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Q1) The basic building block or subunit of many biological molecules is called a
A) quaternary structure.
B) polymer.
C) monomer.
D) isomer.
E) chain.
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following would describe a polypeptide?
A) fatty acids joined to glycerol by hydrolysis reactions
B) glucose molecules joined by dehydration synthesis reactions
C) nucleotides broken by hydrolysis reactions
D) amino acids joined by dehydration synthesis reactions
E) a repeated sequence of carbon and hydrogen atoms
Answer: D
Q3) In sickle cell disease,malformation of red blood cells is caused by only one mistake for one amino acid in the genetic code for hemoglobin.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Inside the Cell
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Q1) Receptor proteins
A) receive incoming nutrients and store them until they are needed by the cell.
B) only function in very specific cell types that receive sensory information.
C) transmit information from outside the cell so that the cell can respond to stimuli.
D) are found embedded in the nuclear membrane so transmit information on how to make a protein from the DNA to the cell's cytoplasm.
E) receive large molecules and transmit them through the membrane.
Q2) A tadpole that is undergoing metamophosis into a frog and losing the need for a tail would see abundant numbers of what organelle to help assist in the tail loss.
A) smooth endoplasmic reticulum
B) vacuoles
C) centrioles
D) microtubles
E) lysosomes
Q3) The plasma membrane's hydrophilic part faces the outside of the cell and the cytoplasm.
A)True
B)False
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6
Chapter 5: The Dynamic Cell
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Q1) Energy of activation
A) is the energy required for molecules to react with each other.
B) requires the use of enzymes.
C) allows for feedback inhibition.
D) acts on the products of metabolic reactions.
E) is a measure of the amount of solar radiation striking a leaf surface.
Q2) Which energy association is correct?
A) Kinetic energy is energy of motion.
B) Water stored behind a dam is an example of kinetic energy.
C) Energy in the chemical bonds of a molecule is kinetic energy.
D) Potential energy must be used immediately or it is lost.
E) Light energy is a form of chemical energy.
Q3) Considering the ATP cycle,which of the following would have the most potential energy to perform work for cell activities?
A) ATP
B) ADP
C) adenosine
D) AMP
E) H<sup>+</sup> ions
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Energy for Life
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Q1) ATP synthase derives energy for the generation of ATP from A) the movement of hydrogen ions against their concentration gradient into the thylakoid space.
B) the splitting of H<sub>2</sub>O which releases electrons.
C) solar energy captured by the light reactions changing the shape of the enzyme.
D) electrons transferred from NADPH causing the enzyme to change shape.
E) the movement of hydrogen ions down their concentration gradient from the thylakoid space to the stroma.
Q2) In photosynthesis,the light reactions ____________ while the Calvin cycle
A) capture solar energy; converts the captured energy to chemical potential energy
B) can occur only in the light; can occur only in the dark
C) require the presence of ATP; makes ATP
D) can only function if the stomata are open; can only occur if the stomata are closed
E) use products manufactured in the dark reactions; creates products used in the dark reactions
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Chapter 7: Energy for Cells
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Q1) As a result of glycolysis there is a NET gain of _______ ATPs.
A) 0
B) 2
C) 4
D) 36
E) 12
Q2) The final electron acceptor at the end of the electron transport chain is ___ resulting in formation of
A) phosphate; ATP.
B) CoA; acetyl CoA.
C) oxygen; water.
D) hydrogen; carbon dioxide.
E) pyruvate; oxygen.
Q3) ATP is invested in glycolysis to A) produce acetyl-CoA.
B) break glucose into two molecules.
C) add a phosphate group to glucose.
D) join glucose molecules together.
E) release carbon dioxide.
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Cellular Reproduction
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Q1) Which is NOT a correct association?
A) interphase-shortest stage of the cell cycle
B) S stage-DNA synthesis
C) M stage-mitosis and cytokinesis
D) G<sub>1</sub> stage-cell grows in size and cell organelles increase in number
E) G<sub>2</sub> stage-metabolic preparation for mitosis
Q2) The presence of which protein is required in order for chromatin to compact correctly within the nucleus?
A) histone
B) nucleosome
C) actin
D) chromatid
E) myosin
Q3) Cancer is a disorder in which some cells have lost the ability to control their A) size.
B) spindle fibers.
C) growth rate.
D) surface area.
E) volume.
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Meiosis and the Genetic Basis of Sexual
Reproduction
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Q1) Chromosomes that occur in pairs and code for the same traits are called _____________ chromosomes; these do not include the __________________ chromosomes which code for gender.
A) homologous; autosomes
B) autosomes; homologous
C) diploid; haploid
D) homologous: sex
E) sex; autosomes
Q2) Which of the following is not a symptom of Down syndrome?
A) increased mental abilities
B) eyelid fold
C) stubby fingers
D) short stature
E) fissured tongue
Q3) Metaphase II is more similar to metaphase of mitosis than to metaphase I because
A) in metaphase I, tetrads align together at the spindle equator.
B) in metaphase II, tetrads align separately at the spindle equator.
C) in metaphase of mitosis, tetrads align separately at the spindle equator.
D) in metaphase II, dyads align separately at the spindle equator.
E) in metaphase I, dyads align separately at the spindle equator.
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Chapter 10: Patterns of Inheritance
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Q1) Morgan breeds and sells snakes.He knows that he can make the most money by breeding and selling albino snakes.Albinism is a recessive trait.His female albino corn snake just produced six offspring.Two displayed normal coloration and four were albino.What is the chance that another offspring produced by the same parents will be albino?
A) 0%
B) 25%
C) 50%
D) 75%
E) 100%
Q2) During meiosis,each pair of alleles on the homologous chromosomes sorts independently from all other pairs of alleles.This statement corresponds to
A) the rule of multiplication.
B) the law of segregation.
C) the law of probability.
D) gene theory.
E) the law of independent assortment.
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Chapter 11: DNA Biology
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Q1) Transcription activators are different from transcription factors in that
A) transcription activators are required for RNA polymerase binding, while transcription factors slow RNA polymerase binding.
B) transcription activators accelerate transcription, while transcription factors assist RNA polymerase binding.
C) transcription activators slow transcription, while transcription factors accelerate transcription.
D) transcription factors prevent RNA polymerase binding, while transcription activators assist RNA polymerase binding.
E) transcription factors are required for RNA polymerase binding, while transcription activators accelerate transcription.
Q2) Signal transduction pathways can stimulate transcription activators.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The genetic code in bacteria is different than the genetic code in animals and plants.
A)True
B)False
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13
Chapter 12: Biotechnology and Genomics
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Q1) When DNA fingerprinting is performed,why might an individual possess two different numbers of repeats for the same chromosomal region?
A) Intergenic DNA may vary from one cell to another in the same individual.
B) The individual has different numbers of the same repeated sequence on each homologous chromosome.
C) The sample is contaminated with the DNA of another individual.
D) Each sister chromatid of a chromosome may contain different numbers of repeats.
E) It is not possible for this to occur.
Q2) Organisms that have had foreign genes inserted into them are called transgenic organisms.
A)True
B)False
Q3) After 12 PCR cycles how many DNA strands would be available?
A) 4096
B) 2048
C) 1024
D) 512
E) 256
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Chapter 13: Genetic Counseling
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Q1) A translocation chromosomal mutation is the exchange of segments between two homologous chromosomes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Mutations are uncommon because
A) DNA repair enzymes often repair errors.
B) physical mutagens such as X-rays seldom damage DNA.
C) DNA is able to repair itself over time.
D) frameshift mutations occur very frequently.
E) transposons are constantly moving throughout the genome.
Q3) Which one of the following diseases or disorders has not been treated using gene therapy methods?
A) rheumatoid arthritis
B) familial hypercholesterolemia
C) cri du chat syndrome
D) sickle cell disease
E) Duchenne muscular dystrophy
Q4) Mutations within genes always result in non-functional proteins.
A)True
B)False
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Darwin and Evolution
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Q1) The fossil similarity of the extinct glyptodont to the living,modern armadillo is an example of comparative anatomy.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The theory of evolution,is supported by multiple sources of evidence described by many different people,and by a variety of fields of study.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What do fossils of transitional links illustrate?
A) All life is related.
B) Shared characters of two distinct groups show that those groups are related.
C) Convergent evolution occurred in ancient past.
D) Natural selection happened long ago just as it does today.
E) All transitional links are now extinct.
Q4) Environmental catastrophes are a requirement of natural selection. A)True B)False
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Chapter 15: Evolution on a Small Scale
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Q1) In the Hardy-Weinberg formula,what does q<sup>2</sup> represent?
A) frequency of the dominant allele
B) frequency of the recessive allele
C) frequency of the heterozygotes
D) frequency of the homozygous dominants
E) frequency of the homozygous recessives
Q2) What is the genotype of an individual that is lives in protection from both sickle cell disease and malaria?
A) Hb<sup>A</sup>Hb<sup>A</sup>
B) Hb<sup>A</sup>Hb<sup>S</sup>
C) Hb<sup>S</sup>Hb<sup>S</sup>
D) Hb<sup>S</sup> Hb<sup>s</sup>
E) Hb<sup>A</sup> Hb<sup>a</sup>
Q3) What characteristic do a bottleneck and a founder effect have in common?
A) Both encounter a population crash.
B) Both involve a portion of a population becoming isolated.
C) Both involve a decrease in a population's genetic diversity.
D) Both affect the entire population.
E) Both are a type of natural selection.
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Chapter 16: Evolution on a Large Scale
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Q1) Homologous structures
A) have identical functions.
B) have fully divergent functions.
C) are also called analogous structures.
D) are shared by organisms of the same genus.
E) are often shared by organisms in the same line of descent.
Q2) Which of the following statements is true about the phylogenetic tree shown here?
A) The gibbon is more closely related to the rhesus monkey than to the chimpanzee.
B) The galago is more closely related to the green monkey than to the capuchin.
C) The green monkey and rhesus monkey share a common ancestor with the gibbon and chimpanzee.
D) The gibbon does not share a common ancestor with the chimpanzee or human.
E) The green monkey and rhesus monkey share a more recent common ancestor than do the chimpanzee and human.
Q3) Geographic isolation is not a factor in sympatric speciation.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: The Microorganisms: Viruses, bacteria, and Protists
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Q1) Viroids and prions are alike in that both are infectious
A) cell types.
B) proteins.
C) molecules.
D) DNA.
E) RNA.
Q2) What feature enables the paramecium to move?
A) cilia
B) contractile vacuole
C) flagella
D) nucleus
E) pseudopodia
Q3) Which means of genetic recombination in bacteria often makes use of pili?
A) transformation
B) transduction
C) conjugation
D) both transformation and transduction
E) translocation
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Chapter 18: Land Environment: Plants and Fungi
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Q1) The fermentation capabilities of _____ are used to produce bread and alcoholic beverages.
A) yeasts
B) chytrids
C) lichens
D) mycorrhizal fungi
E) molds
Q2) Which structure is the anther?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
Q3) Which of these would you expect to thrive in areas with abundant moisture?
A) ferns only
B) mosses only
C) lycophytes only
D) mosses and ferns but not lycophytes
E) mosses, ferns, and lycophytes
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Both Water and Land: Animals
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Q1) Ascaris is considered to be a(n)
A) roundworm.
B) flatworm.
C) earthworm.
D) cnidarian.
E) arthropod.
Q2) Which feature is not found in the lophotrochozoa?
A) As embryos they have two germ layers that develop into their body systems.
B) Aquatic lifestyle.
C) Bilaterally symmetrical during some stage of their development.
D) Use a lophophore as a feeding apparatus.
E) They are protostomes.
Q3) Amphibians are the descendants of
A) ray-finned fishes.
B) cartilaginous fishes.
C) lobe-finned fishes.
D) hagfishes.
E) reptiles.
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21
Chapter 20: Plant Anatomy and Growth
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Q1) Herbaceous eudicot stems differ from woody stems because herbaceous eudicot stems
A) do not contain cork cambium.
B) lack an organized pith.
C) initiate branching from the cortex, rather than from the cork cambium.
D) do not contain distinct vascular bundles.
E) contain scattered vascular bundles rather than containing vascular bundles in a ring.
Q2) Which type of vascular tissue will contain vessel elements in order to transport water and minerals?
A) Xylem
B) Phloem
C) Tracheids
D) Parenchyma cells
E) Collenchyma cells
Q3) Micronutrients that are needed by plants as enzyme cofactors are also needed by humans for the same reason.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 21: Plant Responses and Reproduction
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Q1) If ethylene is applied to a bushel of apples,what is most likely to occur?
A) The fruit will ripen.
B) The apple seeds will go into a state of dormancy.
C) The seeds will germinate.
D) The fruit will retain its' water for a longer period of time.
E) The apple stem will fall off.
Q2) Which of the following is not an advantage of genetically engineered plants?
A) decrease yield
B) herbicide resistance
C) salt tolerance
D) drought tolerance
E) disease protection
Q3) Plants are naturally able to reproduce asexually because they contain meristematic tissue.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A monocot seed consists of a seed coat,two cotyledons,an embryo,and an endosperm.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: Being Organized and Steady
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Q1) Which body system produces red blood cells?
A) cardiovascular
B) lymphatic
C) skeletal
D) muscular
E) endocrine
Q2) Which of the following is a function of the blood?
A) stores fat
B) moves the body
C) transports nutrients
D) lines body cavities
E) produces mucus
Q3) To enter the body,substances have to pass through connective tissue cells to reach the tissues beneath.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Blood is classified as connective tissue because of its fluid matrix called plasma.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 23: The Transport Systems
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT true about platelets?
A) They form clumps in leaks in blood vessels.
B) They produce prothrombin activator.
C) They contract within a clot.
D) They phagocytize pathogens.
E) They are actual fragments of a larger type of cell.
Q2) What is the first step in the formation of a blood clot?
A) The platelets form a plug.
B) Prothrombin activator is released.
C) Prothrombin is converted into thrombin.
D) Fibrin threads are formed.
E) Red blood cells are trapped in fibrin threads.
Q3) Which organism has an open circulatory system?
A) grasshopper
B) frog
C) eagle
D) human
E) shark
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Chapter 24: The Maintenance Systems
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Q1) Which of the following is the correct path urine follows from internal structures to outside the body?
A) renal cortex - urethra - urinary bladder - ureter
B) urinary bladder - renal pelvis - ureter - urethra
C) renal pelvis - ureter - urinary bladder - urethra
D) ureter - renal pelvis - urinary bladder - urethra
E) ureter - urinary bladder - renal pelvis - urethra
Q2) In the figure shown here,the area represented by letter "D"
A) is where blood is filtered to form urine.
B) is the area where urine formed by nephrons is collected.
C) is where arterial blood is brought into the kidneys.
D) is the renal cortex.
E) is the renal medulla.
Q3) Food in the digestive tract is called chyme after
A) the tongue mixes it with saliva.
B) the stomach processes it.
C) all nutrients have been absorbed by the small intestines.
D) elimination through the anus.
E) it is chewed by the teeth.
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Page 26
Chapter 25: Human Nutrition
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Q1) Which of the following pieces of nutritional information is not listed on the nutritional label of a food package?
A) Daily % of water available in the food.
B) Daily % of protein available in the food.
C) Daily % of fat available in the food.
D) Serving size per container.
E) Calories based upon serving size.
Q2) Which of the following substances is NOT correctly matched with its caloric value?
A) carbohydrate - 4 kcal/gram
B) fat - 4 kcal/gram
C) water - 0 kcal/gram
D) protein - 4 kcal/gram
E) fiber - 0 kcal/gram
Q3) Trans fats are
A) found naturally in animals.
B) found naturally in plants.
C) produced by hydrogenating unsaturated oils.
D) produced by hydrogenating saturated fats.
E) produced by hydrogenating animal fats.
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Chapter 26: Defenses Against Disease
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Q1) AIDS is caused by
A) the human immunodeficiency virus that destroys helper T cells.
B) the human immunodeficiency virus that stimulates apoptosis of immune system cells.
C) allergens that stimulate helper T cells to produce cytokines.
D) bacteria that destroy lymphocytes in the bone marrow.
E) the human immunodeficiency virus that destroys macrophages.
Q2) Which of the following is not a lymphatic organ?
A) thymus
B) spleen
C) pancreas
D) bone marrow
E) lymph node
Q3) T lymphocytes
A) migrate from the thymus to the bone marrow where they mature.
B) which recognize "self-cells" leave the thymus and enter lymphatic vessels and organs.
C) must have the antigen presented to them by an antigen presenting cell.
D) develop into plasma cells once activated.
E) are a component of the bodies nonspecific immune defenses.
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Page 28
Chapter 27: The Control Systems
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Q1) Which hormone stimulates milk letdown?
A) prolactin (PRL)
B) luteinizing hormone (LH)
C) oxytocin
D) follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
E) estrogen
Q2) There is a hormone that helps to maintain your blood glucose level between breakfast and lunch.What is it?
A) insulin
B) glucagon
C) parathyroid hormone (PTH)
D) thyroxine
E) epinephrine
Q3) Transmission across the synaptic cleft is accomplished by chemical signals called A) hormones.
B) exocrine secretions.
C) enzymes.
D) stimulants.
E) neurotransmitters.
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Page 29
Chapter 28: Sensory Input and Motor Output
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Q1) At a synovial joint,the bones are bound together by A) tendons.
B) osteons.
C) sarcomeres.
D) ligaments.
E) hinges.
Q2) Which bone belongs to the appendicular skeleton?
A) skull
B) vertebra
C) rib
D) sternum
E) scapula
Q3) If you sprain your ankle,that means
A) the meniscus is torn.
B) the bursa has become inflamed.
C) the articular cartilage has worn away.
D) your immune system has attacked the ankle joint.
E) the ligaments and tendons at the ankle joint have been overstretched.
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Chapter 29: Reproduction and Embryonic Development
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Q1) A pregnant woman has passed her due date,and her cervix is dilated.This indicates which stage of childbirth?
A) first
B) second
C) third
D) fourth
E) fifth
Q2) Which of the following structures does not belong to the reproductive system?
A) oviduct
B) ovary
C) cervix
D) bladder
E) vagina
Q3) What percentage of infertility is attributed to problems associated with both the male and female in the couple?
A) 20%
B) 40%
C) 90%
D) 10%
E) 30%
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Chapter 30: Ecology and Populations
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Q1) Different populations living in the same geographical region is a(n)
A) organism.
B) population.
C) community.
D) ecosystem.
E) biosphere.
Q2) Prairie dogs are highly social,burrow dwelling rodents.Families have a strict social hierarchy and their "towns" can span hundreds of acres.In one colony,750 animals live in a 500m<sup>2</sup> area.What is the population density?
A) 15
B) 1.5
C) 150
D) 2.5
E) 25
Q3) Which of the following is true about populations with a negative growth rate?
A) The death rate exceeds the birth rate.
B) The population will remain the same size for several generations.
C) The age structure diagram looks like a pyramid.
D) The population has reached its carrying capacity.
E) The majority of the population is prereproductive.
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Chapter 31: Communities and Ecosystems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an example of species richness?
A) vultures feeding on the remains of a carcass
B) herd of 60 elk, 6 bald eagles and 90 white pine trees
C) prairie chickens at a lake competing for access to mates
D) diving beetles, blue gill, lilies, water mites, crayfish
E) 100 kg of vegetation, 10 kg of grasshoppers, 1 kg of spiders
Q2) Which of the following is an example of primary succession?
A) new growth in a forest after a forest fire
B) regrowth and recolonization on Mt. St. Helens in areas covered with rock and lava
C) a wheat field that is not is allowed to grow wild
D) regrowth of vegetation in an area covered by a mud slide after flooding
E) colonization of an isolated island by a population of long-horned beetles
Q3) All of the following are true about ecosystems EXCEPT
A) chemicals are constantly recycled and reused.
B) chemicals are converted from one form to another.
C) energy is constantly recycled.
D) energy is required continuously because some energy is lost.
E) the ultimate source of energy is the sun.
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Chapter 32: Human Impact on the Biosphere
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Q1) Desertification and deforestation are similar in that both involve
A) overpopulation of an area by humans.
B) loss of plant and animal life in an area.
C) lack of rainfall in an area.
D) overgrowth of undesirable plants in an area.
E) loss of wetland habitats.
Q2) Which of the following is a drawback to the use of hydropower?
A) Hydropower consumes more fossil fuels than power plants fueled solely by fossil fuels.
B) More countries derive more power from fossil fuels as compared to hydropower.
C) Hydropower causes more pollution than fossil fuels, such as coal or oil.
D) Hydropower is less efficient as compared to fossil fuels, such as coal or oil.
E) Water levels below dams are reduced, and large dams disrupt upstream ecosystems.
Q3) Beach erosion is often caused by structures built to prevent erosion.
A)True
B)False
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