Biology for Non-Majors Exam Materials
Course Introduction
Biology for Non-Majors offers an engaging overview of fundamental biological concepts tailored for students without a strong science background. The course covers topics such as cell structure and function, genetics, evolution, ecology, and the diversity of living organisms. Special emphasis is placed on real-world applications of biology, ethical considerations, and how biological principles impact daily life, health, and society. Through lectures, discussions, and interactive activities, students will develop scientific literacy and critical thinking skills necessary to understand and appreciate the role of biology in the modern world.
Recommended Textbook
Biology Now 1st Edition by Anne Houtman
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Nature of Science
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Sample Questions
Q1) DNA is one of the features common to all known forms of life;
A)it forms the protective outer membrane of cells.
B)it is produced expressly for reproduction and is found only in egg and sperm.
C)it is the blueprint that guides the growth, development, behavior, and reproduction of all organisms.
D)its absence in viruses is the basis for classifying them as nonliving.
Answer: C
Q2) Land biomes are most commonly defined by
A)their climate, physical characteristics, and dominant animal life.
B)only the dominant plant life in them.
C)the dominant plant life that influences the dominant animal life in them.
D)their climate and physical characteristics which influence the dominant plant life and, subsequently, animal life in them.
Answer: D
Q3) The genetic material used for reproduction by those organisms conventionally considered to be living is ________.
Answer: DNA
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3
Chapter 2: Chemistry of Life
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Q1) In the laboratory you identify protein in a food item that you've tested. Which of the following must the food item also contain?
A)glucose
B)lipids
C)amino acids
D)nucleotides
Answer: C
Q2) The central element found in organic molecules is
A)calcium.
B)carbon.
C)silicon.
D)sodium.
Answer: B
Q3) form the major framework of biological membranes
A)lipids
B)carbohydrates
C)nucleic acids
D)proteins
Answer: A
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Life Is Cellular
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Q1) Which of the following statements is true of chloroplasts?
A)They produce proteins used by other parts of the cell.
B)They capture energy from sunlight.
C)They give an animal cell its shape.
D)They contain an entire copy of a cell's genetic material.
Answer: B
Q2) All cells have a ________ that acts as a barrier separating the cellular components from the external environment.
Answer: plasma membrane
Q3) Ribosomes are very small nonmembranous organelles that can either exist freely in the cytoplasm or be embedded in the endoplasmic reticulum of a cell; they are associated with the synthesis of A)lipids.
B)proteins.
C)nucleic acids.
D)carbohydrates.
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: How Cells Work
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Q1) ________ reactions release energy by breaking down complex molecules.
A)Catabolic
B)Anabolic
C)Photosynthetic
D)Respiration
Q2) Chemical reactions that break down lipids are
A)catabolic.
B)anabolic.
C)metabolic.
D)respiration.
Q3) A mutation in a plant cell produces rubisco enzymes, which can only bind O (and not CO ). What would be the outcome of this mutation?
Q4) What is the importance of photosynthesis to organisms other than plants?
A)All other organisms require carbon dioxide for life processes.
B)The sugars made during photosynthesis are building blocks of DNA.
C)All cells must have chloroplasts in order to survive.
D)Photosynthesis captures energy that other organisms access when they eat either plants or organisms that eat plants.
Q5) produces light energy
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Chapter 5: Cell Division
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Q1) Chromosomes are lined up at the middle of the cell during the ________ portion of cell division.
A)metaphase
B)anaphase
C)interphase
D)telophase
Q2) S phase
A)Duplicated chromosomes are separated during this phase.
B)Cells prepare to divide and check that the proper steps have occurred for division.
C)Phase in which cells duplicate the genetic material.
D)Resting stage assumed by cells that exit the cell cycle.
E)Two new daughter cells grow in preparation for division.
Q3) Binary fission is the form of asexual reproduction that mainly occurs in ________ cells.
Q4) Cells spend the bulk of their time in the ________ phase of the cell cycle.
Q5) In order to increase their supply of nutrients, tumors undergo ________, the formation of new blood vessels.
Q6) Chromosomes decondense and nuclear envelopes form during the ________ portion of mitosis.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Patterns of Inheritance
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Q1) The individual who used data from breeding garden peas to discover the patterns of inheritance that form the foundation of modern-day genetics was ________.
Q2) Which of the following is true for mutations?
A)Mutations will affect the genotype without affecting the phenotype.
B)Mutations will affect the phenotype without affecting the genotype.
C)Mutations will affect the genotype, which may affect the phenotype.
D)Mutations will affect the phenotype, which may affect the genotype.
Q3) Consider a gene with two alleles that show complete dominance. When two heterozygotes for this gene breed, they have a 25 percent chance of producing a homozygous recessive offspring. The next time these two individuals breed, what are the chances that they will once again have a homozygous recessive progeny?
A)0 percent
B)25 percent
C)50 percent
D)75 percent
Q4) Most traits in humans involve complex inheritance where the trait is governed by the action of more than one ________.
Q5) The genetic makeup of an organism, such as Gg, is its ________.
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Chapter 7: Chromosomes and Human Genetics
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Q1) An allele that "hides" in heterozygous carriers is called a ________ allele.
Q2) If two parents are heterozygous for an autosomal recessive disease, A)they are both considered genetic carriers for the disease. B)their children have no chance of inheriting the disease. C)their children have a 50 percent chance of inheriting the disease. D)all of their children will also be heterozygous.
Q3) Human males have one chromosome that females do not, known as the ________ chromosome.
Q4) If a genetic disorder is caused by a dominant allele, individuals with which of the following genotypes would be affected by the disorder?
A)AA and aa
B)aa and Aa
C)AA and Aa
D)AA, Aa, and aa
Q5) A man with a translocation in a chromosome that does not affect gene function may not realize he has a translocation until he attempts to have a child. Explain how a translocation that does not affect the individual may become problematic during reproduction.
Q6) Why are dominant genetic disorders more rare than recessive disorders?
Page 9
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Chapter 8: What Genes Are
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Q1) Along one side of a DNA molecule, the nucleotides are connected to each other by
A)covalent bonds between phosphate groups and sugar molecules.
B)hydrogen bonds between adenine and guanine.
C)covalent bonds between bases and sugar molecules.
D)hydrogen bonds between adjacent sugar molecules.
Q2) What part of a nucleotide accounts for the genetic variation between individuals?
A)sugar
B)phosphate
C)base
D)polymerase
Q3) The adenine bases in a DNA molecule are radioactively labeled. The DNA is then placed in a solution containing unlabeled nucleotides and the enzymes needed for DNA replication. The DNA molecule is allowed to replicate twice, forming four new DNA molecules. You would find the radioactively labeled adenine in A)each of the eight strands.
B)two of the eight strands.
C)all but one strand.
D)six of the eight strands.
Q4) The enzyme that copies DNA is called ________.
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Chapter 9: How Genes Work
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Q1) If a molecule of mRNA is a sentence, its bases are the letters and the codons are the
Q2) Which of the following is a codon?
A)U
B)UU
C)UUU
D)UUUU
Q3) The mRNA molecules are broken down quickly.
A)Transcription is up-regulated
B)Transcription is down-regulated
C)Translation is up-regulated
D)Translation is down-regulated
Q4) The genetic code is ________, which means that all cells use the same code.
Q5) As transcription begins, RNA polymerase binds to a segment of a gene called a(n) A)promoter.
B)intron.
C)start codon.
D)anticodon.
Q6) A protein that binds to the________ down-regulates protein production by inhibiting the binding of RNA polymerase.
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Evidence for Evolution
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Q1) Dolphin embryos have both forelimbs, which will become the flippers, and hind limbs, which will not develop. Explain how this supports the conclusion that dolphins are related to humans.
Q2) Tails are found
A)in all embryos.
B)only in adults and begin forming late in development.
C)only in embryos of organisms that will have a tail as adults.
D)in embryos of a wide variety of organisms, some of which have a tail as adults and others do not.
Q3) The result of ________ over evolutionary time spans is that alleles that allow organisms to survive and reproduce at a higher rate than other individuals become more common in the population.
A)natural selection
B)artificial selection
C)homology
D)gene flow
Q4) The study of organisms prior to birth or hatching is called ________.
Q5) The increase in antibiotic resistance in E. coli as a result of treating healthy animals with antibiotics is an example of ________ driving evolution.
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Chapter 11: Mechanisms of Evolution
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Q1) New alleles arise by
A)nonrandom mating.
B)allele frequency.
C)genetic drift.
D)mutation.
Q2) Both mammals and octopi have evolved similar eye structures. This is an example of
A)convergent evolution.
B)divergent evolution.
C)disruptive selection.
D)directional selection.
Q3) Two populations of mice exist: one lives in an area with light rocks and the other lives in an area of dark rocks. A dark mouse from the population living on dark rocks migrates to the area of light rocks and breeds with mice there. Will this alter the allele frequency in the population? Discuss both changes that may or may not be seen in the next generation and in following generations.
Q4) Evaluate the accuracy of the following statement: The natural selection of a prey species can be altered if a new predator is introduced. Explain how you reached your conclusion.
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Chapter 12: Adaptation and Species
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Q1) Some freshwater snail eggs are accidentally introduced into a new habitat that is geographically isolated from the original population. Which of the following must occur before these snails are described as two separate species?
A)gene flow
B)sympatric speciation
C)adaptation
D)genetic divergence
Q2) Adaptive evolution
A)is large-scale movement of a single species over a new geographic area.
B)occurs when a more adapted species causes the extinction of a less adapted one.
C)is the process by which natural selection improves the match between an organism and its environment over time.
D)is an increase in the adaptiveness of many species that have already evolved.
Q3) Using reproductive isolation as a method of defining a species is NOT useful for A)species whose ranges overlap.
B)species that cannot produce hybrids.
C)organisms known only from fossils.
D)organisms that reproduce sexually.
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Chapter 13: The History of Life
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Q1) The Cambrian explosion occurred primarily in the oceans. Which of the following were the first challenges that had to be overcome during the mass colonization of dry land in the Ordovician period?
A)support of body structure without buoyancy in water, movement, and reproduction
B)photosynthesis, cellular respiration, and reproduction
C)DNA replication, photosynthesis, and cellular respiration
D)DNA replication, phagocytosis, and cellular respiration
Q2) The first eukaryotes evolved approximately ________ years ago.
A)200,000
B)200 million
C)2 billion
D)2 trillion
Q3) The most recent mass extinction, which occurred during the Cretaceous period, may have been caused by
A)extra heat from the sun.
B)the pull of the moon on Earth.
C)the dinosaurs.
D)an asteroid hitting Earth.
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15
Chapter 14: Human Evolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) If your mitochondrial DNA was sequenced and compared to the sequence of mitochondrial DNA isolated from your mother's paternal grandmother (the mother of your mom's dad) would you expect to see a significant match to yours and why?
A)No, there would not be a significant match because my mitochondrial DNA was inherited from my mom who inherited it from her mom.
B)No, there would not be a significant match because my mitochondrial DNA was inherited from my dad who inherited it from his mom.
C)Yes, there would be a significant match because I inherited my mitochondrial DNA from my dad who inherited it from his mom.
D)Yes, there would be a significant match because I inherited my mitochondrial DNA from my mom who inherited from her dad.
Q2) All of your mitochondrial DNA was inherited from your ________.
Q3) In the eighteenth century, a Swedish naturalist devised a system of biological classification known as ________.
Q4) List in order from most exclusive to most inclusive the seven levels of the Linnaean hierarchy of biological classification.
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Page 16
Chapter 15: General Principles of Ecology
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Q1) Which study below focuses on the biosphere?
A)a study measuring how introducing wolves into an area affects the deer population
B)a study measuring how building a dam affects plants and animal populations in an area
C)a study measuring how human habitation has changed then population size of caribou in a decade
D)a study measuring how acidification of the oceans affects aquatic and terrestrial organisms
Q2) In comparison to past estimates, extinction rates are currently high. Which of the following is the most plausible explanation?
A)Natural fluctuations in climate causes extinctions.
B)Continental drift is causing rapid changes in climate, which, in turn, causes extinctions.
C)Previous extinctions make survival of contemporary species more difficult.
D)Humans are affecting many aspects of the global environment.
Q3) The biosphere is defined as all the living organisms on Earth along with the ________ in which they live.
Q4) Describe how a decrease in plant populations can affect the water cycle.
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17
Chapter 16: Growth of Populations
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Q1) China's population ________ is 137 people per square kilometer.
Q2) When an isolated population reaches its carrying capacity
A)the birth rate > the death rate.
B)the birth rate = the death rate.
C)the birth rate < the death rate.
D)It is not possible to generalize these values.
Q3) number of individuals within a population per unit of area
A)population size
B)population density
C)carrying capacity
D)logistic growth
E)exponential growth
Q4) A new species is introduced into a given area. The population size begins to grow slowly, then at a very rapid rate, and finally levels off at a stable number. This growth pattern is best represented by a(n)
A)oscillating cycle.
B)J-shaped population curve.
C)C-shaped population curve.
D)S-shaped population curve.
Q5) Explain why logistic growth curves have an "S" shape.
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Communities of Organisms
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Q1) A species of bat is removed from a community when it is hunted to extinction. Within two years scientists notice seeds from several plants are no longer germinating. The bat was a
A)community defining species.
B)keystone species.
C)primary consumer.
D)producer.
Q2) A "keystone" is defined in masonry as the stone at the top of an arch that holds the arch together. Using this definition and your knowledge of keystone species, explain how the role of a keystone species within an ecological community is analogous to the keystone within an arch.
Q3) Antibiotic therapy sometimes reduces the population of gut-inhabiting microorganisms. Bloating and diarrhea often follow until the populations reestablish themselves. This observation suggests that these microorganisms participate in a(n) ________ relationship with humans.
A)competitive
B)exploitative
C)mutualistic
D)pathogenic
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Ecosystems
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Q1) Rabbits, foxes, tapeworms, and fungi are all examples of A)consumers.
B)primary producers.
C)abiotic ecosystem components.
D)photosynthesizers.
Q2) If there are 5,000,000 kcal of energy stored in grain that could be fed either to beef cattle or humans and you choose to feed the grain to the cattle to fatten them up for the humans, how many kcal would now be available as beef to feed the humans?
A)500,000
B)50,000
C)5,000
D)500
Q3) If there are 50 kcal of energy in the tertiary consumer trophic level, how many kcal would you expect to find in the primary consumer level?
A)50
B)100
C)500
D)5,000
Q4) Describe how chemical nutrients enter and are recycled through an ecosystem.
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Chapter 19: Homeostasis, Reproduction, and Development
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Q1) organ where zygote implants and embryo gestates
A)oviduct
B)vagina
C)uterus
D)penis
E)ovary
F)testes
Q2) In humans, the average time period for development from zygote to completion is ________ weeks.
Q3) Which of the following statements accurately distinguishes tissues from organs?
A)Organs consist of cells, whereas tissues do not.
B)Organs are limited to one location in the human body, whereas most tissues move throughout the body.
C)Each organ performs multiple functions, whereas a designated tissue performs only one function.
D)Organs consist of multiple tissue types, whereas tissues consist of one or more cell types.
Q4) In homeostatic regulation, cells seek to ensure relatively constant conditions by maintaining a normal state called the ________.
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Chapter 20: Digestive, Muscular, and Skeletal Systems
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Q1) Which of the following nutrients have the lowest energy content per gram?
A)fats
B)vitamins
C)proteins
D)carbohydrates
Q2) vitamin A
A)Deficiency of this vitamin reduces calcium absorption and leads to poor formation of bones and teeth.
B)This vitamin is used to produce visual pigments in the eyes.
C)This vitamin protects lipids in cell membranes.
D)Deficiency of this vitamin leads to scurvy.
E)Deficiency of this vitamin affects the ability to control bleeding.
Q3) Ligaments are connective tissue that connects ________ to bone.
Q4) A genetic mutation has altered a signaling molecule found embedded within cell membranes. This signaling molecule is most likely a A)protein.
B)carbohydrate.
C)fat.
D)dietary fiber.
Q5) The ________ supplies digestive enzymes and bicarbonate to the small intestine.
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Circulatory, Respiratory, Urinary, and Nervous Systems
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Q1) The pulmonary ________ carries ________ blood from the heart to the lungs. A)vein; oxygen-rich
B)artery; oxygen-rich C)vein; oxygen-poor
D)artery; oxygen-poor
Q2) Air that is entering the lungs has
A)a higher concentration of carbon dioxide than air in an alveolus.
B)a higher concentration of both carbon dioxide and oxygen than air in an alveolus.
C)a higher concentration of oxygen and a lower concentration of carbon dioxide than air in an alveolus.
D)a lower concentration of oxygen but the same concentration of carbon dioxide as air in an alveolus.
Q3) List the path for blood flow through the heart, lungs, and body, beginning and ending in the heart chamber that receives oxygen-poor blood returning from the body. Your answer should include the specific heart chambers, the lungs, and the body.
Q4) Receptors in the eye that provide vision are called ________.
Q5) The thalamus is part of the ________ nervous system.
Page 23
Q6) Trace the pathway of air from the nose to the site of gas exchange in the lungs.
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Chapter 22: Endocrine and Immune Systems
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Q1) How do B cells and T cells differ in their response to pathogens?
Q2) By what mechanism do most hormones travel through the organism that produces them?
A)the circulatory system
B)diffusion
C)the nervous system
D)the urinary system
Q3) secrete antibodies in response to foreign molecules
A)macrophages
B)mucous membranes
C)cytokines
D)B cells
E)lymph nodes
F)platelets
Q4) Upon first exposure to a pathogen, a ________ immune response is triggered.
Q5) Once a hormone enters the bloodstream, it
A)is usually broken down within minutes.
B)remains active for months.
C)is broken down after it has performed its function on the target cells.
D)produces enzymes that affect target cells.
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Chapter 23: Plant Physiology
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Q1) Which of the following plants is a monocot?
A)a carnation
B)grass
C)an oak tree
D)a rose
Q2) stomata
A)This structure transports water.
B)This structure transports sugars.
C)This structure controls gas exchange.
D)This structure is a protective outer covering.
E)This structure conducts photosynthesis.
Q3) A plant whose seeds are dispersed by animals most likely produces
A)small, soft seeds.
B)small, light seeds.
C)large, dense seeds.
D)large, sugary seeds.
Q4) The hormone ________ is a gas produced by ripening fruit, and it can induce other fruits nearby to ripen.
Q5) Contrast how the growth patterns of plants and animals help each type of organism respond to predators.
25
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Chapter 24: Applying the Science
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Q1) Which of the following statements about the process of science is NOT accurate?
A)Science is a systematic method of procedures designed to answer questions by evaluating empirical evidence.
B)Science attempts to solve a problem by systematically evaluating the plausibility of various solutions.
C)Science enables us to advance our understanding of evidence and data collected.
D)Science can answer all questions regarding the human experience and personal values.
Q2) A large biotech company would like to market a microbe that will help clean up oil spills in the ocean by actually consuming and detoxifying the oil. Would this research be "basic" or "applied"? Explain your answer.
Q3) Scientists at a major university are attempting to isolate the gene that slows the degeneration of collagen in skin. This is an example of A)applied research.
B)basic research.
C)meta-analysis.
D)case-control study.
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