Biology for Non-Majors
Exam Answer Key
Course Introduction
Biology for Non-Majors introduces students to the fundamental concepts of living systems, designed specifically for those without extensive scientific backgrounds. The course covers the essentials of cell structure and function, genetics, evolution, ecology, and organismal biology, emphasizing real-world applications and the importance of biology in everyday life. Through lectures, discussions, and hands-on activities, students develop scientific literacy and critical thinking skills, gaining an understanding of how biological principles relate to health, the environment, and society.
Recommended Textbook
Discover Biology Core Topics 4th Edition by Michael L. Cain LU;,SDK
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Chapter 1: The Nature of Science and the Characteristics of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) A _______ is constructed from a molecule of genetic material contained within a capsule of protein.
Answer: virus
Q2) Because the brain is constructed from nerve cells it is considered an organ.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) DNA is one of the features common to all known forms of life;
A) it forms the protective outer membrane of cells.
B) it is produced expressly for reproduction and is found only in egg and sperm.
C) it is the blueprint that guides the growth, development, behavior, and reproduction of all organisms.
D) its absence in viruses is the basis for classifying them as nonliving.
Answer: C
Q4) Advantageous features that evolve over time and help an organism survive or reproduce are called _______.
Answer: adaptations
Q5) A _______ is a group of individuals belonging to the same species.
Answer: population
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Chapter 2: Organizing the Diversity of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) The organisms farthest from the base of an evolutionary tree are
A) unrelated to the organisms separated by one or more branch points.
B) less primitive than the organisms lower on the tree.
C) those that have evolved most recently.
D) chronologically older than the organisms lower on the tree.
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following would contain the most closely related group of phyla?
A) class
B) order
C) genus
D) kingdom
Answer: D
Q3) DNA analysis has confirmed the relationships among most species well beyond any reasonable doubt.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) _______ is the science of naming and classifying organisms and determining the relationships among them.
Answer: Systematics
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Chapter 3: Major Groups of Living Organisms
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Q1) The most ancient of the Eukarya are
A) Fungi.
B) Animalia.
C) Protista.
D) Plantae.
Answer: C
Q2) The defining feature of the angiosperms is the _______.
Answer: flower
Q3) The kingdom Protista is quite diverse and the relationship between its various members is unclear. The best method of clarifying those relationships will require that biologists
A) remove the kingdom from Eukarya and place it in its own domain.
B) match each of the protist traits with the corresponding animal trait of the common ancestor.
C) separate the eukaryotic protists from the prokaryotic protists.
D) create an evolutionary tree for the group using comparative DNA data.
Answer: D
Q4) Most plants produce flowers, which greatly improve the probability of _______.
Answer: pollination
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Chapter 4: Chemical Building Blocks
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pure water has a pH of 7. The inside of a cell is also about pH 7. This might be so because
A) buffers work best when the pH is close to 7.
B) humans are largely made up of water by weight.
C) most of the chemical reactions that occur in humans can proceed optimally at pH 7.
D) ionic bonds cannot form at pH 7.
Q2) Proteins provide most of the energy for life processes. A)True B)False
Q3) A group of monomers bonded together form a _______.
Q4) You add a watery solution to another solution and find that the pH drops from 8 to 3. You have added a(n) A) buffer. B) acid.
C) phospholipid. D) base.
Q5) The uncharged component in the core of atoms is a(n) ____________.
Q6) The monomers in proteins are ________.
Q7) The sum of an atom's protons and neutrons is its ________ _______.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Cell Structure and Internal Compartments
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Q1) _______ pinch off from a membrane, enclose material, and then fuse with another membrane to release their contents at their destination.
Q2) The Golgi apparatus
A) is the place where a cell's genetic material is stored.
B) sorts proteins and lipids and sends them to their final destination.
C) captures energy from sunlight and sends it to mitochondria.
D) creates energy by converting ribosomes to proteins.
Q3) Chemical reactions occur more efficiently in _____ because their reactants are concentrated within a specialized compartment.
Q4) Organisms whose cells lack internal membrane-bound organelles are classified as _______.
Q5) Your muscle cells need large amounts of ATP to function in the movement of your body. Which of the following organelles would you expect to be especially abundant in muscle cells?
A) mitochondria
B) ribosomes
C) smooth endoplasmic reticulum
D) lysosomes
Q6) The _________ has a double membrane but no cristae.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Cell Membranes, Transport, and Communication
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Q1) The human hormone insulin is produced only by a single organ, the pancreas, yet insulin is used to move glucose from the bloodstream into cells all over the body. What aspect of hormones makes it possible for insulin to work throughout the body?
A) Hormones are able to stop cell-to-cell communication.
B) Hormones all cross cell membranes, and thus can move freely throughout the body.
C) Hormones cause rapid cell-to-cell signaling.
D) Hormones are long-range signaling molecules.
Q2) To coordinate the functions of specialized cells, those cells must be able to A) communicate.
B) replicate.
C) move from place to place.
D) cut up certain proteins.
Q3) The fragrance of bread baking in a kitchen spreads to other rooms by A) active transport.
B) diffusion.
C) osmosis.
D) selective permeation.
Q4) Cells in our liver take up cholesterol by receptor-mediated _____________.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Energy and Enzymes
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Sample Questions
Q1) The shape of an enzyme does not affect its activity.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What do catalysts and enzymes have in common?
A) They decrease the number of collisions between substrate molecules.
B) They increase the amount of activation energy required.
C) They increase the amount of substrate that is available.
D) They decrease the amount of activation energy required.
Q3) Biosynthetic reactions require many things, including A) carbon dioxide and water.
B) glucose and water.
C) enzymes and ATP.
D) sunlight and CTP.
Q4) Catabolic reactions are tightly coupled to _______ reactions that require energy.
Q5) According to the _____ ______ model, the active site of an enzyme adjusts its shape to mold around a substrate after binding.
Q6) _______ are the organelles where the breakdown products of food are oxidized, thereby generating most of a cell's ATP.
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Chapter 8: Photosynthesis and Cellular Respiration
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Q1) Cellular respiration is, essentially, the opposite of photosynthesis.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The number and arrangement of membranes within a chloroplast are important to the chloroplast's functions. How would the absence of these membranes affect the manufacture of ATP within a chloroplast?
A) The chloroplast would not be able to maintain the proton gradient required for ATP production.
B) The chloroplast would be unable to capture ATP directly from the sun.
C) The chloroplast would be unable to perform the Calvin cycle.
D) The chloroplast would be unable to perform anaerobic respiration.
Q3) The pigments of plant cells capture primarily the wavelengths of light that are colored _____ and _____.
Q4) The conversion of inorganic carbon from air into the carbon atoms found in all living organisms is known as carbon _______.
Q5) The green pigment most commonly associated with photosynthesis is _______.
Q6) NAD becomes NADH when it gains two high-energy _____ and one proton.
Q7) Energized electrons from the antenna complex are passed along to the ___________ center.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Cell Division
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Sample Questions
Q1) During anaphase, daughter chromosomes
A) are condensed into chromatin.
B) move toward opposite spindle poles.
C) form homologous pairs.
D) move toward the same spindle pole.
Q2) Meiosis I is almost identical to the events in mitosis.
A)True
B)False
Q3) If a plant has a karyotype of 18 chromosomes, how many chromosomes would be present in each of its gametes?
A) 36
B) 18
C) 9
D) 6
Q4) Huge amounts of DNA (6 feet in humans) can fit into the nucleus of a single cell because the DNA is wrapped around ________ to form a "beaded necklace" know as chromatin.
Q5) A drug inhibits the formation of vesicles from the Golgi apparatus. How might this drug affect the cell cycle of a plant cell?
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Chapter 10: Patterns of Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following choices represents the genotype of an individual diploid organism?
A) BbCCdd
B) BCd
C) bCd
D) BbCd
Q2) Each cell in a human contains a different set of genes.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The best way to get accurate results from a probability exercise is to
A) choose an example with incomplete dominance.
B) know the answer in advance.
C) choose an example that will come out 50:50.
D) make a large number of observations.
Q4) Mendel's laws were able to predict accurately the pattern of inheritance for situations in which
A) alleles are affected by their environment.
B) alleles show complete dominance.
C) alleles of one gene alter the effect of a different gene.
D) a given character is determined by more than one gene.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Chromosomes and Human Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following genotypes represents a human female?
A) XY
B) XX
C) YY
D) Zz
Q2) During cell division a piece of a chromosome breaks away and becomes part of its homologue. This is an example of A) duplication.
B) inversion.
C) translocation.
D) deletion.
Q3) Recessive genetic disorders are quickly eliminated from human populations because people who have them die before they can reproduce.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A _______ is an individual with a heterozygous genotype who does not express the recessive trait but can pass it along to offspring.
Q5) All sex-linked genes are either X-linked or _-linked.
Q6) The two classes of chromosomes are sex chromosomes and ____________.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: DNA
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Sample Questions
Q1) _______ is the change in the genotype of a cell that occurs after exposure to the DNA of another genotype.
Q2) The significance of specific base pairing in DNA is that
A) it stabilizes the sugar molecule.
B) it provides a method for making exact copies of DNA.
C) it prevents errors in DNA replication.
D) protein copies can be made directly from the DNA.
Q3) The backbone of a DNA molecule is made up of sugars and _______.
Q4) Labeling the _________ of a bacterial virus with radioactive phosphate allowed Hershey and Chase to determine whether DNA or protein was the molecule of inheritance.
Q5) Frederick Griffith's experiments with mice showed that
A) infecting them with a harmless strain of bacteria killed the mice.
B) the hereditary material of heat-killed bacteria was destroyed.
C) living bacteria could incorporate hereditary material from killed bacteria.
D) the mice became resistant to the deadly bacteria.
Q6) Enzymes proofread base-pairing during DNA replication.
A)True
B)False
Q7) DNA consists of two twisted strands of _______.
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Chapter 13: From Gene to Protein
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Q1) The importance of tRNA is that it
A) carries a specific amino acid to the mRNA.
B) reads the DNA molecule.
C) contains codons that specify amino acids.
D) is important in the construction of ribosomes.
Q2) Which of the following best describes the function of genes?
A) They control the production of enzymes.
B) They control the production of structural proteins.
C) They control the production of all proteins.
D) They control the production of amino acids.
Q3) The three-dimensional structure of the protein made by a single mRNA molecule varies, but whatever the shape, the overall function of that protein does not change.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Each tRNA molecule carries only one specific ________ ________ , but it can bind to up to three codons.
Q5) Most molecules of RNA are _______-stranded.
Q6) The base sequence of mRNA specifies the sequence of amino acids in a _______.
Q7) A _______ is the series of bases in mRNA that specifies a single amino acid.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Control of Gene Expression
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Sample Questions
Q1) Development is controlled by A) spacer sequences.
B) different homeotic genes in different organisms.
C) similar homeotic genes in different animals.
D) repressor proteins.
Q2) RNA interference has been proposed as a treatment for cancer. Which of the following accurately explains how this treatment could work?
A) RNA injected into cancerous cells would prevent transcription of cancer-causing genes.
B) Normal (not mutated) mRNA for DNA polymerase would be inserted into the genome of tumor cells.
C) Tumors would be injected with small pieces of double stranded RNAs that recognize the mRNA of genes that promote cell division.
D) RNAi would bind to tubulin, preventing the formation of the spindle apparatus.
Q3) The _______ of eukaryotes vary greatly in size from 12 million base pairs in some to more than a trillion base pairs in other.
Q4) Regulatory proteins bind to regulatory ___ sequences.
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Chapter 15: DNA Technology
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Q1) Ligases are used to
A) connect two DNA fragments to each other.
B) snip DNA into smaller molecules.
C) separate DNA molecules by size.
D) determine the exact base sequence of a DNA molecule.
Q2) DNA _______ is the set of techniques with which scientists manipulate DNA.
Q3) A DNA _______ is a collection of one organism's DNA fragments that are stored in another organism.
Q4) DNA moves toward the __________ charged end of an electrical field during gel electrophoresis.
Q5) Cloning is useful because it
A) repairs broken DNA.
B) mixes the DNA from two different organisms.
C) produces many copies of a gene.
D) determines the base sequence of a gene.
Q6) Genetic engineering is a process in which specific sequences of DNA _______ are deliberately isolated, modified, and inserted back into a host organism.
Q7) _______ catalyzes the formation of covalent bonds between two DNA fragments, creating a single piece of DNA.
Page 17
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Chapter 16: How Evolution Works
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Q1) The proteins and DNA of organisms that share a recent common ancestor are _______ [more or less?] similar than the proteins and DNA of organisms that do not share a recent common ancestor.
Q2) Human and fish embryos share a number of features. Why is this?
A) Humans and fish share a common ancestor.
B) Embryos of all organisms, plant and animal, look alike.
C) Mutations in human and fish embryos have caused them to look alike.
D) Humans and fish have exactly the same genes, but as they develop, different genes are turned on in fish than in humans.
Q3) Evolutionary changes occur when _______ acts upon populations containing individuals with genetic differences.
A) continental drift
B) natural selection
C) weather
D) mutation
Q4) Observations of changes over many generations in agricultural crops, such as wild mustard, provide evidence for evolution.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: Evolution of Populations
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Q1) The Hardy-Weinberg equation can be used to determine the genotype frequencies of a population that is not evolving.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A gene has two alleles, D and d.The frequency of the D allele is 0.2. What is the frequency of the d allele? Show your work.
Q3) Compared to a large mainland population, genetic drift in a small island population is
A) less important because there is less variation with which to work.
B) less important because only a few individuals do all the breeding.
C) more important because of a smaller gene pool.
D) more important because of the absence of competition.
Q4) Which of the following processes does not lead to an increase in recombination?
A) fertilization
B) crossing over
C) independent assortment of chromosomes
D) DNA repair
Q5) Independent assortment of chromosomes, crossing-over, and fertilization are collectively known as _____________.
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Chapter 18: Adaptation and Speciation
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Q1) The great diversity of life on Earth is caused by ________-the formation of new species.
Q2) The classification of bacterial species does not fit the usual definition of species. This is because bacteria
A) cannot exchange genetic material.
B) are eukaryotic.
C) have a high rate of gene flow.
D) reproduce asexually.
Q3) For two populations to accumulate enough genetic differences to cause speciation, the factors that promote these differences
A) must operate in populations that are not physically separated.
B) must have a greater effect than does the amount of ongoing gene flow.
C) need to be combined with the forces of genetic drift.
D) should include polyploidy.
Q4) _________ speciation occurs when a new species arises in the absence of geographic isolation.
Q5) An ecological ________ can limit a population's ability to adapt to its environment, as the organisms must compromise between what is possible developmentally and what is possible genetically.
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Chapter 19: The Evolutionary History of Life
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Q1) You are looking at the side of a cliff with many clearly visible layers of rock. In the top layer you find the fossil of a mouse. In the next layer down you find the fossil of a frog. Two layers down from that you find the fossil of a beetle, and in the deepest layer the fossil of a millipede. This is evidence that
A) mice evolved before frogs.
B) frogs evolved after mice.
C) millipedes were the first among these animals to evolve.
D) the beetle evolved before millipedes.
Q2) Mass extinctions cause the loss of many species, no matter how well adapted those species were before the extinction. Why might previous adaptations not help a species survive a mass extinction?
A) The rapid environmental changes that cause mass extinctions do not leave the organisms time to adapt.
B) Ongoing continental drift allows more species to interbreed, which lowers the genetic variability available for adaptation.
C) Adaptive radiations are stronger than adaptations.
D) Well-adapted organisms will not be affected by mass extinction; these are the groups that will survive.
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Chapter 20: Maintaining the Internal Environment
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Q1) Which of the following is not a means used by chickadees to conserve heat in the winter?
A) reducing convection
B) reducing radiation
C) reducing metabolism
D) reducing evaporation
Q2) Frostbitten tissue, because water within cells freezes, expands, and ruptures plasma membranes.
A)True
B)False
Q3) To maintain homeostasis of its body fluids, a frog in freshwater would have to
A) actively transport salts out and excrete dilute urine.
B) actively transport salts in and excrete concentrated urine.
C) actively transport water out and excrete dilute urine.
D) actively transport salts in and excrete dilute urine.
Q4) An animal can lose heat by ___________ even when the environmental temperature is greater than its internal temperature.
Q5) ________ feedback keeps the internal environment in a constant state within a range of external conditions.
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Chapter 21: Animal Nutrition and Digestion
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Q1) As nutrients move across an intestinal villus, capillaries absorb
A) amino acids and sugars.
B) fats.
C) lymph vessels.
D) monoglycerides.
Q2) The liver secretes bile to
A) the pancreas.
B) the small intestine.
C) the gallbladder.
D) the large intestine.
Q3) Digestive _______, such as amylase, break specific chemical bonds to help organisms process their food.
Q4) If you were a bird about to embark on a long migratory journey, which of the following would you want to have stored in large quantities?
A) sugars
B) proteins
C) fats
D) vitamins
Q5) Vitamins are either water-soluble or ___-soluble.
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Chapter 22: Gas Exchange
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Q1) When a cell is performing cellular respiration, the higher concentration of __________________ in nearby blood plasma causes the plasma to become slightly more acidic.
Q2) What tube connects the pharynx to the bronchi?
A) the trachea
B) the alveoli
C) the bronchioles
D) the tracheoles
Q3) In blood arriving at an alveolus, the concentration of
A) oxygen is lower in the alveolus than in the blood.
B) carbon dioxide is higher in the alveolus than in the blood.
C) carbon dioxide is higher in the blood than in the alveolus.
D) carbon dioxide in the blood is equal to the concentration of oxygen in the alveolus.
Q4) The process of inhalation requires more energy than the process of exhalation.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The human _______ system is used for the internal transport of oxygen and carbon dioxide.
Q6) Bubbles form in a glass of water, because it contains dissolved _____.
Page 24
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Chapter 23: The Circulatory System
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Q1) Which of the following blood pressures would indicate a healthy heart?
A) 102/23 mm Hg
B) 40/120 mm Hg
C) 113/69 mm Hg
D) 248/130 mm Hg
Q2) Aneurysms cause high blood pressure.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The drop in blood pressure as the blood progresses through the circulatory system is due to the effect of _______ between flowing blood and the blood vessel walls.
Q4) For a blood pressure reading of 110/60, the number 60 represents the pressure in the
A) arteries while the left ventricle is refilling.
B) arteries while the left ventricle is contracting.
C) capillaries while the right ventricle is contracting.
D) arteries leading from the right ventricle to the lungs.
Q5) The process of _______ is too slow to transport essential materials from one part of a multicellular organism to another.
Q6) Capillary walls are made exclusively of _______ cells.
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Chapter 24: Animal Hormones
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Q1) Serotonin, one of the hormones thought to be involved in depression, is a water-soluble molecule. Where on the target cell would you expect to find receptors for this hormone?
A) in the cytoplasm
B) inside the nucleus
C) on the outside of the plasma membrane
D) in the interstitial fluid around the cell
Q2) Which of the following statements about the functions follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH) is false?
A) FSH and LH control the development of sperm.
B) A sudden and rapid increase in LH triggers ovulation.
C) FSH stimulates the maturation of follicles.
D) A decrease in LH stimulates menstruation.
Q3) Which of the following statements about gonadotropins is false?
A) They maintain the function of reproductive organs and glands.
B) Their activity becomes important during puberty.
C) They are found only in females.
D) They are produced by the pituitary gland.
Q4) The hormone-producing tissues of animals make up the _______ system.
Q5) In human females, the release of an egg from its follicle is called _________.
Page 26
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Chapter 25: The Nervous System
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Q1) The thyroid gland releases hormones that increase the rate at which cells release energy in response to the ______-__________ hormone released from the pituitary gland.
Q2) When you smell a flower, what part of the brain processes the odors you sense?
A) parietal
B) temporal
C) occipital
D) frontal
Q3) You bite into a juicy peach. What region of the cerebrum interprets the flavors in your mouth?
A) occipital
B) frontal
C) parietal
D) temporal
Q4) Initially, when a neuron receives a stimulus,
A) sodium diffuses out of the neuron.
B) neurotransmitters are released from axon terminals.
C) sodium channels close
D) sodium enters the neuron.
Q5) Why are the axon terminals of a neuron highly branched?
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Chapter 26: Sensing the Environment
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Q1) The lens of your eye projects images ____________ on your retina, but brain processing returns images to the correct orientation.
Q2) We have color vision thanks to A) pupils.
B) lenses.
C) rods.
D) cones.
Q3) In our ears, sound is converted into nerve impulses by the A) eustachian tubes.
B) auditory canal.
C) eardrum.
D) organ of Corti.
Q4) We can distinguish pitch because different regions of the basilar membrane vibrate in response to different sound __________.
Q5) In our eyes, cones are found in the A) fovea.
B) pupil.
C) lens.
D) blind spot.
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Chapter 27: Skeletons, Muscles, and Movement
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Q1) One reason cats survive falls from heights better than humans do is that
A) they stiffen their bodies as they fall.
B) their skeletons are made of cartilage.
C) they twist their bodies so as to land only on their hind feet.
D) relative to body weight, their skeletons are stronger than human skeletons.
Q2) A marathon runner would be using A) mostly fast muscle fibers.
B) mostly slow muscle fibers.
C) slower acting neuromuscular junctions.
D) less myoglobin than a sprint runner.
Q3) A hydrostat generates energy as it creates pressure.
A)True
B)False
Q4) An increase in muscle strength can result from either an increase in muscle fiber number or an increase in the thickness of existing muscle fibers.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Your small intestine has smooth muscle in its walls.
A)True
B)False
29
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Chapter 28: Defenses against Disease
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Q1) Which of the following statements about the human immune response is true?
A) Host cells are never destroyed by macrophages, even if they are damaged.
B) Neutrophils mount a specific response to particular species of invading organisms.
C) The immune response is more effective during the second exposure to an invader.
D) Lymphocytes are one of the components of blood clots.
Q2) At various points along the lymphatic ducts lie _____ _____, pockets of tissue containing huge numbers of white blood cells that trap bacteria, viruses, and foreign proteins.
Q3) Each T cell and each B cell binds only to one specific type of A) antibody.
B) neutrophil.
C) antigen.
D) prostaglandin.
Q4) Which of the following do not directly cause diseases?
A) bacteria
B) cockroaches
C) protists
D) viruses
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Chapter 29: Reproduction and Development
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Q1) Land animals are more likely to undergo fertilization outside their bodies because gametes require dry environments in order to fuse and develop.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The three layers of cells in a human embryo are ectoderm, endoderm, and ________.
Q3) Embryonic stem cells have the greatest potential for creating medical treatments because they
A) contain less DNA than other types of stem cells so they are easier to manipulate.
B) are more common than other types of stem cells in the bodies of adults.
C) do not undergo transcription.
D) can become any type of body cell and, therefore, can be used to treat many different conditions.
Q4) The human embryo develops in a fluid-filled sac, called the A) uterus.
B) endometrium.
C) yolk sac.
D) amnion.
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Chapter 30: Animal Behavior
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Q1) Which of the following statements about genetically controlled behaviors is true?
A) Identical twins are more likely to express the same behavior than other sets of siblings are.
B) Identical twins will always express the same behavior.
C) The environment has no effect on the expression of the behavior.
D) Genetics has no effect on the expression of the behavior.
Q2) When you type an email address you are engaging in a
A) fixed behavior.
B) reflex behavior.
C) learned behavior.
D) imprinted behavior
Q3) Human culture is not a result of
A) fixed behavior.
B) learned behavior.
C) communication.
D) social behavior.
Q4) Lending a friend money when you don't have much money to spare is being
Q5) In _______ behaviors, the response to a stimulus depends on past experiences.
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Chapter 31: Plant Structure, Nutrition, and Transport
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Q1) Roots perform all of the following functions except A) the transport of water.
B) photosynthesis.
C) the transport of nutrients.
D) the storage of food.
Q2) Flowers are one of the organs of angiosperms.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Dermal hairs are more common on plants living at high elevations because at higher elevations
A) fewer herbivores are present.
B) water evaporates quickly.
C) competition for space is more intense.
D) ultraviolet radiation is more intense.
Q4) Plants can generate the pressures needed to transport sugars produced by photosynthesis great distances by
A) manipulating concentration of amino acids in phloem.
B) active transport of water.
C) actively transporting sugars in phloem and cells.
D) building up high water pressures in root hairs.
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Chapter 32: Plant Growth and Reproduction
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Q1) Most flowering plants rely on animals rather than wind to transport pollen.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The outer bark on trees often appears cracked and uneven because
A) different regions of the bark grow at different rates.
B) the cork cambium reabsorbs some of the bark.
C) increases in stem length stretch the bark.
D) increases in stem thickness stretch the bark.
Q3) Which of the following would be haploid?
A) pollen
B) guard cells
C) root hairs
D) all of the above
Q4) At what point in the plant life cycle does cell division result in haploid cells?
A) when the gametophyte produces gametes
B) when the sporophyte produces spores
C) when the egg and sperm fuse to form a zygote
D) when the germinating spore grows to become the gametophyte
Q5) Seed coats develop from the outer portion of the _____.
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Chapter 33: The Biosphere
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Q1) The biome occupied primarily by drought-resistant shrubs and characterized climatically by dry, hot summers and cool, wet winters is the
A) temperate forest.
B) chaparral.
C) boreal forest.
D) tundra.
Q2) In which of the following would oxygen-rich surface water be most likely to sink seasonally to replenish deeper waters?
A) near the shores of the Atlantic Ocean
B) in Lake Superior
C) in a shallow lake near Miami, Florida
D) in the Tennessee River
Q3) A _______ biome forms in a region with low precipitation, generally less than 25 cm/year.
Q4) An easterly wind blows from the east toward the west.
A)True
B)False
Q5) An ecosystem consists of both biotic (living) and _______ (nonliving) factors.
Q6) The _______ consists of all life and its surroundings.
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Chapter 34: Growth of Populations
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Q1) Which of the following choices best explains why some introduced species experience an initial period of exponential growth?
A) They do not yet have any natural predators in their new habitat.
B) Most introduced species show better survival in new habitats than in their old ones.
C) Since most native species display exponential growth, many introduced species will do so also.
D) Native species always leave open habitat types that a new species can inhabit.
Q2) The initial success of a human civilization
A) is typically characterized by decreases in population density.
B) simply postpones its inevitable collapse.
C) does not guarantee its future existence.
D) has no effect on population factors.
Q3) Weather is a density-_______ factor that can affect the size of a population.
Q4) Population size _______ when the combination of death and emigration rates are lower than the combination of birth and immigration rates.
Q5) Overall, when there are more individuals in a population, birth rates _______.
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Chapter 35: Interactions among Organisms
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Q1) Which of the following could be an example of an induced response?
A) bright colors on a caterpillar
B) spines on a cactus
C) brightly colored flowers on a rosebush
D) color patterns on a poisonous snake
Q2) Which of the following animals would be most likely to simultaneously participate in seed dispersal and a gut inhabitant mutualism?
A) wolves
B) rattlesnakes
C) scorpions
D) deer
Q3) In seed dispersal mutualism, plants produce _______ to entice consumers to disperse the plant's seeds.
A) attractive aromas
B) fleshy fruits
C) edible pollen
D) nectar
Q4) The geographic area over which a species is found is called its ____________.
Q5) _______ are organisms consumed by other organisms.
Q6) _______ is an interaction between two species that benefits both species.
Page 37
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Chapter 36: Communities of Organisms
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Q1) A _______ is a single sequence of who eats whom in a community.
Q2) Which of the following organisms is not a producer?
A) plankton
B) cow
C) algae
D) oak tree
Q3) Which of the following statements about communities is true?
A) They usually have few species of organisms.
B) There can be complex interactions between the organisms that make up a community.
C) They are more abundant in temperate areas.
D) They are made up of mammal species only.
Q4) A _______ is an association of populations of different species that live in the same area.
Q5) In which of the following situations would secondary rather than primary succession be most likely to occur?
A) on an island that has just risen out of the ocean
B) on bare ground exposed by the retreat of a glacier
C) on the surface of recently cooled lava
D) in a forest that had burned to bare ground
Page 38
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Chapter 37: Ecosystems
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Q1) The marine ecosystem with the lowest net primary productivity is A) the coral reef.
B) the open ocean.
C) swamp and marsh areas.
D) the ocean upwelling zone.
Q2) Human actions such as logging, building on a floodplain, or diverting rivers increases the probability of severe _______.
Q3) The energy in sunlight is directly associated with the synthesis of A) carbon dioxide.
B) sugars.
C) fats.
D) nucleic acids.
Q4) Approximately 100 percent of the energy captured from the sun is passed from trophic level to trophic level.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Each level of an energy pyramid corresponds to a step in a food chain and is called a _______ level.
Q6) Phosphorus is the only major nutrient whose cycle is _____.
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Chapter 38: Global Change
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Q1) Because wetlands have relatively little economic value the percentage of the United States that is covered by wetlands has been relatively stable during the past 200 years.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Carbon dioxide levels are increasing because
A) human agriculture has greatly increased the amount of carbon dioxide given off by plants during respiration.
B) humans have begun releasing carbon that was formerly sequestered in fossil fuels into the atmosphere.
C) holes in the ozone layer have reduced the total amount of photosynthesis occurring in the biosphere.
D) the huge growth in the human population and domestic livestock has increased the amount of carbon dioxide being released through respiration.
Q3) The physical and biotic changes humans make to the land surface of Earth are collectively known as land _______.
Q4) The best hope for slowing the recent rapid ecological changes is to decrease the impact of _______ on Earth to a sustainable level.
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Chapter 39: Biodiversity and People
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Q1) The arrival and colonization by _______ would produce the greatest potential threat to an area's biodiversity.
A) the Nile perch
B) the brown tree snake
C) Scotch broom
D) humans
Q2) The biggest threat to biodiversity is
A) habitat loss and deterioration.
B) ecosystem growth.
C) competition between nonhuman organisms.
D) predators.
Q3) Those events during which many species become _______ are called mass extinction events.
Q4) Scientists estimate that about 90 percent of the world's species have been catalogued by humans, and anticipate completing the inventory within the next decade.
A)True
B)False
Q5) _______ is the term used to describe the variety of the world's species of organisms.
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Chapter 40: Cancer: Cell Division Out of Control
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Q1) Under normal conditions growth factors activate ____________ and inactivate ______________ genes.
Q2) In order to be healthy, an organism must stop all cell division activities.
A)True B)False
Q3) An overactive viral protein _______ can turn on signal cascades in a host, thus leading to cancer.
Q4) If a cell's p53 genes are inactivated, the cell
A) loses control over cell division.
B) stops dividing.
C) no longer makes proto-oncogenes.
D) activates tumor suppressors.
Q5) Cancer cells cause tumors in other parts of the body by traveling through the
Q6) Phosphorylation resulting from the influence of a growth factor
A) causes the Rb protein to release its target protein.
B) inhibits the target gene of the Rb protein.
C) turns the Rb protein into an energy-carrying molecule needed for cell division. D) causes its target protein to become inactive.
Page 42
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Chapter 41: Harnessing the Human Genome
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Q1) Which of the following is not an example of an ethical problem raised by genetic screening?
A) Parents may attempt to choose the sex of a child.
B) Parents may choose to abort a disease-carrying fetus.
C) If insurance does not cover screening, only the rich will have access to this technology.
D) Carriers of a given genetic disease are more likely to produce children with that disease.
Q2) The field of genomics
A) is restricted to sequencing the genomes of prokaryotes.
B) compares genomes in a broad range of organisms.
C) produces genetically engineered medicines.
D) investigates molecular structure of DNA.
Q3) Which of the following is not a method for determining if an individual has a genetic disease?
A) test for an allele with a disease-causing mutation
B) examine the individuals physical fingerprints (those on their fingers)
C) test for chromosomal abnormalities
D) examine aspects of metabolism
Q4) The human _______ is estimated to consist of 20,000 to 30,000 genes.
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Chapter 42: Humans and Evolution
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Q1) Archaic Homo sapiens gave rise to
A) Neandertals and modern humans.
B) Homo habilis and Australopithecus africanus.
C) Australopithecus africanus and Neandertals.
D) Homo erectus and Homo habilis.
Q2) The term that describes the upright walking of humans on two legs is _______.
Q3) Homo sapiens is the genus and species designation for modern _______.
Q4) Which of the following species arose first on our planet?
A) Australopithecus africanus
B) Homo erectus
C) Homo habilis
D) Neandertal
Q5) The first members of the genus Homo arose approximately _______ years ago.
A) 200,000
B) 2 million
C) 1 billion
D) 3.5 billion
Q6) Humans are animals, classified as members of the ________ phylum, the mammal class, the primate order, and the hominid family.
Q7) The first members of the genus Homo originated on the continent of ______.
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Chapter 43: Smoking--Beyond Lung Cancer
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Q1) Smoking damages only the lungs.
A)True
B)False
Q2) People with emphysema have difficulty breathing because the walls of their alveoli break reducing the amount of _____________ available for gas exchange.
Q3) The narrowing of blood vessels as a result of smoking decreases the amount of pressure needed to move blood through the body.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The reason you feel energized after smoking a cigarette is that nicotine stimulates the release of epinephrine from the adrenal glands.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Chewing tobacco is safe, because no smoke is produced.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Cigarette smoke contains aldehydes, aromatic amines, and N-nitrosamines, which are all ___________ that cause mutations in DNA.
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Chapter 44: Feeding a Hungry Planet
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Q1) Which of the following is not true?
A) Planting genetically uniform crops makes them more vulnerable to diseases and pests.
B) Planting diverse crops makes them less vulnerable to widespread disease but more vulnerable to pests.
C) Planting a crop that consists of a single high-yielding genetic variety has its dangers.
D) Planting diverse crops makes them less vulnerable to widespread disease and less vulnerable to pests.
Q2) The increase in the growth rate of wheat and rice yield continues to be greater than the increase in the growth rate of human population size.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Areas where domesticated animals such as sheep and cattle can roam and graze are called _________.
Q4) The process of inserting a gene unique to one species into a different species is called___________________.
Q5) Soil erosion is typically caused by water and ____.
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Chapter 45: Building a Sustainable Society
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Q1) The human population is growing rapidly. In order to build a sustainable society for future generations,
A) we must increase our food to support that growth.
B) the world's deserts need to be restored to the productive lands they once were.
C) the rate of population growth must be brought under control.
D) new forms of nonpolluting energy will have to be created.
Q2) Does the ability of humans to produce synthetic fertilizer mean that the carrying capacity of our biosphere for the human population is without limit?
A) Yes; with a constant supply of fertilizer humans can produce an unlimited amount of food.
B) No; the resources needed to produce fertilizers are themselves limited, as with other resources eventually fertilizer production will peak and decline.
C) Yes; fertilizers are almost entirely nitrogen, and as the most abundant gas in the atmosphere the supply of nitrogen is essentially unlimited.
D) No; converting the nitrogen in the atmosphere to a form chemically suitable for fertilizer is not economically practical.
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