Biology for Non-Majors Chapter Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Biology for Non-Majors provides a broad introduction to the fundamental concepts of life sciences, emphasizing topics relevant to everyday life and societal issues. The course covers cell biology, genetics, evolution, ecology, and human biology, helping students gain an appreciation for the diversity of living organisms and the processes that sustain life. Designed for students without a science background, the course emphasizes critical thinking and real-world applications rather than technical details, fostering scientific literacy and informed decision-making.
Recommended Textbook
Biology of Humans Concepts Applications and Issues 4th Edition by Judith Goodenough
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Humans in the World of Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A(n)________ is all of the species in an ecosystem that can interact in a geographic area.
Answer: community
Q2) Researchers testing new drugs usually give the drug to one group of people and give placebos,"sugar pills," to another group.The group receiving the placebo
A)is needed so that the test will be repeated enough times
B)is the control group
C)constitutes the experimental group
D)is a backup in case some of the people getting the drug drop out of the test Answer: B
Q3) A(n)________ involves drug testing on humans. Answer: clinical trial
Q4) A community and its physical environment are often referred to as a(n)________. Answer: ecosystem
Q5) ________ reasoning involves gathering of facts that lead toward a logical generalized statement or conclusion. Answer: Inductive
Q6) A(n)________ is a group of similar cells that perform the same function. Answer: tissue
Page 3
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Chapter 2: Chemistry Comes to Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Lipids that regulate metabolic processes in biological systems are called ________.
Answer: steroids
Q2) The energy storing polysaccharide that can be found mainly in liver and muscle cells is called ________.
Answer: glycogen
Q3) If I tested your intestinal fluid and found that it was basic,which of the pH values listed would best describe this solution?
A)6.8
B)3.2
C)1.2
D)8.0
Answer: D
Q4) Partially hydrogenated fats are also referred to as ________ fats.
Answer: trans
Q5) Atoms that have the same number of protons but differ in the number of neutrons are called ________.
Answer: isotopes
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Chapter 3: The Cell
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Sample Questions
Q1) Certain chemotherapy drugs interfere with microtubule synthesis.Which of the following would have functional difficulties caused by those drugs?
A)flagella
B)Golgi complex
C)cilia
D)All of the above would have functional difficulties
Answer: D
Q2) From which of these processes does the cell get the most ATP?
A)glycolysis
B)pyruvate decarboxylation
C)fermentation
D)electron transport
Answer: D
Q3) Most of the energy used by the cell is converted to ATP in ________.
A)lysosomes
B)Golgi complexes
C)nuclei
D)mitochondria
Answer: D
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Body Organization and Homeostasis
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ability of the human body to maintain a relatively constant internal environment is known as ________.
A)homeostasis
B)stabilization
C)positive feedback
D)regulation
Q2) A ________ is a group of cells of similar type that work together to serve a common function.
Q3) Carla has serious acne.What caused it and what can she do to treat it?
Q4) Which of the following tissues covers the body surfaces,lines the body cavities and organs,and forms glands?
A)muscle
B)nervous
C)epithelial
D)connective
Q5) People who are very underweight often complain of being cold.However,individuals who are overweight are less likely to complain of being cold.Explain why this might be the case.
Q6) A tendon or ligament is made up principally of ________ tissue.
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Chapter 5: The Skeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A condition in which the bone is broken down faster than it is built is known as
Q2) Briefly explain osteoporosis and what preventative measures can be taken to reduce a person's risk of this condition.
Q3) Which of these cranial bones separates the cranial cavity from the nasal cavity and provides the olfactory nerves with access to the brain?
A)temporal
B)foramen magnum
C)sphenoid
D)ethmoid
Q4) Explain the structure and function of the pectoral and pelvic girdles.
Q5) The ________ joints have no joint cavity and usually do not permit movement.Sutures between skull bones are this kind of joint.
Q6) What can cause a slipped disk?
A)slipping on the ice in winter and breaking a vertebra of the coccyx
B)improper lifting, leading to a bulge in a disk between two lumbar vertebrae
C)two vertebrae of the sacrum slipping past each other in opposite directions
D)scoliosis
Q7) Vertebrae in the neck are classified as ________ vertebrae.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: The Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A muscle will ________ if levels of calcium and potassium decrease in the blood.
Q2) During muscle contraction the heads of myosin filaments pull actin filaments toward the center of a ________.
Q3) Protein that makes up the thin myofilament.
A)Lactic acid
B)Transverse tubules
C)Tendons
D)Muscle twitch
E)Fast twitch muscle fibers
F)Tropomyosin
G)Myosin
H)Troponin
I)Slow twitch muscle fibers
J)Calcium ions
K)Actin
Q4) A bundle of muscle cells is called a ________.
Q5) ________ are the proteins that appear as dark bands that mark the ends of the sarcomeres.
Q6) ________ is a condition in which there is an excessive stress on a tendon,causing inflammation.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Neurons: the Matter of the Mind
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ahmad might have been accidentally exposed to an insecticide while he worked in a citrus grove.What symptoms of poisoning would you watch for?
A)depression
B)Alzheimer's disease
C)muscle tremors
D)excessive urination
Q2) What are specialized membrane proteins that actively transport sodium and potassium ions across the plasma membrane?
A)Na/Cl pump
B)Na/Mn pump
C)Na/K pump
D)Na pump
Q3) In the disease myasthenia gravis,the immune system attacks the receptors for the neurotransmitter acetylcholine.A drug is used to inhibit the enzyme acetylcholinesterase,which normally removes the neurotransmitter.This improves the condition of the patient.How does this work?
Q4) ________ form the myelin sheath,which wraps around the axon,to insulate against short-circuiting between neurons.
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Chapter 8: The Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Inflammation of the protective coverings of the brain and spinal cord is known as
Q2) Dr.Ling,the famous brain surgeon,removes a portion of the skull during surgery.Which of the meninges does she see first?
A)ventricle
B)pia mater
C)dura mater
D)arachnoid
Q3) If a certain water-soluble,intravenous antibiotic is not succeeding in defeating the germs inside the central nervous system,the ________ may be the cause of the failure.
Q4) Juanita was in an automobile accident and received a bad bump on her head.Although she had been a slender and calm person,after the accident she began to eat a lot and have emotional ups and downs.Her body temperature also fluctuated more dramatically than in the past.What part of her brain is most likely damaged?
A)cerebellum
B)midbrain
C)hypothalamus
D)fornix
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Sensory Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) A jelly-like fluid that prevents the eye from collapsing and holds the retina against the wall of the eye is called the ________.
Q2) Ned is reading his newspaper by holding it at arm's length.Sandra asks him why he isn't holding it closer.He explains that he would not be able to see the print if he held it closer.Which of the following corrective measures would be the best solution for Ned?
A)corneal ring segments
B)retinal transplants
C)convex lenses
D)concave lenses
Q3) The area where the optic nerve leaves the retina and where photoreceptors are absent is called the ________.
A)optic area
B)blind spot
C)fovea
D)cornea
Q4) Compare and contrast the different types of receptors found in the body.
Q5) Explain and describe the five primary tastes.
Q6) The stapes,malleus,and ________ bones are located in the middle ear.
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Chapter 10: The Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The connection between the hypothalamus and the anterior pituitary is ________.
A)circulatory
B)neural
C)via special ducts
D)There is no connection.
Q2) Mamadou,22,lives in a country that has been at civil war for 19 years.What kinds of endocrine responses do we expect and what kinds of health issues might he have? What public health implications might there be once the war is over?
Q3) Prostaglandins may act as local signaling molecules in the uterus,causing
Q4) The ________ gland lies in the center of the brain and contains secretory cells that produce melatonin.
Q5) Sometimes postmenopausal women are given a prescription for which of the following to help them maintain their bone calcium?
A)parathyroid hormone
B)thyroid hormone
C)calcitonin
D)insulin
Q6) Someone who has diabetes insipidus has a deficiency of ________.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) A group of white blood cells that lacks granules.
A)White blood cells
B)Basophils
C)Formed elements
D)Red blood cells
E)Plasma
F)Plasmin
G)Stem cells
H)Granulocytes
I)Platelets
J)Agranulocytes
Q2) Which of these white blood cells gives rise to plasma cells,which can then produce antibodies?
A)T lymphocytes
B)monocytes
C)eosinophils
D)B lymphocytes
Q3) The ________,or thrombocytes,play a vital role in clotting.
Q4) An Rh-positive baby can cause the mother to produce antibodies against the Rh antigen if she happens to be Rh negative.When is this a problem?
Page 13
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Chapter 12: The Cardiovascular and Lymphatic Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) An infection of the thin layer of tissue around the inner cavities of the heart itself would affect the ________.
A)pericardium
B)endocardium
C)myocardium
D)sinoatrial node
Q2) Which of the following characterizes blood flow through capillaries?
A)Enormous total cross-sectional area leads to blood flowing slowly.
B)Enormous total cross-sectional area leads to blood flowing rapidly.
C)Small total cross-sectional area leads to blood flowing slowly.
D)Small total cross-sectional area leads to blood flowing rapidly.
Q3) Heart block is a condition in which the SA node is properly functioning but the atria and ventricles are contracting out of synch.What part of the heart must not be functioning for this to happen?
A)The SA node is working extra hard to make the ventricles catch up.
B)The AV node is not sending signals to the ventricles like it should.
C)The coronary arteries are not delivering blood to the heart.
D)The heart valves are allowing blood to flow backwards through the heart.
Q4) Why do physicians often examine the lymph nodes of cancer patients?
Q5) A (an)________ is a recording of the electrical activities of the heart.
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Chapter 13: Body Defense Mechanisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to preliminary tests Alexandra has liver cancer but the mass is inoperable and hard to localize.In order to administer x-ray beam therapy safely and effectively,the doctors must find the exact location of the cancer.Which of the following methods would be best in this situation?
A)radioactive monoclonal antibodies
B)florescence-linked B-cells
C)activated neutrophils
D)enormous mast cell injections
Q2) A child may be given the vaccine for chickenpox.If the child goes to school and plays with other children who have the chickenpox virus,the vaccinated child will not get sick.Why is this?
A)Vaccines act like antibiotics so that any organism in the body will be destroyed before the immune system has to respond.
B)Vaccines introduce a friendly virus into cells so they cannot be infected with a second virus.
C)Vaccines produce a primary response so a second exposure allows for a larger and more rapid response.
D)Vaccines stimulate macrophages to work extra hard to fight infections.
Q3) A (n)________ is an overreaction by the immune system to an antigen.
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Page 15
Chapter 14: The Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why is it not advisable to take antibiotics when you have a cold or the flu?
Q2) The term ________ is used to describe moving oxygen-rich air into the lungs and carbon dioxide-laden air away from the lungs.
Q3) Most carbon dioxide is transported in the blood as ________.
Q4) Two large,open spaces called the ________ contain three convoluted shelf-like bones that increase the surface area for conditioning inhaled air.
Q5) What are some of the hazards of smoking? What methods does society employ to try to reduce the number of people exposed to second-hand smoke?
Q6) A rise in the blood concentration of hydrogen ions will cause ________.
A)increased vagus nerve impulses
B)relaxation of the diaphragm
C)increased breathing rate
D)decreased breathing rate
Q7) In a severe allergic reaction,a person's tongue can swell up,effectively blocking the air passageways.An emergency procedure can be performed to restore airflow.Basically,a hole is cut into the passageways below the blockage to allow air to flow into the lungs.What passageway would be best for the surgical hole?
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Chapter 15: The Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) An opening at one end of the gastrointestinal tract that functions in mechanical digestion and the breakdown of carbohydrates by secreting amylase.
A)Gallbladder
B)Appendix
C)Stomach
D)Rectum
E)Esophageal cancer
F)Large intestine
G)Mouth
H)Cirrhosis
I)Small intestine
J)Salivary glands
Q2) This digestive organ absorbs water from indigestible food residue,stores feces,and eliminates feces from the body.
A)small intestine
B)stomach
C)rectum
D)large intestine
Q3) Food traveling through the pharynx would next go to the ________.
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Page 17
Chapter 16: The Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) These are the functional units of the kidney and are responsible for the formation of urine.
A)Respiratory
B)Urinalysis
C)Urinary
D)Kidneys
E)Tubular secretion
F)Nephrons
G)Digestive
H)Urinary bladder
I)Urethra
J)Ureters
Q2) Which pathogen would most likely be responsible for a urinary tract infection caused by improper wiping after defecation?
A)Chlamydia
B)Escherichia coli
C)Mycoplasma
D)Salmonella
Q3) The glomerular capsule and a tuft of capillaries called the ________ form the renal corpuscle.
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Chapter 17: Reproductive Systems
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Q1) In general,how do all the hormonal birth control methods for women work to prevent pregnancy? Be detailed and include all the relevant hormones.
Q2) The tubes that extend from the uterus and function to transport the immature egg from the ovary to the uterus are known as ________.
A)vas deferens
B)cervix
C)oviducts
D)seminiferous tubules
Q3) Sperm become mature and capable of fertilizing an egg in the ________.
A)vas deferens
B)urethra
C)seminiferous tubules
D)epididymis
Q4) The structure that is shared between the male reproductive and urinary systems is the ________.
A)prostate gland
B)seminal vesicles
C)urethra
D)seminiferous tubules
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Chapter 18: Development Throughout Life
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Q1) Which of the following is false concerning fertilization?
A)Several sperm must contribute their DNA to the egg.
B)Enzymes are released from the acrosome of the sperm to penetrate the egg.
C)Most sperm die on their way to the egg.
D)The process can take hours to complete.
Q2) ________ is a type of neural tube defect in which part of the spinal cord develops abnormally,as does the adjacent area of the spine.
Q3) ________ is the primary germ layer that forms the nervous system and the outer layer of skin and its derivatives such as hair,nails,oil glands,sweat glands,and mammary glands.
Q4) Which cells migrate to the gonads,where they differentiate into immature cells that will eventually become sperm or oocytes?
A)primordial germ cells
B)embryonic disk
C)allantois
D)yolk sac
Q5) Once the fertilized ovum has divided into two cells it is called the ________.
Q6) The ________ develops where the vertebral column will later form.
Q7) The period that begins at week 9 of development is the ________.
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Chromosomes and Cell Division
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Sample Questions
Q1) Crossing over occurs during ________ and is important because it ________.
A)telophase II; creates daughter cells
B)prophase I; generates variation
C)anaphase II; separates the homologous pairs
D)metaphase I; reduces the chromosome number by half
Q2) A baby is born with the genotype XYY.This sort of disorder is the result of nondisjunction during meiosis.In the case of the XYY genotype,can you be certain of which parent had the nondisjunction in their gamete? Explain your answer.
Q3) A phase in meiosis in which homologous pairs are separated from each other.
A)Interphase
B)Telophase
C)Cytokinesis
D)Haploid
E)Metaphase
F)Gene
G)Anaphase
H)Crossing over
I)Anaphase I
Q4) Oogenesis is completed at ________.
Q5) The preparation for cell division that precedes mitosis is called ________.
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Genetics and Human Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) If your parents are heterozygous for a gene,what is the chance that you will have at least one copy of it?
A)0%
B)25%
C)50%
D)75%
Q2) People with dark hair usually also inherit dark eyes.Why is this usually the case?
A)Autosomes
B)Phenotype
C)Incomplete dominance
D)Duplication
E)Heterozygous
F)Codominance
G)Linkage
H)Pedigree
I)Gene
J)Deletion
Q3) Often in complete dominance,the recessive allele codes for a nonfunctional
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Dna and Biotechnology
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Q1) A chemical that delivers amino acids one at a time in the ordered sequence specified by the mRNA strand is called ________.
A)DNA
B)tRNA
C)rRNA
D)STR
Q2) According to base pairing rules,adenine will only pair with this.
A)Genome
B)DNA polymerases
C)Gene therapy
D)Guanine
E)Thymine
F)RNA polymerase
G)Codons
H)Biotechnology
I)Epigenetics
Q3) The drug Humulin is a modified form of the human insulin protein that is used to treat diabetes.Describe the process that would allow a drug company to take this gene and,using bacteria,produce large amounts of this human protein.
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Evolution and Our Heritage
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Q1) The relative number of reproductively viable offspring produced by individuals is called ________.
A)homology
B)immigration
C)fitness
D)taxonomy
Q2) The Abuja family had 10 children by 1950,but due to ill health,there is now only one surviving grandchild.The Bacchus family had 3 children in 1950 and now has 6 grandchildren.Which statement about these families is correct?
A)The Abuja family had greater gene flow.
B)The Abuja family had more gene drift.
C)The Bacchus family exhibits the bottleneck effect.
D)The Bacchus family has greater fitness.
Q3) What factors contribute to genetic variation in populations?
Q4) Which of the following is a correctly written scientific name?
A)Australopithecus afarensis
B)homo sapiens
C)musca domesticus
D)Acer pennsylvanicus
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Chapter 23: Ecology, the Environment, and Us
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Q1) What are the differences between primary and secondary succession?
Q2) The biosphere consists of many ________,each consisting of the organisms in a specific geographic area and their physical environment.
Q3) An area had no previous community and had no existing soil at first,but then living things started occupying the area.This situation would be called ________.
A)biological magnification
B)primary succession
C)climax community
D)secondary replacement
Q4) Living organisms that consume plants,animals,and detritus to maintain their metabolism are referred to as ________.
A)carnivores
B)omnivores
C)parasites
D)producers
Q5) The study of the interactions among organisms and between organisms and the environment is called ________.
Q6) The ________ cycle lacks an atmospheric component.
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Chapter
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Q1) The increase and decrease of individuals in a population around the carrying capacity in response to resource availability and other environmental factors is known as which growth pattern?
A)exponential growth
B)logistic growth
C)zero growth
D)death rate
Q2) Which is the number of years it will take for a population to double at a particular rate of growth?
A)birth rate
B)doubling time
C)death rate
D)age structure
Q3) What are the issues around the use of biofuels as an alternative to fossil fuels?
Q4) Air pollution over a long period of time can cause this condition.
A)malaria
B)influenza
C)emphysema
D)measles
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Chapter 25: Food Safety and Defense
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Q1) A food product labeled organic has been certified to be ________.
A)grown without certain synthetic pesticides or fertilizers
B)free of pathogens
C)genetically altered to be safer to eat
D)All of the above are true.
Q2) A biological agent that is moderately easy to disseminate and that results in moderate morbidity and low mortality is considered ________ by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention.
A)Category A
B)Category B
C)Category C
D)Category D
Q3) John had a cookout last week.He served chicken that he had grilled outdoors and that was fully cooked.However,some of his guests developed a Salmonella infection.Even though the chicken was completely cooked,what might John have done that could have potentially allowed for his guests to develop a Salmonella infection?
Q4) Why is the process of irrigation with run-off water a bad practice? What measures should you take to protect yourself from acquiring a foodborne illness from crops?
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Chapter 26: Drugs and the Mind
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Q1) A psychoactive drug that delays the removal of a neurotransmitter from the synapse will ________.
A)dampen the response of the receiving neuron
B)prolong the effect of the neurotransmitter on the receiving neuron
C)prevent the neurotransmitter from working
D)bind to the receptor and affect the receiving neuron in the same way as the neurotransmitter
Q2) Mattie thinks she should use nicotine patches because they are safe.How can you convince her otherwise given the information in this chapter?
Q3) Which of the following is not a potential effect of alcohol abuse?
A)impaired judgment
B)Down syndrome
C)higher blood pressure
D)liver cirrhosis
Q4) Vasily thinks that drinking alcohol heightens his alertness and awareness of his surroundings and that he is a better driver after drinking several beers.Persuade him otherwise.
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Chapter 27: Diabetes Mellitus
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Q1) Susan Littlehorse (28 years old,obese,and pregnant)complains of burning urine to you,her physician at the Indian Health Service.Blood tests show hemoglobin A1c concentrations over 9%.What is your initial diagnosis? How do you test your idea? How should her condition be treated? What are some potential problems she may experience in the future?
Q2) Which of the following is recommended for diabetes mellitus patients?
A)smoking
B)binge drinking
C)inactivity
D)controlling stress
Q3) Buford is a very successful high school athlete who has been diagnosed with diabetes.He needs to do well in sports so that he can receive a university scholarship.He dreams of getting into the pros too-his whole family is counting on him! However,he doesn't want to go through the entire regimen his doctor has prescribed for him because he thinks it cuts into his sports time.What do you need to tell him about sticking to his diabetic treatment plan?
Q4) Summarize the origins and functions of insulin in the body.
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Chapter 28: a Cardiovascular Disease
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Q1) Which of the following lifestyle changes might be used to treat or prevent high blood pressure?
A)limit dietary salt
B)exercise regularly
C)control body weight
D)All of the above could help with high blood pressure.
Q2) Which of the following is caused by nicotine in cigarette smoke?
A)faster heart rate
B)constriction of blood vessels
C)increased stickiness of platelets
D)All of the above are true.
Q3) How could lipids lead to a myocardial infarction?
Q4) When a leg vein is grafted to provide an alternate route around a point of obstruction between the aorta and a clogged coronary artery,the procedure is called
A)angioplasty
B)stent
C)coronary bypass
D)coronary infarction
Q5) What are some ways that hypertension can kill?
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Chapter 29: a Special Topic: Infectious Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most effective way of killing Staphylococcus in the food you are preparing?
A)Nothing, this organism never is spread in food.
B)Mix antibiotics in with the food.
C)Cook the food thoroughly.
D)Use a good antiseptic on the food itself before preparing it.
Q2) Given the information in this chapter,why do you suppose that the rabies virus attacks mammal nervous systems but not those of crocodiles?
Q3) Cholera is spread by contaminated food and water.The bacterium kills because it changes the permeability of the large intestinal cells.Which therapy would give the best chance of saving a person given the information in this chapter?
A)chemotherapy
B)radiation
C)fluid replacement
D)CT scans
Q4) Explain how antibiotics are used to treat bacterial infections.What are some of the problems concerning the use of these drugs?
Q5) A (n)________ is a global outbreak of disease.
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Chapter 30: a Nutrition and Weight Control
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Q1) A dentist had a new patient who was abnormally slender for her height.How could the dentist determine if the person suffered from bulimia?
A)There would be evidence of water retention.
B)The teeth and gums would be damaged.
C)Extensive weight gain would be observed.
D)High blood sugar levels would be present.
Q2) Which of the following factors would increase the basal metabolic rate?
A)female gender
B)larger muscle mass
C)greater fatty tissue
D)increased age
Q3) According to the contents listed on the box of a certain brand of cereal,it contains 19 grams of carbohydrates but claims that no sugar is present.How is this possible?
Q4) According to the chapter,a person might prevent atherosclerosis by following these dietary guidelines.
Q5) Some people believe that an all-vegetable diet will mean that vegetarians will not have a proper balance of amino acids needed to build proteins.Explain why this is false.
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Chapter 31: Sexually Transmitted Diseases and Aids
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Q1) Why are treatable diseases like chlamydia so widespread in the world?
Q2) The term sexually transmitted infection is used to refer to infections ________.
A)caused by bacteria
B)caused by viruses
C)that cannot be treated
D)that have no symptoms
Q3) Why is a male more likely than a female to seek treatment for chlamydia and gonorrhea?
Q4) Your former roommate went through a fairly promiscuous stage during her freshman year.Now she feels certain that she has an STD,possibly more than one STD.Too embarrassed to go to the doctor,she wants to take antibiotics that you had left over from a case of strep throat.She tells you that antibiotics will wipe out whatever she has.Which of the following STDs would your antibiotics definitely not eliminate?
A)gonorrhea
B)chlamydia
C)syphilis
D)HPV infection
Q5) Why is it not possible for HIV medications to eliminate HIV in a confirmed HIV+ patient?
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Chapter 32: Autism Spectrum Disorders
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Q1) Explain how neuroimaging brought new results to the study of ASDs,and why it is not yet recommended for use in the diagnosis of ASDs.
Q2) The most reliable diagnostic tool for autism spectrum disorders is ________.
A)neuroimaging
B)observation
C)genetic testing
D)the use of screening tests
Q3) A large percentage of the public believes that vaccines have a role in the development of autism.What information would you use to explain to a friend that there is no scientific evidence to suggest that vaccines cause autism?
Q4) Which of these statements concerning autism spectrum disorders (ASDs)is false?
A)ASDs affect girls more frequently than boys.
B)Symptoms typically appear by 1-3 years old.
C)They last a lifetime.
D)They can be associated with other medical conditions.
Q5) Explain the two main types of studies that showed the genetic basis of ASDs.
Q6) Explain the diagnostic criteria and symptoms used to distinguish between autism and Asperger syndrome.
Q7) Describe some of the environmental risk factors associated with ASDs.
Page 34
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Chapter 33: Stem Cells a Repair Kit for the Body
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Q1) Most people assume that cloning refers only to whole organism or reproductive cloning.Explain how therapeutic cloning is different from reproductive cloning.
Q2) A cell with the ability to differentiate into several different types of cells is considered
A)totipotent
B)unipotent
C)multipotent
D)pluripotent
Q3) Which of the following is not needed in a reproductive cloning procedure?
A)an egg cell
B)a diploid cell
C)a sperm cell
D)a surrogate mother
Q4) At which point or stage would the majority of cells in the embryo no longer be stem cells?
A)the pre-embryo stage
B)in the blastocyst
C)after organogenesis
D)A large number of stem cells would exist in all these stages.
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Chapter 34: Cancer
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain why malignant tumors are more dangerous than benign tumors.
Q2) An allele known as BRCA1 is often found in women with breast and ovarian cancer.However,some women develop these cancers and do not have the BRCA1 allele.In addition,some women who have BRCA1 never develop breast or ovarian cancer.How can this be explained?
A)This must be an example of pleiotropy.
B)These types of cancers are in no way associated with specific alleles.
C)Something other than the gene must factor into whether cancer develops.
D)The BRCA1 allele must be dominant.
Q3) The removal and analysis of a piece of tissue that is suspected to be cancerous is called a(n)________.
Q4) Which of the following is a typical means of halting normal cell division?
A)the shortening of telomeres
B)increasing the activity of p53
C)activating oncogenes
D)triggering apoptosis
Q5) ________ is a treatment method in which rapidly dividing cells are killed using drugs instead of radiation.
Q6) How does chemotherapy work as a treatment for cancer? Why is it not always effective?
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