Biology for Health Sciences
Solved Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Biology for Health Sciences offers an introduction to the fundamental concepts of biology with an emphasis on topics relevant to health and medicine. This course explores the structure and function of cells, genetics, human physiology, microbiology, and the basics of disease mechanisms. Students will gain an understanding of how biological processes influence the human body in health and disease, preparing them for further studies in healthcare, nursing, or medical fields. Laboratory activities and case studies are integrated to link theoretical knowledge with practical applications in the health sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Human Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition by Elaine N. Marie
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29 Chapters
3446 Verified Questions
3446 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: The Human Body: an Orientation
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118 Verified Questions
118 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Skeletal muscles respond with shivering reflex which provides heat to return the body's temperature to a homeostatic balance or "ideal" value. A)E B)A
C)B
D)D
E)C
Answer: A
Q2) A major function of serous membranes is to decrease friction.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Responds to environmental changes by transmitting electrical impulses.
A)Muscular
B)Skeletal
C)Integumentary
D)Nervous
Answer: D
Q4) Which cavity contains the bladder,some reproductive organs,and the rectum?
Answer: pelvic
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Chapter 2: Chemistry Comes Alive
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137 Verified Questions
137 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What happens in redox reactions?
A) the electron acceptor is oxidized
B) the organic substance that loses hydrogen is usually reduced
C) both decomposition and electron exchange occur
D) the reaction is uniformly reversible
Answer: C
Q2) Deoxyribose sugar.
A)A
B)D
C)B
D)E
E)C
Answer: C
Q3) Lipid. A)C B)B C)E
D)D
E)A
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Cells: the Living Units
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nonpolar region of phospholipid.
E)B
Answer: C
Q2) At of age of 6 months,Caleb was diagnosed with Tay-Sachs disease.As his primary care physician,what would you tell his parents about this disease?
Answer: It is an inherited condition where various chemicals are broken down in the brain by a cell organelle called the lysosome.Unfortunately,because of the buildup of undigested nerve cell lipids,the symptoms of listlessness and motor weakness will progress to mental retardation,seizures,blindness,and ultimately death.
Q3) How are the products of free ribosomes different from membrane-bound ribosomes?
Answer: Free ribosomes make soluble proteins that function in the cytosol.Membrane-bound ribosomes produce proteins that are to be used on the cell membrane or exported from the cell.
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Chapter 4: Tissue: the Living Fabric
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Sample Questions
Q1) Healing of a surgical incision through the body wall will tend to increase the amount of areolar tissue.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Generally speaking,connective tissues are largely non-living extracellular matrix.Which of the following is an EXCEPTION?
A) blood
B) adipose
C) bone
D) areolar
Q3) Elastic cartilage tissue is found in the walls of the large arteries that leave the heart.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Cardiac muscle.
A)A
B)B
C)C
D)D
E)E
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Chapter 5: The Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The sebaceous glands are simple alveolar glands that secrete a substance known as sebum.The secretion of sebum is stimulated ________.
A) as a protective coating when one is swimming
B) when the air temperature drops
C) by high temperatures
D) by hormones, especially androgens
Q2) The dermis is a strong,flexible connective tissue layer.Which of the following cell types are likely to be found in the dermis?
A) monocytes, reticulocytes, and osteocytes
B) fibroblasts, macrophages, and mast cells
C) goblet cells, parietal cells, and chondrocytes
D) osteoblasts, osteoclasts, and epithelial cells
Q3) Joe just burned himself on a hot pot.and the burn is quite painful.Joe's burn would best be described as a third-degree burn.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Explain why soap that has an alkaline base may not be healthy for some patients to use daily.
Q5) Pigment-producing cells in the epidermis are ________.
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Chapter 6: Bones and Skeletal Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain why swimming is not generally recommended as an exercise to prevent osteoporosis.
Q2) Which of the following is not a function of the skeletal system?
A) production of blood cells (hematopoiesis)
B) communication
C) storage of minerals
D) support
Q3) Create an analogy for the chemical composition of bone using highway construction.
Q4) Bone formed is poorly mineralized and soft.Deforms on weight bearing.
A)Paget's disease
B)Osteoporosis
C)Osteomalacia
Q5) Excessive and haphazard bone deposit and resorption.
A)Paget's disease
B)Osteoporosis
C)Osteomalacia
Q6) Closure of the epiphyseal plate stops all bone growth.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: The Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) The temporal bone connects to the zygomatic bone via the temporal process of the temporal bone.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Failure of these anterior bones to fuse causes a condition known as cleft palate.
A)Maxillae
B)Temporal bones
C)Sphenoid
D)Lacrimal bones
Q3) The glenohumeral joint that articulates the humerus to the pectoral girdle is a highly mobile joint.This mobility comes at a cost because ________.
A) these type of joints are harder to control and coordinate
B) muscles that span this mobile joint will only provide a reduced amount of power
C) the joint is relatively unstable and can easily dislocate
D) the blood vessels that lead to the arm and hand can easily be cut off by the free range of motion
Q4) The smallest short bone in the hand is the ________.
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Chapter 8: Joints
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bending your head back until it hurts is an example of ________.
A) circumduction
B) extension
C) hyperextension
D) flexion
Q2) The major role of ligaments at synovial joints is to unite bones and prevent undesirable movement.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Hinge joints permit movement in only two planes.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following movements does NOT increase or decrease the angle between bones?
A) extension
B) rotation
C) abduction
D) circumduction
Q5) Why are epiphyseal plates considered temporary joints?
Q6) Briefly describe the structure of a typical synovial joint.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Muscles and Muscle Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) Define muscle fatigue.
Q2) Breaks down ACh into its building blocks,rendering it ineffective.
A)Sodium ions
B)Acetylcholinesterase
C)Calcium ions
D)Acetylcholine
E)Creatine phosphate
Q3) H zone.
A)E
B)A
C)D
D)C
E)B
Q4) Activates synaptic vesicles in axon terminals to fuse with plasma membrane of axon terminal.
A)Sodium ions
B)Acetylcholinesterase
C)Calcium ions
D)Acetylcholine
E)Creatine phosphate
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Chapter 10: The Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Second-class lever.
A)C
B)A
C)B
Q2) Retract scapula.
A)D
B)A C)B
D)E
E)C
Q3) Serratus anterior.
A)C
B)D
C)B
D)E
E)A
Q4) Donna was rushing to class and slipped on a patch of ice and fell backward.An X-ray revealed a broken coccyx.All the associated muscles were bruised.Name these muscles.
Q5) Damage to the ischiocavernosus muscle would have what effect?
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Fundamentals of the Nervous System and Nervous Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the basic divisions of the peripheral nervous system?
Q2) A second nerve impulse cannot be generated until ________.
A) all sodium gates are closed
B) the membrane potential has been reestablished C) the Na ions have been pumped back into the cell D) proteins have been resynthesized
Q3) Axon diameter and degree of myelination determine nerve impulse conduction velocity.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Calcium ions.
A)C
B)E
C)B
D)D
E)A
Q5) What symptoms would a nurse focus on in his or her care of a patient with multiple sclerosis?
13
Q6) The synapse more common in embryonic nervous tissue than in adults is the
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Page 14
Chapter 12: The Central Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The reticular activating system (RAS)is comprised of specific pathways primarily in the limbic system.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which brain areas lack a blood-brain barrier,and what purpose does this absence serve?
Q3) Degeneration of the dopamine-releasing neurons of the ________ is the ultimate cause of Parkinson's disease.
A) reticular formation
B) internal capsule
C) substantia nigra
D) red nucleus
Q4) Which brain waves are uncommon for awake adults,but are common for children?
A) delta
B) alpha
C) theta
D) beta
Q5) Describe how the function of a particular brain area is known.
Q6) List seven homeostatic roles of the hypothalamus.
Q7) Differentiate clearly between short-term and long-term memory.
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Chapter 13: The Peripheral Nervous System and Reflex Activity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Motor neuron.
A)E
B)C
C)A
D)B
E)D
Q2) Which of the following is the best explanation of how a stimulus' strength is transmitted to the central nervous system from sensory nerves?
A) More than one type of receptor will respond to larger stimulus.
B) An action potential will increase in strength as stimulus's strength increases.
C) Action potential frequency is increased as stimulus' strength increases.
D) Action potentials as well as graded potentials are sent to the central nervous system when stimulus strength increases.
Q3) Describe the steps of the regeneration process of a damage peripheral nerve fiber.
Q4) An adult patient shows Babinski's sign during a test of plantar reflex.How is Babinski's sign different than the normal response and what does the altered response indicate?
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Page 16
Chapter 14: The Autonomic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) In what ways are the autonomic and the somatic nervous systems different?
Q2) Mrs.Oberhaus needs surgery to correct a severe case of Raynaud's disease,affecting one of her hands.What surgical procedure will be performed? After the surgery,will she be more likely to suffer from anhidrosis (lack of sweating)or hyperhidrosis (profuse sweating)in the affected hand?
Q3) Autonomic ganglia are sights of synapse and information transmission from preganglionic to postganglionic neurons.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Secreted by preganglionic parasympathetic fibers.
A)Norepinephrine (NE)
B)Acetylcholine (ACh)
Q5) The sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the ANS have the same effect on most body organ systems.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The vasomotor tone of blood vessels is mostly under sympathetic control.
A)True
B)False
Page 17
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Chapter 15: The Special Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Without a functioning crista ampullaris,the semicircular canals would not function.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In order for sound to reach the spiral organ (of Corti),the auditory ossicles must vibrate the oval window and set the endolymph in motion.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Sound is generally perceived in the occipital lobe of the cerebral cortex.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The receptor for static equilibrium is the ________.
A) macula
B) cochlear duct
C) utricle
D) semicircular canals
Q5) The fluid contained within the membranous labyrinth is called perilymph.
A)True
B)False
Q6) What two things does the ciliary body do?
Page 18
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Chapter 16: The Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The posterior lobe of the pituitary gland is NOT a true endocrine gland because
A) embryonically it was an endocrine tissue, but in the adult human it is no longer functional
B) it is only a hormone storage area that receives hormones from the hypothalamus for release
C) it is unable to function as an endocrine tissue because it is actually part of the neural system due to its location
D) it is strictly a part of the neural system and has little or nothing to do with hormonal release
Q2) While visiting another country,you notice many individuals with iodine-deficiency goiters.Describe the feedback loop responsible for these goiters.
Q3) Is part of the sympathetic nervous system.
A)Thyroid gland
B)Pancreas
C)Pituitary gland (hypophysis)
D)Adrenal medulla
E)Parathyroid glands
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19
Chapter 17: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Type A.
A)B
B)D
C)C
D)A
Q2) Which of the following would not be a possible cause of sickling of red blood cells in someone with sickle-cell anemia?
A) malaria
B) vigorous exercise
C) prolonged exposure to cold
D) travel at high altitude
Q3) Hemolytic disease of the newborn will not be possible in which of the following situations listed below?
A) if the child is type O positive
B) if the father is Rh<sup>-</sup>
C) if the child is Rh<sup>+</sup>
D) if the father is Rh<sup>+</sup>
Q4) List the most common causes of bleeding disorders.
Q5) If a person has AB type blood which of the ABO blood types can they receive as a transfusion?
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Chapter 18: The Cardiovascular System: the Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) Prevents backflow into the left ventricle.
A)Aortic semilunar valve
B)Mitral (bicuspid) valve
C)Tricuspid valve
D)Pulmonary semilunar valve
Q2) When does the period of atrial repolarization occur?
A) during the T wave
B) ventricular contraction
C) ventricular depolarization
D) during the P wave
Q3) An abnormal pacemaker.
A)Ectopic focus
B)Quiescent period
C)Fibrillation
D)Ischemia
E)Infarction
Q4) A 14-year-old girl undergoing a physical examination prior to being admitted to summer camp was found to have a loud diastolic murmur at the second intercostal space to the left side of the sternum.Explain the reason for the loud heart murmur associated with this girl's condition.
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Chapter 19: The Cardiovascular System: Blood Vessels
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Sample Questions
Q1) Atherosclerosis is a progressive disease of blood vessels that is responsible for millions of deaths each year.Describe the disease process,noting the involvement of specific cell/tissue types and molecules.
Q2) The pulse pressure is ________.
A) systolic pressure divided by diastolic pressure
B) systolic pressure plus diastolic pressure
C) diastolic pressure plus 1/3 (systolic pressure plus diastolic pressure)
D) systolic pressure minus diastolic pressure
Q3) Which statement best describes arteries?
A) Only large arteries are lined with endothelium.
B) All contain valves to prevent the backflow of blood.
C) All carry blood away from the heart.
D) All carry oxygenated blood to the heart.
Q4) Arterial ________ provide alternate pathways for blood to get to an organ.
Q5) Mr.Wilson is a 45-year-old stockbroker with essential hypertension.He is African American,obese,and he smokes 2-3 packs of cigarettes daily.What risk factors for hypertension are typified by Mr.Wilson? What steps should be taken to treat Mr.Wilson,and what lifestyle changes should he make? What complications are likely if corrective steps are not taken?
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Chapter 20: The Lymphatic System and Lymphoid Organs and Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) How does the lymphatic system both help and hinder the spread of cancer through the body?
Q2) Thoracic duct.
A)D
B)B
C)A
D)C
E)E
Q3) Lymphocytes can develop and mature in the ________.
A) spleen
B) tonsils
C) lymph nodes
D) red bone marrow
Q4) Antibodies that act against a particular foreign substance are released by
A) lymph nodes
B) plasma cells
C) T lymphocytes
D) medullary cords
Q5) List the functions of the spleen.
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Chapter 21: The Immune System: Innate and Adaptive Body
Defenses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Plasma cells ________.
A) have a great deal of rough endoplasmic reticulum reflecting the fact that they secrete a tremendous amount of protein (antibody)
B) are small so that they slip between endothelial cells of capillaries to fight infection in the surrounding tissues
C) have a great deal of rough endoplasmic reticulum to dispose of ingested pathogens
D) are large so that they can envelope their prey by phagocytosis
Q2) Select the correct statement about immunodeficiency.
A) Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) disease is an acquired condition.
B) Hodgkin's disease is a hereditary immunodeficiency found in children.
C) The most common form of immunodeficiency is graft-versus-host (GVH) disease.
D) The causative agent in acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) is a virus that recognizes CD4 proteins.
Q3) Soluble proteins secreted by plasma cells are called antibodies.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What are monoclonal antibodies? How are they produced,and what are some of their clinical uses?
Page 24
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Chapter 22: The Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Infant respiratory distress syndrome (IRDS)is a condition peculiar to premature babies.In IRDS insufficient surfactant is produced.What does this cause and how is it treated?
Q2) Labored breathing is termed dyspnea.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The olfactory mucosal lining of the nasal cavity contains the receptors for the sense of smell.
A)True
B)False
Q4) While dining out in a restaurant a man suddenly chokes on a piece of meat.The waitress is also a student nurse and comes to the man's aid.She asks him if he can talk.The man responds by shaking his head no and grabbing at his neck.What is the significance of the man's inability to talk?
Q5) While having a physical examination,a young male informed his doctor that at age 8 he had lobar pneumonia and pleurisy in his left lung.The physician decided to measure his VC.Describe the apparatus and method used for taking this measurement.Define the following terms used in the description of lung volumes: TV,IRV,ERV,RV,and VC.
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Chapter 23: The Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Wide lymph capillary located in the villus.
A)E
B)C
C)B
D)D
E)A
Q2) A woman is brought to an emergency room complaining of severe pain in her left iliac region.She claims previous episodes and says that the condition is worse when she is constipated,and is relieved by defecation.A large,tender mass is palpated in the left iliac fossa and a barium study reveals a large number of diverticula in her descending and sigmoid colon.What are diverticula,and what is believed to promote their formation? Does this woman have diverticulitis or diverticulosis? Explain.
Q3) Which of these is not part of the splanchnic circulation?
A) hepatic portal vein
B) superior mesenteric artery
C) celiac artery
D) inferior vena cava
Q4) The part of the peritoneum that covers the external surfaces of most digestive organs is the ________ peritoneum.
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Chapter 24: Nutrition,metabolism,and Body Temperature Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Prostaglandins play a role in ________.
A) noninflammatory responses
B) control of blood volume
C) skeletal muscle contraction
D) control of blood pressure
Q2) Which term describes the action of an endurance runner the night before the race as she "carbo-loads" when eating a large pasta dinner?
A) glycogenesis
B) glycogenolysis
C) glycolysis
D) gluconeogenesis
Q3) The molecule that serves as the major source of readily available fuel for neurons and blood cells is ________.
A) glucose
B) protein
C) fat
D) acetyl CoA
Q4) How is the postabsorptive state controlled and initiated?
Q5) What is obesity,and what health problems accompany or follow its onset?
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Chapter 25: The Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The act of emptying the bladder is called voiding.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The urinary bladder is composed of ________ epithelium.
A) transitional
B) stratified squamous
C) pseudostratified columnar
D) simple squamous
Q3) Cells and transport proteins are physically prevented from passing through the filtration membrane.This has the following effect on filtration.
A) decreased osmotic pressure in the filtrate that increases the amount of filtration
B) increasing osmotic pressure in the glomerular capillaries that reduces the amount of filtration
C) neutral change in osmotic pressure with no effect on filtration
D) increased osmotic pressure in the filtrate the draws plasma through the membrane
Q4) Explain how filtration works in the glomerular capillaries.
Q5) Explain what is meant by the terms cotransport process and transport maximum.
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Chapter 26: Fluid,electrolyte,and Acid-Base Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mary finds that she regularly retains water at a certain point in the menstrual cycle.Which of the following is chemically similar to aldosterone,and like aldosterone,enhances NaCl reabsorption in the renal tubules?
A) follicle-stimulating hormone
B) luteinizing hormone
C) progesterone
D) estrogen
Q2) Carotid artery and aortic baroreceptors are involved in long term adjustment to total body sodium ion content.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is the effect of acidosis on the body? Of alkalosis?
Q4) Falling arterial blood pressure promotes ________.
A) enhanced sodium ion loss in urine
B) vasodilation
C) enhanced water loss in urine
D) vasoconstriction
Q5) When the blood becomes hypertonic (too many solutes),antidiuretic hormone (ADH)is released.What is the effect of ADH on the kidney tubules?
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Chapter 27: The Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) All but one of the following statements describes the necessity of the blood testis barrier.Select the one statement that does not describe a necessity of the blood testis barrier.
A) Spermatogenesis produces new combinations of genes and chromosomes that results in unique antigens that the immune system may see as foreign.
B) Spermatocytes undergo meiosis only during puberty, well after the immune system has come to recognize "self" from "non-self" cells.
C) Sperm can only be produced at temperatures lower than body temperature. Inflammation in the testis could raise the temperature too high to produce sperm.
D) Foreign antigens produced by the newly formed sperm could initiate an autoimmune response against the developing sperm.
Q2) Type B spermatogonia.
A)A B)C C)D
D)E
E)B
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Chapter 28: Pregnancy and Human Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Neural tissue is formed by the ________.
A) ectoderm
B) endoderm
C) mesoderm
D) epiderm
Q2) The trophoblast is mostly responsible for forming the ________.
A) placental tissue
B) allantois
C) lining of the endometrium
D) archenteron
Q3) Embedding of the blastocyst in the uterine wall.
A)Implantation
B)Capacitation
C)Fertilization
D)Gastrulation
E)Cleavage
Q4) By the end of the embryonic period,at 8 weeks,all the adult organ systems are recognizable.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 29: Heredity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Define karyotype.
Q2) The main way a recessive allele would be expressed even when only one copy is present would be ________.
A) dominance
B) recessive inheritance
C) incomplete dominance
D) sex-linked inheritance
Q3) Dominant alleles are so called because under most circumstances they ________.
A) code for genes that are never considered lethal
B) suppress the expression of other alleles
C) code for desired traits only
D) code for most phenotypic and genotypic expressions of a trait
Q4) Some segments of the Y chromosome have no counterpart on the X chromosome.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A 40-year-old pregnant woman is concerned about possible genetic defects in her unborn fetus.Her physician recommends prenatal testing and advises her of two methods.Compare and contrast amniocentesis with chorionic villus sampling relative to the time each can be performed,and the relative advantages and disadvantages of each.
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