Biology for Health Sciences
Pre-Test Questions
Course Introduction
Biology for Health Sciences provides an overview of fundamental biological principles with a focus on their relevance to health and the human body. The course covers cell structure and function, genetics, metabolism, and the organization of tissues and organ systems, emphasizing how these concepts relate to health, disease, and medical practice. Students explore biological processes such as immunity, growth, and reproduction, and gain insight into how disruptions in these systems contribute to common health conditions. Designed for students pursuing careers in healthcare, this course builds a biological foundation essential for understanding clinical concepts and advancing to specialized health science courses.
Recommended Textbook
Discover Biology Core Topics 4th Edition by Michael L. Cain LU;,SDK
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Chapter 1: The Nature of Science and the Characteristics of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) All animals have the capacity to sense and respond to their environment; humans, for example,
A) can see better than any other animal.
B) can hear better than any other animal.
C) have a better sense of smell than any other animal.
D) while not the fastest or strongest animal, have a set of sensory adaptations that are entirely compatible with human biology and environment.
Answer: D
Q2) When compared to living organisms, viruses display several unusual features; one of the most striking is that A) viruses do not evolve.
B) viral reproduction utilizes a cloning strategy that is independent of DNA.
C) viruses utilize both DNA and RNA in their biochemistry.
D) viruses are not constructed from cells.
Answer: D
Q3) A scientific hypothesis must be testable; if not, science cannot evaluate it.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
3
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Chapter 2: Organizing the Diversity of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) The kingdom Bacteria consists of the same species as the domain Bacteria.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) In taxonomy, individuals belonging of the same class would also belong to the same A) species.
B) genus.
C) order.
D) none of the above
Answer: D
Q3) Canis latrans is the scientific name for the coyote. The term Canis represents the coyotes'
A) genus.
B) kingdom.
C) order.
D) species.
Answer: A
Q4) A key shared derived feature in fish, reptiles, and humans is a(n) __________.
Answer: backbone
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Chapter 3: Major Groups of Living Organisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mutualistic organisms are more commonly termed parasites.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Flowers are the organs of reproduction in angiosperms.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) The vertebrates are grouped into a lineage because all of members possess an internal _______.
Answer: backbone
Q4) No single characteristic is sufficient to describe a kingdom, for example, plants and some bacteria share in common
A) the ability to photosynthesize.
B) the presence of a cell wall and the absence of a plasma membrane.
C) a heterotrophic lifestyle.
D) the ability to reproduce sexually.
Answer: A
Q5) The defining feature of the angiosperms is the _______.
Answer: flower
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Chapter 4: Chemical Building Blocks
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Sample Questions
Q1) Individual water molecules are pulled toward each other by _______ bonds.
A) covalent
B) hydrogen
C) peptide
D) ionic
Q2) You add a watery solution to another solution and find that the pH drops from 8 to 3. You have added a(n)
A) buffer.
B) acid.
C) phospholipid.
D) base.
Q3) _________ are types of proteins that speed up the rate of chemical reactions in the cell.
Q4) The monomers in proteins are ________.
Q5) Which of the following levels of protein structure involves more than one chain of amino acids?
A) primary structure
B) secondary structure
C) tertiary structure
D) quaternary structure
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Chapter 5: Cell Structure and Internal Compartments
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Q1) The ___________ model describes the plasma membrane as a mobile mixture of phospholipids and proteins.
Q2) The microfilaments that allow cells to move contain the protein __________.
Q3) Nuclear pores allow the nucleus to pass through the plasma membrane.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The smooth endoplasmic reticulum
A) is the site for manufacture of lipids destined for other cellular compartments.
B) produces the energy needed to run chemical reactions in the cell.
C) converts sunlight into chemical energy.
D) stores water, nutrients, and enzymes.
Q5) In eukaryotic cells, most of the ATP used for cellular reactions is produced by the specialized, membrane-enclosed compartments know as _____.
Q6) Which of the following statements is true of chloroplasts?
A) They produce proteins used by other parts of the cell.
B) They capture energy from sunlight.
C) They give an animal cell its shape.
D) They contain an entire copy of a cell's genetic material.
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Chapter 6: Cell Membranes, Transport, and Communication
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Sample Questions
Q1) Active transport requires A) energy.
B) diffusion.
C) hormones.
D) osmosis.
Q2) A white blood cell at the site of a puncture wound engulfs a large cluster of bacteria forming a large internal vesicle. This is an example of A) exocytosis.
B) pinocytosis.
C) receptor-mediated endocytosis.
D) phagocytosis.
Q3) Plants have hormones.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Tight junctions prevent the movement of the extracellular matrix between cells.
A)True B)False
Q5) Cells surrounded by a hypertonic solution would lose water. A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: Energy and Enzymes
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Q1) Living systems must work to remain ordered. They pass off their disorder in the form of
A) light.
B) sound.
C) heat.
D) water.
Q2) Catabolic reactions are tightly coupled to _______ reactions that require energy.
Q3) Photosynthesis creates energy and cellular respiration destroys energy.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The capture and use of energy by living organisms involves numerous chemical reactions. Together all of these processes are known as _______.
Q5) Which of the following compounds is the least oxidized?
A) C H O
B) CO
C) CH
D) HCOOH
Q6) The gain of electrons by one atom from another atom is referred to as _______.
Q7) _______ blocks the activity of both COX-1 and COX-2 enzymes.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Photosynthesis and Cellular Respiration
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following applies to chloroplasts?
A) They have an intermembrane space and a matrix.
B) They have three membrane-enclosed compartments.
C) Unlike mitochondria, they lack a stroma.
D) They carry out both photosynthesis and respiration.
Q2) What is the role of water in photosynthesis?
A) Water provides a phosphate group to ATP.
B) Water captures light energy and transfers it to the electron transport chain.
C) Water donates electrons to the electron transport chain.
D) Water combines with carbon dioxide (CO ) to make glucose.
Q3) During photosynthesis, energized electrons flow
A) from Photosystem I to Photosystem II.
B) from the reaction center to the antenna complex.
C) from Photosystem II to Photosystem I.
D) from the stroma to the intermembrane space.
Q4) You have been shrunk to molecular size and find yourself in a chamber in a chloroplast where protons are being pumped into another chamber. You are in the
Q5) The green pigment most commonly associated with photosynthesis is _______.
Page 10
Q6) NAD becomes NADH when it gains two high-energy _____ and one proton.
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Chapter 9: Cell Division
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Q1) New nuclei form during the anaphase portion of cell division.
A)True
B)False
Q2) When examining the rapidly dividing cells of the onion root tip, you see a cell whose chromosomes are visible and are arranged in approximately the same size and shape as the nucleus. What stage of mitosis is this cell in?
A) metaphase
B) prophase
C) anaphase
D) telophase
Q3) Which of the following statements about cell division is correct?
A) It is the process by which organisms grow and maintain their tissues.
B) It is no longer necessary once an organism reaches maturity.
C) It occurs in two sequential stages in all cells: mitosis and meiosis.
D) It is the process by which fertilization occurs.
Q4) All cells in a human body undergo the process of meiosis.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The four cells that result from meiosis are _________ rather than diploid.
Q6) Chromosomes become visible during the _______ stage of mitosis.
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Chapter 10: Patterns of Inheritance
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Q1) Cystic fibrosis is caused by a recessive gene. If C = normal and c = cystic fibrosis, how can a child with cystic fibrosis have two parents that do not have cystic fibrosis?
A) The child has a genotype of CC.
B) The parents have genotypes of CC and Cc.
C) The parents have genotypes of Cc and Cc.
D) The child has a genotype of Cc.
Q2) One of the first medical tests a newborn receives determines if the child has phenylketonuria (PKU). PKU is the result of a mutation in a single gene that causes mental retardation and a host of other phenotypes (light hair and skin color, eczema, and a "mousy" smell). By detecting PKU early, doctor are able to reduce the effect of this condition with a modified diet. PKU is an example of
A) epistasis.
B) a polygenic trait.
C) pleiotrophy.
D) codominance.
Q3) The first generation of phenotypes resulting from a genetic cross between two members of the parental generation would be seen in the ____ generation.
Q4) In meiosis, two copies of a gene separate and end up in different __________.
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Chapter 11: Chromosomes and Human Genetics
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Q1) Which of the following genetic changes would not be heritable?
A) a mutation in a skin cell
B) the loss of a chromosome in a sperm cell
C) the addition of a chromosome in an egg cell
D) a mutation in a gene in a gamete
Q2) Each chromosome is made up of several molecules of DNA.
A)True
B)False
Q3) For a genetic disorder caused by a dominant allele, individuals with which of the following genotypes would be affected?
A) AA and aa
B) aa and Aa
C) AA and Aa
D) AA, Aa, and aa
Q4) What effect does gene linkage have on the overall variety of individuals produced?
A) It increases the probable variation between individuals.
B) It does not affect the probable variation between individuals.
C) It decreases the probable variation between individuals.
D) It causes excessive crossing-over within the genome.
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Chapter 12: DNA
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Sample Questions
Q1) Children may be more susceptible to mutagens because
A) of the higher rates of cell division occurring in their bodies.
B) their organs, including the liver, are not fully mature and cannot efficiently remove toxins from the body.
C) a child's diet is normally higher in fat and many mutagens are soluble in fat.
D) all of the above
Q2) During DNA replication the enzyme ___________ _____________ builds a new strand of DNA while using the old strand of DNA as a template
Q3) Griffith's experiments proved that DNA was the genetic material.
A)True
B)False
Q4) DNA is often damaged or may be replicated incorrectly. Which of the following is not true?
A) Humans do not have repair proteins.
B) Heat energy can damage DNA.
C) DNA can be repaired by proteins.
D) The vast majority of DNA damage is fixed.
Q5) DNA consists of two twisted strands of _______.
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Chapter 13: From Gene to Protein
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Q1) Bacteria and humans use the same DNA components, and both kinds of cells also perform transcription and translation. Which of the following choices is a potentially significant outcome of this shared mechanism?
A) Bacteria are able to transcribe and translate human DNA, and thus they potentially could produce human proteins.
B) Bacteria are able to transcribe and translate human DNA, thus they could evolve into humans.
C) Bacterial and human proteins are identical in amino acid sequence since the mechanism for producing them is the same.
D) Bacterial and human DNA are identical in sequence since the method for producing it is the same.
Q2) Which of the following is true of transcription?
A) It destroys the DNA template.
B) The DNA molecule must unwind.
C) Base pairing is unimportant.
D) The end result is a protein.
Q3) _______ is different than DNA replication in that it involves the copying of just a small portion of a chromosome rather than the entire chromosome.
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Chapter 14: Control of Gene Expression
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Q1) In E. coli when tryptophan is present in the environment,
A) the tryptophan operator will break down tryptophan.
B) the tryptophan-repressor protein will be unable to bind to the tryptophan operator.
C) tryptophan will bind to a repressor protein.
D) the tryptophan-repressor protein will be unable to bind to tryptophan.
Q2) In interphase, each chromosome in a cell consists of
A) four DNA molecules.
B) a paired DNA/RNA molecule.
C) one DNA molecule.
D) an RNA/enzyme complex.
Q3) _______ genes are master switches that control the expression of other genes.
Q4) In eukaryotes, some genes with related functions are found on different chromosomes.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The amount of DNA in a prokaryotic cell is _______ than the amount of DNA in a eukaryotic cell.
Q6) Why is regulating transcription the main way the cells control gene expression?
Q7) DNA is tightly packed around protein spools known as ______________.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: DNA Technology
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Q1) The polymerase chain reaction (PCR) uses a _______ that can pair to the target DNA to give DNA polymerase a starting point.
Q2) The most efficient method of determining the base sequence of a piece of DNA is to A) insert the ligase gene.
B) expose it to radioactivity.
C) use an automated sequencing machine.
D) hand-count the base pairs.
Q3) The use of DNA analysis to identify individuals is known as A) PCR testing.
B) DNA fingerprinting.
C) genetic modification.
D) cloning.
Q4) DNA identification of individuals is possible because A) the same restriction enzyme cuts different individuals' DNA in different places. B) a different restriction enzyme is needed to cut each person's DNA.
C) a different species of bacteria is needed for the DNA library of each person.
D) each person's DNA uses a different set of bases.
Q5) DNA _______ is the base pairing of DNA from two different sources.
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Chapter 16: How Evolution Works
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Q1) Humans bred cows specialized for milk production by allowing female cows that produce large quantities of milk to mate only with male cows with mothers that also produced large quantities of milk, an example of _____________ selection.
Q2) Continental drift predicts that the fossils of species that evolved after Pangaea split apart should be found on only one or a few present-day continents.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Heritable differences among individuals are generated by _______.
Q4) Humans simulate the process of natural selection when they use _______ to develop new varieties of crop plants that better meet the needs of farmers.
A) artificial selection
B) cytochrome c
C) habitat changes
D) continental drift
Q5) Evolution can cause so many changes among individuals of two populations of the same species that eventually the members of the two populations are no longer able to _______ with each other, thus forming a new species.
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Chapter 17: Evolution of Populations
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Q1) The genetic variation in a population is increased by A) recombination.
B) allele fixation.
C) natural selection.
D) genetic drift.
Q2) A population has a total of two alleles, G and g, for a given gene. Which one of the following sets of genotype frequencies is correctly expressed for that population?
A) GG = .25 Gg = .75 gg = .35
B) GG = .70 Gg = .25 gg = .30
C) GG = .75 Gg = .15 gg = .10
D) GG = .45 Gg = .15 gg = .75
Q3) Antibiotic resistance in bacteria could be combated by all of the following methods, except
A) investing money in the design of new drugs.
B) prescribing antibiotics only for bacterial diseases.
C) improving hospital sanitation.
D) prescribing antibiotics for viral diseases.
Q4) Independent assortment of chromosomes, crossing-over, and fertilization are collectively known as _____________.
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Chapter 18: Adaptation and Speciation
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Q1) Which of the following is a postzygotic isolating mechanism?
A) Gametes cannot join.
B) Zygote fails to develop.
C) Breeding seasons are different.
D) Courtship behaviors are different.
Q2) Sympatric speciation
A) occurs only in plants.
B) is impossible, because the populations of a species must be isolated from one another for speciation to occur.
C) is always a result of polyploidy.
D) occurs when a new species emerges from a population in the absence of a geographical barrier.
Q3) Some species of orchids attract insects to assist them in reproduction by producing flowers that look like female bees. The flowers fool male bees into attempting to mate with them. This example shows adaptive evolution by
A) the orchids.
B) the bees.
C) all flowering plants.
D) ancestral bees.
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Chapter 19: The Evolutionary History of Life
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Q1) One way mammal limbs differ from reptile limbs is that
A) reptiles walk in a more upright posture than mammals do.
B) mammal limbs are more vertically oriented.
C) all mammals walk on two legs.
D) reptiles have totally different limb bones than mammals have.
Q2) The same species of dinosaurs that roamed Jurassic Earth would reevolve if humans went extinct.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Following each of Earth's five mass extinction the diversity of life on Earth has _______ [increased or decreased?] over time.
Q4) The first single-celled organisms arose 3.5 _______ years ago.
Q5) Fossils discovered in Antarctica indicate that the
A) life forms living there today have remained unchanged for millions of years.
B) life forms that live there today are different from those that lived there in the past.
C) environment there has always been too harsh to support life.
D) ice can support a wide variety of life forms.
Q6) Descendants of _______ were among the first organisms to colonize land.
Q7) Why isn't the fossil record complete?
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Maintaining the Internal Environment
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Q1) Negative feedback
A) stops a process, before it reaches its set point.
B) determines what the set point of a process should be.
C) slows down or shuts off a process when a set point is reached.
D) prevents positive feedback.
Q2) As the filtrate moves through a nephron
A) water is added to make a dilute urine.
B) solutes are combined with urea.
C) water and solutes are reabsorbed.
D) we get thirsty due to the salts that are taken back into the blood.
Q3) An animal that does not maintain a relatively constant core temperature is a(n)
Q4) During the day, camels allow their body temperature to rise to up to 40.5°C. At night, their temperature drops back to normal as a result of __________ when the air temperature drops below the camel's body temperature.
Q5) Frostbitten tissue, because water within cells freezes, expands, and ruptures plasma membranes.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 21: Animal Nutrition and Digestion
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Q1) The enzyme that works well in the acidic environment of the stomach is
A) trypsin.
B) pepsin.
C) amylase.
D) rennin.
Q2) The _______ is the organ that contracts to mix food particles with acid and enzymes, and also holds food until it can pass farther along for continued digestion.
Q3) Because they are not soluble in water, fats are digested in a different way than proteins and carbohydrates.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Food must be broken down chemically, before nutrients in it can be absorbed.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which of the following statements about fat digestion is false?
A) Fat molecules are too large to cross the gut wall.
B) Fats dissolve poorly in the watery mass of food moving through the gut.
C) Fats are difficult to absorb.
D) Fats cannot be broken down into smaller molecules.
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Chapter 22: Gas Exchange
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Q1) The breaking open of alveoli in people with emphysema decreases their rate of gas exchange because
A) the distance between the air they breath in and the blood is decreased.
B) there is less pressure in the lungs to force the oxygen to dissolve in the blood.
C) the concentration of oxygen in the lungs becomes much greater than that in the blood.
D) their lungs have less surface area available for diffusion.
Q2) Bubbles form in a glass of water, because it contains dissolved _____.
Q3) Why do many large animals rely on internal transport systems (like the circulatory system) to distribute oxygen?
A) Diffusion does not occur in organisms with more than about 300 cells.
B) Large organisms do not need as much oxygen as small organisms so they utilize inefficient transport systems like the circulatory system rather than diffusion.
C) The internal transport system is needed to quickly replace oxygen lost due to the high surface area of the skin.
D) Diffusion is very slow over all but the shortest distances, so oxygen must be delivered to cells to speed up the process.
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Chapter 23: The Circulatory System
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Q1) The human circulatory system
A) uses gravity to move blood to tissues.
B) connects only to the most vital organs in the body.
C) depends on veins to pump the blood through our bodies.
D) is considered a closed system.
Q2) Which of the following is true of blood?
A) The liquid portion of blood contains ions, nutrients, and hormones.
B) All of the cells found in blood are involved in fighting off infections.
C) Red blood cells have two nuclei.
D) Only the cellular portion of the blood is important in carrying gases like oxygen and carbon dioxide
Q3) Which of the following blood pressures would indicate a healthy heart?
A) 102/23 mm Hg
B) 40/120 mm Hg
C) 113/69 mm Hg
D) 248/130 mm Hg
Q4) Oxygen is transported to the cells of an insect through its open circulatory system.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 24: Animal Hormones
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Q1) The target cells of growth hormone are located
A) in bones.
B) in the pituitary gland.
C) in the gonads.
D) in the hypothalamus.
Q2) The high levels of progesterone seen after ovulation in the human female are produced by a specific region of the ovary known as the __________ ___________, which disappears if pregnancy doesn't occur.
Q3) After ovulation,
A) gonadotropin levels rise quickly.
B) estrogen levels rise quickly.
C) progesterone becomes the dominant hormone.
D) LH levels decrease slowly.
Q4) Once a hormone enters the bloodstream,
A) it is usually broken down within minutes.
B) it remains active for months.
C) it is broken down after it has performed its function on target cells.
D) it produces enzymes that affect target cells.
Q5) Parathyroid hormone is released into the blood when the amount of calcium in the blood is too ________ [high or low?].
Page 26
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Chapter 25: The Nervous System
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Q1) The brain has important interactions with the endocrine system. Which part of the brain directly stimulates the release of hormones from the pituitary gland?
A) hypothalamus
B) cerebrum
C) cerebellum
D) central cortex
Q2) Axons transmit self-_______ electrical signals.
Q3) When you smell a flower, what part of the brain processes the odors you sense?
A) parietal
B) temporal
C) occipital
D) frontal
Q4) Which area of our brain acts as a "traffic manager"?
A) the thalamus
B) the cerebral cortex
C) the pons
D) the cerebellum
Q5) The __________ nervous system ferries signals to and from the central nervous system.
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Chapter 26: Sensing the Environment
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Q1) In our ears, sound is converted into nerve impulses by the A) eustachian tubes.
B) auditory canal.
C) eardrum.
D) organ of Corti.
Q2) Compound eyes of insects use mechanoreceptors rather than photoreceptors.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Why are sensory organs commonly located on the head of an organism?
Q4) We can distinguish pitch because different regions of the basilar membrane vibrate in response to different sound __________.
Q5) Our overall perception of food depends on A) chemoreceptors.
B) photoreceptors.
C) mechanoreceptors.
D) all of the above
Q6) In addition to the receptors in the mouth, chemical receptors in the _______ passages provide sensory information that contributes to a human's sense of taste.
Q7) The position of our body is reported by mechanoreceptors called
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Chapter 27: Skeletons, Muscles, and Movement
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Q1) Which of the following would play a role in movement as well as protection?
A) femur
B) skull
C) spinal column
D) radius
Q2) Which of the following is part of the appendicular skeleton?
A) the spinal column
B) the arm
C) the skull
D) the rib cage
Q3) The three types of muscle in our bodies are smooth muscle, skeletal muscle, and _______ muscle.
Q4) The polysaccharide that forms the basis of support tissues in insects and lobsters is A) collagen.
B) chitin.
C) bone.
D) cartilage.
Q5) In the skeleton of a house cat, compact bone forms the hard white outer region, and ______ bone lies inside the compact bone.
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Chapter 28: Defenses against Disease
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Q1) The human immune system contains trillions of specialized cells of several kinds, all of which help destroy invaders. What are these cells called?
A) red blood cells
B) white blood cells
C) lymphatic cells
D) blood plasma
Q2) Neutrophils usually get to a wound site __________ [before or after?] macrophages begin phagocytizing bacteria.
Q3) Why is it important that white blood cells are able to travel outside the human circulatory system?
A) In order to form a complement, white blood cells must leave the circulatory vessels.
B) White blood cells are the antibodies that target parasites.
C) Pathogens may be found in areas of the body other than within circulatory vessels.
D) White blood cells must leave the circulatory system in order to return red blood cells to the circulatory vessels.
Q4) A disease-causing agent is called a ________.
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Chapter 29: Reproduction and Development
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Q1) Which of the following behaviors is not specialized to help an animal find a mate?
A) bees carrying pollen between flowers
B) the flashing lights of fireflies
C) fragrant chemicals released by female moths
D) the chirping sound of a male cricket
Q2) During development, the process by which unspecialized cells acquire specific identities is called
A) gametogenesis.
B) differentiation.
C) fertilization.
D) apoptosis.
Q3) In human females, primary oocytes don't develop into mature eggs
A) unless they are fertilized.
B) until they reach the uterus.
C) until the first trimester.
D) until puberty.
Q4) Spermatogenesis results in the production of _____ sperm whereas oogenesis produces just one egg.
Q5) In oogenesis, the final steps of meiosis do not occur until _______ takes place.
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Chapter 30: Animal Behavior
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Questions
Q1) Female frogs deposit their eggs in water and then often leave the area, saving energy by not having to raise their young. Based on this information, should you expect the species-specific frog calls to be a learned or a fixed behavior?
A) They are learned, because the young frogs can learn calls from each other.
B) They are learned, because all frog calls must be learned from adults of the species.
C) They are fixed, because all vocalizations are behaviors that animals are born with.
D) They are fixed, because the young frogs are not raised by adults that teach the young their specific call.
Q2) Which of the following choices is not a method of communication?
A) human language
B) learning
C) visual signals
D) scent marking
Q3) A worker ant that defends the colony and gives up the ability to reproduce is exhibiting an orientation behavior.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 31: Plant Structure, Nutrition, and Transport
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Q1) Like other organisms, plants are composed of proteins, lipids, carbohydrates, and nucleic acids. Based on this, which of the following would be a macronutrient?
A) zinc
B) copper
C) iron
D) carbon
Q2) The outer waxy covering on plants is called
A) dermal tissue.
B) the trichome layer.
C) the guard cell layer.
D) the cuticle.
Q3) Pine cones are produced by plants that are classified as A) bryophytes.
B) angiosperms
C) gymnosperms.
D) seedless vascular plants.
Q4) Most above-ground plant growth occurs with the repeated addition of ______ units.
Q5) The simplest plants, lacking even vascular tissues, are the _____ .
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Chapter 32: Plant Growth and Reproduction
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Q1) Which of the following would be the least likely pollinator?
A) butterfly
B) bat
C) rattlesnake
D) human
Q2) What is the purpose for the endosperm found within a seed?
A) Endosperm is the tissue specialized to form roots.
B) It creates a waterproof covering that permits the seed to become dormant.
C) It is a water-storage tissue.
D) It is used as a food source for the developing embryo.
Q3) Which of the following would be haploid?
A) pollen
B) guard cells
C) root hairs
D) all of the above
Q4) Pollen grains develop from
A) haploid male spores.
B) the ovum.
C) haploid sperm.
D) embryo sacs.
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Chapter 33: The Biosphere
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Q1) How can the latitudinal variation of Earth's average temperatures be explain?
A) The curvature of Earth places the equator closest to the sun and the polar latitudes farthest from the sun.
B) The ocean moderates Earth's climate; the greatest extent of ocean is within the tropical latitudes.
C) Moist air like that found in the tropics holds more heat than the dry air of the temperate and polar latitudes.
D) Sunlight strikes the equatorial latitudes nearly perpendicularly but strikes obliquely at the temperate and polar latitudes.
Q2) Despite the absence of photosynthesis, the continuous settling of detritus makes the _______ zone of the coastal ocean a stable habitat.
Q3) In the northern ocean basins, ocean currents generally flow _______ between continents.
A) from the equator to the South Pole
B) along the lines of longitude
C) counterclockwise
D) clockwise
Q4) Plants are able to use nitrogen in only two forms, nitrate and _______.
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Page 35
Chapter 34: Growth of Populations
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Q1) Which of the following populations would be most likely to experience an S-shaped growth pattern?
A) all of the animals in the San Diego Zoo
B) Gause's paramecia without a constant food supply
C) a founding colony of rats on a small island with abundant resources
D) a beehive infected mid-summer with a deadly bacterial disease
Q2) Which of the following has the highest population density?
A) 1 grasshopper living in an area of 10 square meters.
B) 100 rabbits living in an area of 10,000 square meters
C) 200 sparrows living in an area of 20,000 square meters
D) 1,500 oysters living in an area of 1,500 square meters
Q3) A _______-shaped curve describes population growth that occurs when a population grows exponentially.
Q4) A population will remain at a constant size when emigration equals immigration and
A) food is not a limiting factor.
B) births equal deaths.
C) predators leave the area.
D) available space remains the same.
Q5) Weather is a density-_______ factor that can affect the size of a population.
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Chapter 35: Interactions among Organisms
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Q1) Flies belonging to the family Phoridae inject their eggs into fire ants. A larva that hatches from the egg devours the ant from the inside. The larva would be called a A) parasite.
B) gut mutualist.
C) predator.
D) pathogen.
Q2) Without pollinator mutualism, agricultural productivity could fall significantly. A)True
B)False
Q3) Certain species of squirrels and acorn woodpeckers both eat acorns. In forests without squirrels, the density of acorn woodpeckers averages 100 per square kilometer, whereas in forests with squirrels the density of acorn woodpeckers is roughly halved. This reduced density most probably results from A) interference competition.
B) herbivory.
C) character displacement.
D) exploitative competition.
Q4) _______ is an interaction between two species that benefits both species.
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Chapter 36: Communities of Organisms
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Q1) Communities always recover quickly from disturbances caused by humans.
A)True
B)False
Q2) During _________ newly created habitat is inhabited.
A) primary succession
B) climax community formation
C) disturbance colonization
D) keystone recovery
Q3) A farmer and his family raise 100 acres of corn, 12 chickens, and two cows. What is the keystone species?
A) corn
B) chickens
C) cows
D) people
Q4) In a typical prairie food web, energy moves from grass to grasshopper to field mouse to fox. Which organism is the secondary consumer?
A) the grass
B) the grasshopper
C) the mouse
D) the fox
Page 38
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Chapter 37: Ecosystems
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Q1) Approximately 100 percent of the energy captured from the sun is passed from trophic level to trophic level.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following groups of organisms would not be considered to be consumers?
A) herbivores
B) predators
C) photosynthesizers
D) decomposers
Q3) The rate of new biomass production by consumers is called _________ production.
Q4) Which of the following would utilize the highest percentage of net primary productivity?
A) producers
B) decomposers
C) herbivores
D) predators
Q5) Rainfall with a low pH is called _______.
Q6) Each level of an energy pyramid corresponds to a step in a food chain and is called a _______ level.
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Chapter 38: Global Change
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Q1) Why is the amount of nitrogen that cycles among organisms much smaller than the amount in the atmosphere?
A) Nitrogen is not needed by most of Earth's organisms.
B) Nitrogen gas in the atmosphere cannot be used directly by most organisms.
C) Human nitrogen fixation activities cause an increase in the amount of nitrogen gas in the atmosphere.
D) Nitrogen has a sedimentary nutrient cycle.
Q2) The conversion of N to NH is called _______ _______.
Q3) The physical and biotic changes humans make to the land surface of Earth are collectively known as land _______.
Q4) Humans are particularly adept at water transformation; current estimates are that human activities have affected nearly _______ percent of the world's rivers
A) 10
B) 40
C) 70
D) 100
Q5) The best hope for slowing the recent rapid ecological changes is to decrease the impact of _______ on Earth to a sustainable level.
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Chapter 39: Biodiversity and People
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Q1) The biggest threat to biodiversity is
A) habitat loss and deterioration.
B) ecosystem growth.
C) competition between nonhuman organisms.
D) predators.
Q2) Nonhuman species are
A) relatively expendable since other species with larger populations can take the place of any that becomes extinct.
B) often essential to the health of the ecosystems that support human life.
C) rapidly expanding their natural ranges and may soon threaten human activities like agriculture.
D) competitors with humans for the resources that make life possible.
Q3) Cataclysmic events have the potential to render vast regions of the earth uninhabitable and exterminate their biota; the most recent event occurred 65 million years ago when a(n) _______struck the Earth.
Q4) An ecosystem is made up of _______ and the organisms that live in them.
Q5) After a mass extinction, surviving species often _______ into new groups that rapidly recolonize the planet.
Q6) Nonnative species are also called _________ species.
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Chapter 40: Cancer: Cell Division Out of Control
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Q1) People who quit smoking live longer than those who don't quit smoking.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A protein is identified that starts a signal cascade leading to the activation of a gene that promotes cell division. This protein is coded for by a A) tumor supressor gene.
B) oncogene.
C) proto-oncogene.
D) carcinogen.
Q3) The fact that the human genome contains proto-oncogenes means that
A) there is nothing we can do to reduce our chance of developing cancer.
B) our genomes are constantly producing cancerous cells.
C) the disruption of certain cellular controls can lead to cancer.
D) we will all develop cancer during our lifetimes.
Q4) Tumor suppressor proteins
A) produce growth factor signal cascades.
B) remove growth factors from DNA.
C) inactivate components of growth factor signal cascades.
D) are produced by growth factors.
Q5) The cancer retinoblastoma occurs as a result of the absence of the _____ gene.
Page 42
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Chapter 41: Harnessing the Human Genome
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Q1) The pea aphid is a subject of investigation by comparative geneticists because
A) it has large nerve cells that can be used as a model for memory loss.
B) it can be a model for studying multiple sclerosis.
C) it destroys large areas of rain forests.
D) it is pesticide-resistant and a serious pest of corn.
Q2) The more complex an organism is, the more genes that organism must have.
A)True
B)False
Q3) _____ _____ is a new field in biology where scientists compare the genomes of different organisms.
Q4) Single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs) aid in the identification of the genes that cause a genetic disorder.
A)True B)False
Q5) DNA chips can be used to identify the single nucleotide polymorphisms carried by an individual
A)True B)False
Q6) Only 2 percent of the human genome contains DNA sequences that actually encode
Page 43
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Chapter 42: Humans and Evolution
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Q1) In the classification of Homo sapiens, which of the following is incorrect?
A) chordate phylum
B) mammal class
C) primate genus
D) hominid family
Q2) Which of the following human activities could affect gene flow and genetic drift of other species?
A) a new housing development
B) intensive harvesting of marine life
C) building a new ski resort
D) all of the above
Q3) What potential effect might the current amount of gene flow among human populations have on these populations?
A) It could cause different populations to become increasingly more different until they are reproductively isolated.
B) It could significantly reduce the amount of variation between different human populations.
C) None, because isolated groups of humans are actually separate species.
D) Gene flow does not occur between human populations.
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Chapter 43: Smoking--Beyond Lung Cancer
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Q1) Smoking is implicated in gingivitis, also known as chronic gum disease.
A)True
B)False
Q2) When fluid collects in alveoli as a result of smoking, gas exchange is slower because
A) gases are unable to dissolve in fluids.
B) the fluid blocks the flow of blood through the capillaries in the lungs.
C) the fluid increases the amount of surface area available for diffusion.
D) gases diffuse more slowly over the longer distance created by the fluid.
Q3) Lung infections are more common in smokers because their lungs contain large amounts mucus in which bacteria can reside.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Blood containing nicotine and other components of tobacco smoke would travel from your lungs and move first into the
A) left atrium.
B) left ventricle.
C) right atrium.
D) right ventricle.
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Chapter 44: Feeding a Hungry Planet
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Q1) A farm can be thought of as an ecosystem.
A)True
B)False
Q2) On a per person basis, world production of rice, wheat, and corn has declined since the 1980s.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The advantage of precision farming in contrast to conventional farming is the A) strict avoidance of synthetic chemicals.
B) use of technology to identify the appropriate areas to receive pesticide, fertilizer, or irrigation water.
C) use of synthetic fertilizers rather than natural fertilizers.
D) use of GPS systems to plant perfectly straight rows that allow harvesting equipment to recover a larger percentage of the crop.
Q4) Humans have historically obtained food from which three main food systems?
A) cropland, rain forests, and rangelands
B) rain forest, grasslands, and forests
C) oceanic fisheries, coastal intertidal habitats, and grasslands
D) rangelands, croplands, and oceanic fisheries
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Chapter 45: Building a Sustainable Society
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Q1) One means of increasing the amount of calories available for human consumption would be to
A) use the world's grain crops to raise more herbivorous livestock.
B) encourage people to simplify their diets by selecting foods from the bottom of the food web.
C) use environmentally safe pesticides to eliminate the insects that compete for our food.
D) prohibit the commercial marketing of secondary and tertiary consumers.
Q2) In which of the following continents is the availability of fresh water most limited?
A) Australia
B) Africa
C) Europe
D) North America
Q3) To build a sustainable society the capabilities of humans to affect both density-dependent and density-independent factors must be taken into consideration.
A)True
B)False
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