Biology for Health Sciences Practice
Exam
Course Introduction
Biology for Health Sciences introduces foundational concepts in biology with an emphasis on their applications in human health and medicine. This course covers cell structure and function, genetics, metabolism, human anatomy and physiology, and the basics of microbiology, with a focus on how these biological principles underpin physiological processes and disease mechanisms in humans. Students will gain an understanding of how living systems operate at molecular, cellular, and organismal levels, and explore how biological knowledge informs healthcare practices and medical research. Designed for students pursuing careers in health-related fields, the course provides essential scientific background to support further study and professional development in the health sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition by Kevin T. Patton
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Chapter 1: Organization of the Body
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ureters
A)Respiratory
B)Digestive
C)Urinary
D)Reproductive
E)Endocrine
F)Cardiovascular
G)Integumentary
H)Muscular
I)Skeletal
J)Nervous
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following is not one of the characteristics of life?
A)Digestion
B)Balance
C)Conductivity
D)Circulation
E)Reproduction
Answer: B
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Homeostasis
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Sample Questions
Q1) The term that literally means self-immunity is:
A)autoimmunity.
B)homoimmunity.
C)passive immunity.
D)active immunity.
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following is a protein substance with no DNA or RNA and is thought to be the cause of mad cow disease?
A)Virus
B)Bacteria
C)Prion
D)Protozoan
Answer: C
Q3) The normal reading or range of normal is called the:
A)sensor point.
B)set point.
C)effector point.
D)integrator point.
Answer: B
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Chemistry of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) A solution that contains a greater concentration of hydroxide ions (OH-) than hydrogen ions (H ) is a(n) _____ solution.
A)acidic
B)alkaline (basic)
C)neutral
D)Not enough information is given to determine the character of the solution.
Answer: B
Q2) The octet rule refers to the:
A)stability of the nucleus when the protons are in a multiple of eight.
B)stability of the atom when there are eight electrons in the outermost energy level.
C)stable configuration of the nucleus when there are eight more neutrons than protons.
D)principle that one atom can combine with a maximum of eight other atoms.
Answer: B
Q3) Dalton named the atom after the Greek word for invisible.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 4: Biomolecules
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Sample Questions
Q1) Proteins are composed of ____ commonly occurring amino acids.
A)10
B)18
C)21
D)22
Q2) Chaperones are present in every body cell. Discuss the importance of these groups of proteins.
Q3) Saturated fats are more likely than unsaturated fats to be liquid at room temperature.
A)True
B)False
Q4) RNA and DNA have the same pyrimidine bases but different purine bases.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The roles played by proteins can be divided into which categories?
A)Structural and functional
B)Chemical and functional
C)Structural and chemical
D)Dehydration synthesis and hydrolysis
Q6) Name and describe the structural levels of protein.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Cell Structure
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cell fibers that are slightly thicker than microfilaments
A)Microtubules
B)Intermediate filaments
C)Microfilaments
D)Centrosomes
E)Cilia
F)Flagella
G)Microvilli
H)Desmosomes
I)Tight junctions
J)Gap junctions
K)Primary cilium
L)Centrioles
Q2) The number of mitochondria in a cell is basically related to its degree of cell activity.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A major part of ribosomes is deoxyribonucleic acid.
A)True
B)False
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Cell Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The active transport process involving pumps requires both a carrier system and cellular energy.
A)True
B)False
Q2) An inorganic substance, such as an ion, is called a coenzyme when it is part of an enzyme.
A)True B)False
Q3) Oxygen is used in the citric acid cycle in cell respiration.
A)True B)False
Q4) The location at which the enzyme molecule binds to the substance it acts on is called the:
A)substrate.
B)coenzyme.
C)active site.
D)cofactor.
Q5) The sodium-potassium pump is an example of a passive transport process. A)True B)False
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Chapter 7: Cell Growth and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not true of RNA?
A)It is a single strand.
B)It contains uracil rather than thymine.
C)The obligatory base pairs are adenine and uracil, and guanine and cytosine.
D)It contains deoxyribose sugar.
Q2) Normal meiosis results in daughter cells that are genetically identical to the parent cell.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Interphase does not include which of the following?
A)M phase
B)G1 phase
C)G2 phase
D)S phase
Q4) If the original DNA code was ACG, the mRNA that would be formed would be:
A)UCG.
B)AGC.
C)UGC.
D)Not enough information is given to answer the question.
Q5) Explain the process of mitosis. Explain what occurs in each step.
9
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Chapter 8: Introduction to Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Connective tissue membranes differ from cutaneous and serous membranes in that they:
A)contain fewer layers of cells.
B)do not contain epithelial components.
C)are not smooth and slick.
D)do not secrete fluids.
Q2) Which of the following is not a primary germ layer in the embryo?
A)Hypoderm
B)Ectoderm
C)Mesoderm
D)Endoderm
Q3) Which tissue is most likely to form a keloid scar as it heals?
A)Muscle
B)Nervous
C)Epithelial
D)Connective
Q4) In some tissues the cells are held together by desmosomes, and in other tissues they are held together by nonliving matrix.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Tissue Types
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Sample Questions
Q1) Neurons and neuroglia
A)Epithelial
B)Connective
C)Muscle
D)Nerve
Q2) Oil-producing glands that self-destruct in order to function are referred to as holocrine glands.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Connective tissue forms from stem cell tissue called:
A)mesenchyme.
B)blastocyst.
C)endoderm.
D)ectoderm.
Q4) Salivary glands are an example of ductless exocrine glands.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe the structure of bone and cartilage tissue. Explain how the difference in structure affects the healing ability of both types of tissue.
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Chapter 10: Skin
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Sample Questions
Q1) The surface film found on the skin has a variety of functions, including:
A)lubrication.
B)buffering of caustic irritants.
C)antibacterial and antifungal activity.
D)all of the above.
Q2) The papillary layer of the dermis lies just below the dermal-epidermal junction.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A person who is shivering would normally have dilated surface blood vessels in the skin.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Sebum:
A)lubricates hair and skin.
B)is produced by sweat glands.
C)consists of dead cells from hair follicles.
D)is responsible for body odor.
Q5) Integumentary system and skin are interchangeable terms.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Skeletal Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bone tissue is also called osseous tissue.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The osteon, or haversian, system:
A)delivers nutrients to and removes waste products from bone cells.
B)produces yellow marrow.
C)resists stress.
D)erodes bone.
Q3) Due to continuous stress on the bone, athletes and dancers tend to have less dense bones than do more sedentary people.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Generally broad and thin with a flattened or curved surface; ribs are an example
A)Irregular bones
B)Flat bones
C)Sesamoid bones
D)Short bones
E)Long bones
Q5) Compare and contrast osteoblasts, osteoclasts, and osteocytes.
Q6) Explain all the ways parathyroid hormone helps to increase blood calcium levels.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Axial Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) The two maxillae together serve as the keystone in the architecture of the face.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The occipital bone forms how many joints with other bones?
A)One
B)Two
C)Three
D)Four
Q3) Bones of the appendicular skeleton form the brain case and vertebral column.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The dens are found on the second cervical vertebra, or axis.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which is not a part of the appendicular skeleton?
A)Coxal bones
B)Parietal bones
C)Radius
D)Clavicle
Q6) Describe the bones of the skull.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Appendicular Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) Semilunar notch
A)Femur
B)Fibula
C)Humerus
D)Coxal
E)Radius
F)Scapula
G)Tibia
H)Ulna
Q2) There are two arches of the foot-one lengthwise and one crosswise.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is the clinical significance of palpable bony landmarks?
Q4) During childbirth, a baby passes through an imaginary plane called the:
A)pelvic outlet.
B)symphysis pubis.
C)pelvic brim.
D)ilium.
Q5) What are the differences between the male and female skeleton that have clinical importance? Explain your answer.
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Chapter 14: Articulations
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Sample Questions
Q1) The glenoidal labrum is the part of the hip joint that reinforces the acetabulum.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Give an example of a ball-and-socket joint.
Q3) A projection of one bone that articulates with a ring in another bone describes a condyloid joint.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Compared with the knee joint, the hip joint is relatively unprotected by surrounding muscles.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Rotator cuff surgery is performed quite commonly on professional baseball players, especially pitchers. Evidently, the throwing motion places enormous stress on the: A)elbow.
B)wrist.
C)shoulder. D)hip.
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Chapter 15: Axial Muscles
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following muscle(s) function(s) to protect the abdominal viscera?
A)External oblique
B)Internal oblique
C)Transversus abdominis
D)All of the above
Q2) Delicate connective tissue that covers muscle cells
A)Endomysium
B)Tendon
C)Epimysium
D)Aponeurosis
E)Fascia
F)Perimysium
G)Tendon sheath
H)Fascicles
Q3) A group of skeletal muscle fibers is called a fascicle.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Explain how muscles and the movement of the body help maintain stability or homeostasis.
Q5) Differentiate among the endomysium, perimysium, and epimysium.
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Appendicular Muscles
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Sample Questions
Q1) The deltoid is an example of a multifunction muscle.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The posterior arm muscle that extends the forearm is the:
A)biceps brachii.
B)triceps brachii.
C)supinator.
D)brachialis.
Q3) The flexor muscles that move the fingers are mostly located on the:
A)anterior lateral surface of the forearm.
B)anterior medial surface of the forearm.
C)posterior surface of the forearm.
D)posterior surface of the hand.
Q4) Which of the following muscles does not move the upper arm?
A)Pectoralis major
B)Latissimus dorsi
C)Deltoid
D)Trapezius
Q5) What is tenosynovitis, and how is it caused?
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Chapter 17: Muscle Contraction
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Sample Questions
Q1) A compound that mimics the action of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction would cause muscles to become flaccid.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Thick myofilaments extend the length of the:
A)A-band.
B)Z-line.
C)I-band.
D)None of the above are correct.
Q3) Explain isometric muscle contractions and the two types of isotonic contractions.
Q4) Excitability and irritability are interchangeable terms in regard to muscle cells.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Physiological muscle fatigue may be caused by:
A)a relative lack of ATP.
B)high levels of lactate.
C)failure of the sodium-potassium pumps.
D)all of the above.
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Chapter 18: Nervous System Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cranial nerves are considered part of the CNS.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Whether a group of nerve fibers is called a nerve or a tract depends on its location.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Gray fibers have no association with Schwann cells.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A neuron that transmits a nerve impulse toward the central nervous system is called a(n):
A)motor neuron.
B)sensory neuron.
C)interneuron.
D)bipolar neuron.
Q5) The name for the astrocyte comes from its shape.
A)True
B)False
Q6) What is the difference between nuclei and ganglia?
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Nerve Signaling
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which membrane receptor acts to directly change ion permeability when stimulated?
A)Metabotropic receptor
B)G-protein-coupled receptors
C)Gated-channel receptor
D)Ionotropic receptor
Q2) Which is true of a neuron with a resting potential?
A)The cell membrane is permeable to Na<sup>+</sup> but impermeable to K<sup>+</sup> ions.
B)The outer surface of the plasma membrane has a negative charge.
C)The highest concentration of K<sup>+</sup> is extracellular.
D)The sodium pump has moved Na<sup>+</sup> to the outside of the plasma membrane.
Q3) When epinephrine and norepinephrine are released into the bloodstream, they are called hormones instead of neurotransmitters.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Explain the ways in which the activity of the neurotransmitter is stopped at the postsynaptic receptor.
Q5) Explain the process of an action potential moving down a neuron.
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Central Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) There are about 23 mL of cerebrospinal fluid in the nervous system.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Repetition of nerve impulses on the same neuron circuitry produces memory.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The deepest border of the subdural space is the arachnoid membrane.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Name and describe the three important inward extensions of the dura mater.
Q5) Name the three spaces between and around the meninges. What does each space contain?
Q6) Once a synapse is established in the brain, it remains for life.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Changes in the oxygen content of the cerebrospinal fluid cause a homeostatic response in the respiratory control center.
A)True
B)False
Q8) Describe the structure and major functions of the brainstem.
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Chapter 21: Peripheral Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) There are 62 spinal nerves.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which is the only plexus that contains fibers from the thoracic region of the spinal cord?
A)Cervical
B)Brachial
C)Lumbar
D)Sacral
Q3) The somatic motor pathway has two neurons between the CNS and the effector organs, just as the autonomic system does.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is not true of the knee jerk reflex?
A)It is a flexor reflex.
B)It is an ipsilateral reflex.
C)It is a spinal cord reflex.
D)It does not have to involve the brain.
Q5) Explain how the nerve plexuses make the nervous system more efficient.
Q6) List the names, numbers, and functional classifications of the cranial nerves.
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Chapter 22: Autonomic Nervous System
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Q1) How does a dually innervated autonomic effector differ from a singly innervated autonomic effector?
A)A dually innervated effector receives input from both sympathetic and parasympathetic pathways. A singly innervated autonomic effector receives input from only the sympathetic division.
B)A dually innervated effector receives input from both sympathetic and parasympathetic pathways. A singly innervated autonomic effector receives input from only the parasympathetic division.
C)A dually innervated effector utilizes both acetylcholine and norepinephrine as neurotransmitters. A singly innervated autonomic effector utilizes only acetylcholine.
D)A dually innervated effector utilizes both acetylcholine and norepinephrine as neurotransmitters. A singly innervated autonomic effector uses only norepinephrine.
Q2) Norepinephrine can stimulate nicotinic or muscarinic receptors.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Explain in general, what the function of the parasympathetic nervous system is.
Q4) Contrast somatic motor pathways with autonomic pathways.
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24
Chapter 23: General Senses
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Q1) Sensory impulses ending in what part of the central nervous system (CNS) may affect the so-called "vital sign" reflexes?
A)Thalamus
B)Cerebellum
C)Brainstem
D)Cerebral cortex
Q2) Because of its importance to survival, the brain has a high concentration of pain receptors.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is not true of a receptor potential?
A)It follows the all-or-none law.
B)It is a graded response.
C)It occurs when an adequate stimulus acts on a receptor.
D)It can stimulate an action potential in the axon of a sensory neuron.
Q4) The interpretation of the sensation of being tickled requires a complex interaction of many parts of the brain.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 24: Special Senses
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Q1) Lower section of the cochlea
A)Basilar membrane
B)Bony labyrinth
C)Cochlea
D)Cochlear duct
E)Endolymph
F)Membranous labyrinth
G)Organ of Corti
H)Perilymph
I)Scala tympani
J)Scala vestibule
K)Semicircular canals
L)Tectorial membrane
M)Vestibular membrane
N)Vestibule
Q2) Aqueous humor is formed by secretion of the ciliary body into the posterior chamber.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Explain why watery eyes occur when a person gets a common cold.
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Chapter 25: Endocrine Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Some endocrine glands are actually made of nervous tissue.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Parathyroid hormone reflexively increases secretion of parathyroid hormone in response to an increase in blood calcium levels.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Hormones are synergistic if they have opposite effects on the target cell.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Thromboxanes and leukotrienes can be called tissue hormones.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The immediate effect of a steroid hormone on a cell is the:
A)formation of cAMP.
B)increase of enzyme-controlled intracellular reactions.
C)transcription of RNA.
D)activation of adenyl cyclase.
Q6) Explain how a cell can upregulate or downregulate its response to the presence of a hormone.
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Chapter 26: Endocrine Glands
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Q1) Most of the pancreatic islets cells are alpha cells that produce insulin.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The target cells for ADH are found in the:
A)kidney.
B)muscles in the walls of arteries.
C)osteoblasts in the bone.
D)Both A and B are correct.
Q3) The pituitary gland fits in the pituitary fossa in a structure called the sella turcica.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Calcitonin:
A)decreases calcium storage in bones.
B)raises blood calcium levels.
C)has the opposite effect of parathyroid hormone.
D)reveals thyroid functioning in the protein-bound iodine (PBI) test.
Q5) Norepinephrine accounts for about 80% of adrenal medulla secretions.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 27: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is not an end product of the breakdown of hemoglobin?
A)Amino acids
B)Bilirubin
C)Free oxygen
D)Iron
Q2) A person with a parasitic worm infection might have an increase in the number of eosinophils in the blood.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Another name for blood cells is formed elements.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Two conditions that hasten blood clotting are a rough spot on the endothelium and abnormally slow-moving blood.
A)True
B)False
Q5) On average, women have a slightly higher hematocrit value than men.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Diagram the three stages of blood coagulation.
Page 29
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Chapter 28: Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) Late repolarization of the Purkinje fibers, larger with hypokalemia
A)QRS complex
B)P wave
C)T wave
D)U wave
Q2) A cause of a heart murmur may be:
A)incomplete closing of a valve.
B)incomplete contraction of the atria.
C)narrowing of a valve (stenosis).
D)both A and C.
Q3) The base of the heart lies on the diaphragm.
A)True
B)False
Q4) During atrial systole the AV valves are closed.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Blood leaving the right ventricle passes through the right atrioventricular valve.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 29: Blood Vessels
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Q1) In fetal circulation, the ductus arteriosus and foramen ovale:
A)take blood from the fetus to the placenta.
B)connect the pulmonary artery with the aorta.
C)bypass the lungs.
D)shunt blood from the right atrium into the left atrium.
Q2) All blood returns to the heart by way of either the superior vena cava or the inferior vena cava.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which statement is true of veins?
A)They always carry nonoxygenated blood.
B)They can be either muscular or elastic.
C)They always carry blood back to the heart.
D)All of the above are true of veins.
Q4) Which of the following vessels do not have the ability to constrict and dilate?
A)Arterioles
B)Arteries
C)Capillaries
D)Veins
Q5) Name the three layers of tissue that make up a blood vessel.
Page 31
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Chapter 30: Circulation of the Blood
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Q1) Local vasodilation or reactive hyperemia can be caused by the release of endothelin by the blood vessels.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In order for all the cells of the body to survive, blood supplies to all cells must be equal.
A)True
B)False
Q3) If a pulse were taken at the popliteal and dorsalis pedis arteries at the same time, it would be felt at the popliteal artery first.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The capillaries perform the transport function of the circulatory system.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Acetylcholine can increase the strength of contractions and therefore increase ejection fraction.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 31: Lymphatic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Lymph ducts empty into the circulatory system, draining into the:
A)jugular vein.
B)subclavian veins.
C)superior vena cava.
D)inferior vena cava.
Q2) Lymph nodes, or glands, are perfectly round structures.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Small aggregates on lymphatic tissue are found throughout the body, especially in connective and muscle tissue.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The size of lymph nodes varies from _____ mm to more than _____ mm in diameter.
A)1; 20
B)10; 35
C)20; 45
D)30; 65
Q5) Cancer of the breast is one of the most common forms of malignancy in women.
A)True B)False
Page 33
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Chapter 32: Innate Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Two-year-old Jenny is undergoing treatment for leukemia and was exposed recently to chickenpox. Her oncologist decided to give her a dose of interferon. What effect was the physician hoping for with this approach?
A)It would stop the virus from traveling over the sensory nerve of a single dermatome.
B)It would cause an increase in white blood cells.
C)It would inhibit the chickenpox infection from developing.
D)It would assist in the development of lymphocytes in the spleen.
Q2) Which substance can destroy pathogens by chemically hydrolyzing them?
A)Hydrochloric acid
B)Mucus
C)Enzymes
D)Sebum
Q3) The specific immune system has a more rapid response than the nonspecific immune system.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Pavementing is the attraction of neutrophils to the site of an infection.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 33: Adaptive Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Name and explain the role of regulating cells in the immune system.
Q2) A person without a functioning immune system would not benefit from an injection of antibodies developed by someone else.
A)True
B)False
Q3) T cells, by definition, are lymphocytes that have passed through the thyroid gland.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Compare and contrast the development of B cells and T cells.
Q5) Because of the random nature of antibody protein synthesis, it is possible to have an "anti-self" B cell.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The somatic recombination hypothesis is one possible explanation for the diversity of antibodies.
A)True B)False
Q7) Name the classes of antibodies, and give the function of each.
Page 35
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Chapter 34: Stress
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Sample Questions
Q1) Third stage of the general adaptation syndrome
A)Stage of resistance
B)Stressors
C)Adaptation
D)Stress syndrome
E)Alarm reaction
F)Stage of exhaustion
G)General adaptation syndrome
H)Glucocorticoids
Q2) The relationship between events that occur during fetal development and the appearance of specific anatomical, physiological, or disease states that occur later in life is referred to as fetal programming.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In response to stress, the adrenal cortex secretes cortisol and aldosterone.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Stressors are always injurious, unpleasant, or painful stimuli.
A)True
B)False
Page 36
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Chapter 35: Respiratory Tract
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Sample Questions
Q1) The parts of the thoracic cavity occupied by the lungs are called the pleural divisions.
A)True
B)False
Q2) List the functions of the respiratory system.
Q3) The hollow nasal cavity is separated by a midline partition, the conchae, dividing it into a right cavity and a left cavity.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Aspirated objects tend to lodge in the right bronchus.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which of the following is not a true statement?
A)When the diaphragm relaxes, it returns to a domelike shape.
B)When the diaphragm contracts, it pulls the floor of the thoracic cavity downward.
C)Changes in thorax size bring about inspiration and expiration.
D)Raising the ribs decreases the depth and width of the thorax.
Q6) What is the vomeronasal organ and what does research evidence suggest its function might be?
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Chapter 36: Ventilation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Both sudden painful stimulation and sudden cold stimulation to the skin can produce reflex apnea.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A relatively large increase in arterial oxygen partial pressure stimulates an increase in breathing rate.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A relatively small rise in arterial carbon dioxide partial pressure stimulates an increase in breathing rate.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The anatomical dead space is approximately equal to the same number of milliliters as the individual's weight in pounds.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The pneumotaxic center operates mainly to prevent overinflation of lung tissue.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 37: Gas Exchange Transport
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Sample Questions
Q1) The terms oxygen partial pressure and oxygen tension are interchangeable.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Carbon dioxide is carried in three forms in the blood. Ranking them from greatest to least amount carried, the sequence would be:
A)dissolved in the plasma, carbaminohemoglobin, and bicarbonate ion.
B)carbaminohemoglobin, bicarbonate ion, and dissolved in plasma.
C)bicarbonate ion, dissolved in plasma, and carbaminohemoglobin.
D)bicarbonate ion, carbaminohemoglobin, and dissolved in plasma.
Q3) Carbonic acid forms when carbon dioxide reacts with water in the blood plasma.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In the lung oxygen moves down its pressure gradient, whereas carbon dioxide moves up its pressure gradient.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Briefly describe and diagram the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve.
Q6) Explain the process by which oxygen is transported by the blood.
Q7) Explain the process by which carbon dioxide is transported by the blood.
Page 39
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Chapter 38: Upper Digestive Tract
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Sample Questions
Q1) The function of the digestive system is to alter the chemical and physical composition of food so that it can be absorbed and used by body cells.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The uvula is a small, cone-shaped process that is suspended from the hard palate of the mouth.
A)True B)False
Q3) Which of the following salivary glands produces only a mucus type of saliva?
A)Sublinguals
B)Parotids
C)Submandibulars
D)Both A and B
Q4) The flap of tissue suspended from the midpoint of the posterior border of the soft palate is the:
A)fauces.
B)frenulum.
C)uvula.
D)gingiva.
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Chapter 39: Lower Digestive Tract
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the function of the gallbladder?
Q2) The hepatic flexure of the large intestine is located in the left hypochondriac region. A)True
B)False
Q3) In the pancreas, alpha cells produce insulin and beta cells produce glucagon.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The peritoneum that lines the abdominal wall is called the parietal layer.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The vermiform appendix is a wormlike projection extending from the cecum.
A)True
B)False
Q6) In the wall of the small intestine, the longitudinal muscles are grouped into tape-like strips called haustra.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Describe the location, structure, and function of the pancreas.
Q8) Name and give the location of the four parts of the colon.
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Chapter 40: Digestion and Absorption
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Sample Questions
Q1) "Dietary fiber" is a carbohydrate.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The process of emptying the stomach takes about 12 hours after a meal.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The disaccharide sucrose is made up of which two saccharide units?
A)Glucose and glucose
B)Glucose and fructose
C)Glucose and galactose
D)None of the above
Q4) Pancreatic juice contains all of the following substances except:
A)chymotrypsin.
B)nucleases.
C)amylase.
D)pepsinogen.
Q5) Mechanical digestion reduces the size of ingested food, which increases the surface area of the food making chemical digestion more efficient.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 41: Nutrition and Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Citric Acid cycle takes place in the:
A)ribosome.
B)cytoplasm.
C)mitochondria.
D)Golgi apparatus.
Q2) Which of the following names is not a term used for the aerobic breakdown of food substances?
A)Citric acid cycle
B)Pyruvate cycle
C)Krebs cycle
D)Tricarboxylic acid cycle
Q3) A term for substances such as iron, iodine, zinc, and manganese is:
A)bulk nutrient.
B)trace element.
C)macromineral.
D)both A and C.
Q4) Show in an equation form the end products of glucose catabolism. Use one molecule of glucose and six molecules of oxygen to begin the equation.
Q5) Explain what is meant by oxidative phosphorylation.
Q6) Basal metabolic rate assumes three "basal" conditions; name and explain them.
Page 43
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Chapter 42: Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The renal artery branches directly from the abdominal aorta.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Under normal conditions, most nutrients are reabsorbed in which portion of the nephron?
A)Proximal tubule
B)Ascending nephron loop
C)Distal tubule
D)Collecting tubule
Q3) ADH and aldosterone both attempt to decrease urine output.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The function of the slit diaphragm is to prevent the filtration slits from closing under pressure.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The renal tubule is made up of simple squamous and simple cuboidal epithelium.
A)True
B)False
Q6) List functions of the urinary bladder.
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Chapter 43: Fluid and Electrolyte Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Angiotensin I is converted to angiotensin II by the liver.
A)True
B)False
Q2) When the posterior lobe of the pituitary is stimulated to increase its secretion of ADH, the first event to occur is a(n):
A)increase in urine volume.
B)increase in the kidney tubule reabsorption of water.
C)decrease in the kidney tubule reabsorption of water.
D)decrease in ECF volume.
Q3) Both a decrease in potassium ions and a decrease in blood pressure will stimulate the release of aldosterone.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Acidosis can be rapidly treated by the intravenous administration of lactate.
A)True
B)False
Q5) When chloride is secreted in the urine, it is often linked with sodium.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Describe the functioning thirst center. Where is it located?
Page 45
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Chapter 44: Acid-Base Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Name and explain the two types of pH control mechanisms used by the body.
Q2) Explain the pH scale
Q3) Vomiting results in alkalosis because of the loss of sodium from the stomach.
A)True
B)False
Q4) An increase in the base bicarbonate/carbonic acid ratio causes uncompensated acidosis.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which of the following is not a base-forming element?
A)Chlorine
B)Potassium
C)Sodium
D)Magnesium
Q6) Blood buffers work primarily by preventing marked changes in blood pH.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Identify the main buffer pairs present in body fluids. How do these buffer pairs function to limit large changes in pH?
Q8) What is the chloride shift and what is its cause?
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Chapter 45: Male Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The perineum is an accessory organ of the male reproductive system.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Describe the macroscopic and microscopic structure and location of the testes.
Q3) The structure that connects the epididymis with the ejaculatory duct is the: A)urethra.
B)vas deferens.
C)seminal vesicle.
D)scrotum.
Q4) Jack went to his physician to request a vasectomy. His physician asked him to consider this decision very carefully and explained to Jack that this operation was very difficult to reverse. List the anatomical structures that form the pathway that sperm and seminal fluid follow from the seminal tubules to the external urethral orifice.
Q5) The ampulla of the vas deferens joins with the duct from the seminal vesicle to form the ejaculatory duct.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Describe the structure of spermatozoa and give the function of each part.
Q7) Explain structure and the function of the scrotum.
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Chapter 46: Female Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The tube connecting the ovaries to the uterus is called the:
A)uterine tubes.
B)oviducts.
C)fallopian tubes.
D)All of the above are correct.
Q2) An imperforate hymen may prevent the escape of menstrual flow from the body.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The uterine tubes have the same three tissue layers as the uterus.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The fundus of the uterus is the:
A)lower, narrow section.
B)area above where the tubes enter.
C)central portion.
D)opening into the uterus.
Q5) As an oocyte matures, it moves to the medulla of the ovary to complete its development.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 47: Growth, Development, and Aging
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Sample Questions
Q1) The process of spermatogenesis forms _____ spermatozoa, each with _____ chromosomes.
A)two; 23
B)four; 23
C)two; 46
D)four; 46
Q2) Ova are produced by spermatogenesis.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Implantation occurs during the _____ stage.
A)zygote
B)morula
C)blastocyst
D)trophoblast
Q4) Fraternal twins result from the splitting of embryonic tissue from the same zygote early in development.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain the theories of aging discussed in this chapter.
Q6) Briefly discuss the three stages of labor.
Page 49
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Chapter 48: Genetics and Heredity
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a pedigree, a completely empty square would indicate a male that had the trait.
A)True
B)False
Q2) By restricting fat intake, persons with Tay-Sachs disease can successfully manage the disease.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Analysis of proteins encoded by the genome
A)Proteome
B)Ideogram
C)Genome
D)Genomics
E)P-arm
F)Proteomics
G)Q-arm
Q4) A person with sickle cell trait has some normal beta hemoglobin chains in his or her blood.
A)True
B)False
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