Biology for Health Professions Solved
Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Biology for Health Professions is a foundational course designed to introduce students to the core biological principles relevant to medical and health-related fields. The course covers essential topics such as cell structure and function, genetics, human anatomy and physiology, microbiology, and the role of biology in understanding disease mechanisms and health. Emphasis is placed on how biological concepts apply to human health, disease prevention, and clinical practice, equipping students with the knowledge required for advanced study in nursing, healthcare, and allied health programs.
Recommended Textbook
Principles of Anatomy Physiology 13th Edition by Gerard J. Tortora
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Page 2
Chapter 1: An Introduction to the Human Body
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following anatomical terms refers to the front of the elbow?
A)olecranal
B)antecubital
C)carpal
D)digital
E)antebrachial
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following correctly list the levels of structural organization in the human body from largest to smallest?
A)chemical - cellular - tissue - organ - organ system - organism
B)cellular - chemical - tissue - organ - organ system - organism
C)organism - organ system - organ - tissue - cellular - chemical
D)organ - organ system - organism - tissue - cellular - chemical
E)tissue - cellular - organ - organ system - organism - chemical
Answer: C
Q3) Name the cavities of the trunk and the serous membranes that line them. Answer: No Answer
Q4) Describe the differences between positive and negative feedback systems. Answer: No Answer
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Chapter 2: The Chemical Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the body fluid compartments found in the human body,the solvent is A)glucose.
B)lipids.
C)carbon dioxide.
D)water.
E)electrolyte.
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following substances has a pH closest to 7.0?
A)lye
B)vaginal fluid
C)gastric juice
D)cerebrospinal fluid
E)milk of magnesia
Answer: D
Q3) Describe what happens to a protein's structure and function when it is denatured.
Answer: No Answer
Q4) Describe the structural characteristics of an amino acid. Answer: No Answer
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Chapter 3: The Cellular Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) The overall function of mitosis is
A)production of gametes.
B)creation of more cilia.
C)formation of new flagella.
D)production of proteins.
E)production of new cells.
Answer: E
Q2) Describe the difference between the cytoplasm and the cytosol.
Answer: No Answer
Q3) List the steps involved in receptor-mediated endocytosis.
Answer: No Answer
Q4) Which of the following does NOT influence the rate of diffusion of a chemical across a plasma membrane?
A)concentration gradient of the chemical across the membrane
B)mass of the diffusing chemical
C)distance that the chemical has to diffuse
D)amount of ATP available
E)temperature
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: The Tissue Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Name and briefly describe the two types of growth seen in cartilage.
Q2) Which of the following types of tissues contains multinucleated cells whose movements are under voluntary control?
A)skeletal muscle
B)smooth muscle
C)cardiac muscle
D)transitional epithelium
E)areolar tissue
Q3) Which of the following is not one of the main tissue types found in the human body?
A)epithelial
B)connective
C)myocardial
D)muscle
E)nervous
Q4) Compare and contrast the functional and structural characteristics of the three types of muscle tissue.
Q5) Discuss the difference(s)between an endocrine and an exocrine gland.
Q6) Discuss the three functional classifications of exocrine glands secretions.
Q7) Discuss how a damaged tissue is repaired.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: The Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following best describes events that lead to the tanning of skin that occurs after exposure of the skin to the sun's UV radiation?
A)UV radiation stimulates increased numbers of melanocytes in the skin.
B)UV radiation stimulates increased numbers of keratinocytes in the skin.
C)UV radiation stimulates increased production of melanin by melanosomes.
D)UV radiation inactivates tyrosinase activity in melanocytes.
E)UV radiation stimulates increased production of carotenes by keratinocytes.
Q2) Which of the following chemicals does NOT contribute to the color of human skin?
A)carotene
B)hemoglobin
C)pheomelanin
D)eumelanin
E)melatonin
Q3) Briefly describe the steps in deep wound healing.
Q4) This is another name for the subcutaneous layer.
A)Dermis
B)Epidermis
C)Stratum corneum
D)Stratum basale
E)Hypodermis
Page 7
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Chapter 6: The Skeletal System: Bone Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) Briefly,explain how blood calcium level is regulated.
Q2) This is a layer of hyaline cartilage that reduces friction between bones involved in a joint.
A)periosteum
B)distal epiphysis
C)nutrient foramen
D)articular cartilage
E)epiphyseal plate
Q3) During adulthood,which of the following does NOT significantly contribute to bone remodeling and growth?
A)parathyroid hormones
B)vitamin D
C)epinephrine
D)sex steroids
E)human growth hormone
Q4) Briefly describe the processes by which bone increases in length and diameter.
Q5) Describe the steps in bone repair.
Q6) Briefly describe the steps in bone deposition.
Q7) Briefly describe the major differences between compact and spongy bone.
Page 8
Q8) List and briefly describe the six main functions of the skeletal system.
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Chapter 7: The Skeletal System: The Axial Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following bones is NOT part of the axial skeleton?
A)Hyoid
B)Ribs
C)Vertebrae
D)Carpals
E)Sternum
Q2) A prominent ridge or elongated projection on a bone is called a
A)crest.
B)trochanter.
C)sulcus.
D)fossa.
E)tubercle.
Q3) Which of the following cranial bones are paired bones in the human skull?
A)temporal
B)parietal
C)sphenoid
D)ethmoid
E)more than one selection is correct
Q4) Briefly describe the function of the paranasal sinuses.
Q5) Briefly discuss the main structural features of the temporal bones.
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Chapter 8: The Skeletal System: The Appendicular Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) During the _____ week after fertilization,the limb buds develop as small elevations at the sides of the trunk.
A)second
B)third
C)fourth
D)fifth
E)sixth
Q2) Which of the following carpal bones is named for its large hook-shaped projection on its anterior surface?
A)Lunate
B)Scaphoid
C)Triquetrum
D)Hamate
E)Pisiform
Q3) This is the thick edge of the scapula that is closer to the arm.
A)Axillary border
B)Medial border
C)Infraspinous fossa
D)Coracoid process
E)Acromion
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Chapter 9: Joints
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Sample Questions
Q1) Where do all the symphysis joints in the human body occur?
A)Upper limbs
B)Lower limbs
C)Axial skeleton
D)Ankles
E)Knees
Q2) The functional joint classification that a suture joint fits into is A)synarthrosis.
B)amphiarthrosis.
C)diarthrosis.
D)synovial.
E)cartilaginous.
Q3) Bursae are saclike structures that are commonly found between bone and A)skin.
B)muscle.
C)ligaments.
D)tendons.
E)all the other answer selections.
Q4) Briefly describe what is happening when a person "cracks their knuckles".
Q5) List and briefly describe the three common types of arthritis.
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Chapter 10: Muscle Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) This is the property of muscle that gives it the ability to stretch without damage.
A)electrical excitability
B)contractility
C)extensibility
D)elasticity
E)thermogenesis
Q2) A structural protein that is associated with thin filaments and serves to anchor the thin filament to the Z-disc is called
A)nebulin.
B)titin.
C)myomesin.
D)dystrophin.
E)tropomyosin.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT seen in exercise-induced muscle damage?
A)torn sarcolemmas
B)damaged myofibrils
C)sore muscles
D)progressive degeneration of muscles
E)disrupted Z-discs
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Page 12
Chapter 11: The Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A muscle that decreases the size of an opening is a A)rotator.
B)tensor.
C)pronator.
D)sphincter.
E)depressor.
Q2) The insertion of all the following muscles is the hyoid bone EXCEPT the A)digastric.
B)stylohyoid.
C)mylohyoid.
D)sternothryoid.
E)omohyoid.
Q3) The attachment of a muscle's tendon to the stationary bone is called the ______;the attachment of the muscle's other tendon to the movable bone is called the ______.
A)origin,action
B)insertion,action.
C)origin,insertion.
D)insertion,origin
E)insertion,action
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Chapter 12: Nervous Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) A postsynaptic neuron responds to neurotransmitters released by a presynaptic neuron by creating
A)EPSPs
B)water-filled channels in its membrane
C)IPSPs
D)either EPSPs or IPSPs
E)All the choices are correct
Q2) In the process of spatial summation,______ are added together and _____ are subtracted from that total to determine whether _____ will be created at the trigger zone of the postsynaptic neuron.
A)EPSPs;IPSPs;action potentials
B)IPSPs;EPSPs;action potentials
C)EPSPs;IPSPs;graded potentials
D)IPSPs;action potentials;EPSPs
E)EPSPs;action potentials;IPSPs
Q3) List the three ways that neurotransmitters can be removed from a synapse.
Q4) Describe four ways drugs can modify the effects of neurotransmitters.
Q5) Describe the difference between spatial and temporal summation in a postsynaptic neuron.
Q6) What factors limit neurogenesis in the CNS of adults?
Page 14
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Chapter 13: The Spinal Cord and Spinal Nerves
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT a common characteristic of dermatomes?
A)Can be used clinically to determine area of spinal cord damage
B)Each dermatome is only served by a single spinal nerve
C)Complete anesthesia of a single dermatome often requires blocking three adjacent spinal nerves
D)Dermatomes are designated based on the cranial or spinal nerve that serves that area of the skin
E)The dermatome serving the face is supplied by the trigeminal cranial nerve
Q2) Which of the following parts of a nervous reflex arc is usually a muscle or gland?
A)Sensory receptor
B)Sensory neuron
C)Motor neuron
D)Effector
E)Integration center
Q3) Describe the cross-sectional anatomy of the spinal cord.
Q4) Describe the basic anatomy of a spinal nerve plexus.
Q5) Describe the gross external anatomy of the spinal cord.
Q6) Identify and describe the function of each of the components of a spinal reflex arc.
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Chapter 14: The Brain and Cranial Nerves
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Sample Questions
Q1) This is a narrow fluid-filled cavity found along the midline superior to the hypothalamus and between the right and left halves of the thalamus.
A)Lateral ventricle
B)Septum pellucidum
C)Third ventricle
D)Fourth ventricle
E)Fifth ventricle
Q2) These three areas of gray matter found in each cerebral hemisphere are important in helping to control the initiation and termination of skeletal muscle movements.
A)red nuclei
B)vestibular nuclei
C)lateral olivary nuclei
D)basal nuclei
E)autonomic ganglia
Q3) Describe the structural and functional relationship between the hypothalamus and the pituitary gland.
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16
Chapter 15: The Autonomic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following does NOT describe the parasympathetic division of the ANS?
A)Long preganglionic neurons
B)Synapses with smooth muscle in blood vessels walls
C)Vagus nerve output
D)Ganglia found near visceral effectors
E)Sacral spinal cord output
Q2) Which of the following responses is NOT caused by activation of the parasympathetic division of the ANS?
A)Decreased heart rate
B)Airway dilation
C)Decreased pupil diameter
D)Increased secretion of digestive juices
E)Increased gastric motility
Q3) Which endocrine gland is directly innervated by sympathetic preganglionic axons?
A)Pituitary gland
B)Hypothalamus
C)Pancreas
D)Adrenal gland
E)Thyroid gland
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Chapter 16: Sensory, Motor and Integrative Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) What category of receptor cell is used to sense changes in temperature?
A)photoreceptor
B)mechanoreceptor
C)thermoreceptor
D)chemoreceptor
E)osmoreceptor
Q2) A viral infection has damaged a patient's tectospinal tract.What signs of this damage probably helped the physicians diagnose the problem?
Q3) Which of the following is a type of slowly adapting touch receptor?
A)Meissner corpuscle
B)Merkel disc
C)Pacinian corpuscle
D)Hair root receptor
E)Photoreceptor
Q4) Describe the role of the reticular activating system in sleep,arousal,and consciousness.
Q5) List the six types of sensory receptors categorized based on the type of stimulus they detect and describe the types of stimuli that each type can detect.
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Chapter 17: The Special Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Emily was very ill with an upper respiratory infection.Her roommate gave her some chicken soup to make her feel better.Neither Emily nor her roommate realized that the soup was too hot to eat until after Emily put a spoonful in her mouth.Now Emily says she can't taste anything.Why? When will she be able to taste again?
Q2) Which of the following are structures of the membranous labyrinth of the inner that are involved in dynamic and static equilibrium?
A)vestibule
B)saccule
C)cochlear duct
D)semicircular ducts
E)More than one of the above is correct.
Q3) List the cells,structures,and fluids that light must pass through to reach the photoreceptor cells.
Q4) Olfactory receptors are found
A)throughout the nasal cavity.
B)only in the superior portion of the nasal cavity.
C)only in the inferior portion of the nasal cavity.
D)from the vestibule to the pharynx.
E)only in the mid-nasal ridges.
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Chapter 18: The Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of anterior pituitary cell secretes human growth hormone?
A)Thyrotrophs
B)Gonadotrophs
C)Somatotrophs
D)Lactotrophs
E)Corticotrophs
Q2) When a hormone is present in excessive levels,the number of target-cell receptors may decrease.This is called
A)receptor recognition.
B)sensory adaptation.
C)paracrine regulation.
D)up-regulation.
E)down-regulation.
Q3) Leptin is a hormone produced by the A)placenta.
B)ovaries.
C)testes.
D)pituitary gland.
E)adipose tissue.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: The Cardiovascular System: The Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following hormones stimulates proliferation of red blood cells in red bone marrow?
A)erythropoietin (EPO)
B)thrombopoietin (TPO)
C)human growth hormone (hGH)
D)calcitonin (CT)
E)follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
Q2) The process by which the formed elements of the blood develop is called A)hematospermia.
B)hemopoiesis.
C)thrombocytosis.
D)hemostasis.
E)polycythemia.
Q3) What percentage of blood plasma is water?
A)95.1%
B)91.5%
C)88.5%
D)4.9%
E)8.5%
Q4) List and briefly describe the major functions of blood.
21
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Chapter 20: The Cardiovascular System: The Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) Blood leaving the left ventricle passes through which of the following structures?
A)Right atrium
B)Interventricular septum
C)Bicuspid valve
D)Aortic semilunar valve
E)Pulmonary semilunar valve
Q2) This groove found on the surface of the heart marks the boundary between the right and left ventricles.
A)Coronary sulcus
B)Anterior interventricular sulcus
C)Posterior interventricular sulcus
D)Coronary sinus
E)Anterior intraventricular sulcus
Q3) Cardiac muscle fibers are electrically connected to neighboring fibers by A)desmosomes.
B)tight junctions.
C)gap junctions.
D)interneurons.
E)chordae tendinae.
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Page 22
Chapter 21: The Cardiovascular System: Blood Vessels and Hemodynamics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Capillaries are also referred to as A)exchange vessels.
B)vasoconstrictors.
C)vasodilators.
D)pressure reservoirs.
E)distributing vessels.
Q2) Elastic arteries function as A)vasodilators.
B)conduits to the tissues of the trunk only.
C)barriers to microcirculation.
D)pressure reservoirs.
E)vasoconstrictors.
Q3) Describe the route of an RBC traveling from the heart to the left elbow and back to the heart.
Q4) In a freak accident,an overheated and dehydrated roofer falls off the roof and onto a mirror that is being brought into a construction site.The mirror breaks and cuts several blood vessels,including the femoral artery.What will happen to the roofer's NFP in his capillary beds? Why?
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Q5) Identify and discuss the factors that contribute to systemic vascular resistance.
Chapter 22: The Lymphatic System, Nonspecific Resistance to Disease, and Immunity
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Q1) Which T cell toxin fragments DNA?
A)Perforin
B)Tumor antigen
C)Interferons
D)Lymphotoxin
E)Toxin T
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a sign of inflammation?
A)Redness
B)Pain
C)Heat
D)Mucus production
E)Swelling
Q3) Which cell kills infected body cells and tumor cells?
A)Natural killer cells
B)Perforins
C)platelets
D)Mucus
E)Antimicrobial proteins
Q4) List the five actions of antibodies.
Q5) Describe the barriers used in innate defense.
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Chapter 23: The Digestive System
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Q1) Deciduous molars are replaced by
A)Bicuspids
B)Molars
C)Incisors
D)Canines
E)Wisdom teeth
Q2) This major duct carries a fluid rich in bicarbonate ions.
A)Pancreatic duct
B)Hepatopancreatic duct
C)Cystic duct
D)Bile duct
E)Hepatic duct
Q3) Which of the following pancreatic enzymes acts on peptide bonds?
A)Chymotrypsin
B)Amylase
C)Pepsin
D)Phosphatase
E)Nucleosidase
Q4) Identify the protein-hydrolyzing enzymes in the digestive tract,and name their sources.Why are these enzymes released in an inactive form?
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Chapter 24: Metabolism
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Q1) In the absorptive state
A)Storage of energy is important
B)Filtration is important
C)Reabsorption is important
D)Synthesis is important
E)Production of heat is important
Q2) Food induced thermogenesis
A)Accounts for 30% of total energy expended
B)Is known as insensible loss
C)Is inhibited by the hypothalamus
D)Is the opposite of ketosis
E)None of these choices
Q3) Which of the following is not a major nutrient the body needs?
A)Carbohydrates
B)Glycogen
C)Proteins
D)Minerals
E)Vitamins
Q4) Briefly outline the possible fates of glucose in the body.
Q5) Identify the different types of lipoproteins and describe the function of each.
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Chapter 25: The Urinary System
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Q1) This occurs when a substance passes from the fluid in the tubular lumen through the apical membrane,across the cytosol,and then into the interstitial fluid.
A)paracellular reabsoprtion
B)transcellular reabsoprtion
C)apical reasborption
D)basolateral reabsorption
E)active transport
Q2) Consumption of salty food will cause an increase in this hormone.
A)Aldosterone
B)Renin
C)ANH
D)Angiotensin-II
E)ADH
Q3) Discuss the three main pressures that affect glomerular filtration.
Q4) This is a test to measure kidney function.
A)Plasma creatinine
B)Renal study
C)Kidney assay
D)Dialysis
E)Hilus study
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Chapter 26: The Reproductive Systems
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Q1) Describe the roles of estrogens and progesterone.
Q2) This is the ovarian phase between the end of menstruation and beginning of ovulation.
A)Menstrual phase
B)Preovulatory phase
C)Proliferative phase
D)Follicular phase
E)Postovulatory phase
Q3) This attaches the ovaries and the uterus to the pelvic wall.
A)Broad ligament
B)Mesovarium
C)Ovarian ligament
D)Suspensory ligament
E)Hilum
Q4) This is the site of fertilization.
A)Ureters
B)Urethra
C)Uterine tubes
D)Ovaries
E)Vagina
28
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Chapter 27: Development and Inheritance
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Q1) Which condition listed is one of the most common causes of mental retardation and the most common preventable cause of birth defects in the United States?
A)Emesis gravidarum
B)Metafemale syndrome
C)Turner's syndrome
D)Fetal alcohol syndrome
E)Klinefelter's syndrome
Q2) Which of the terms below describes the chromosomal characteristic of an individual presented as a systematic arrangement of pairs of metaphase chromosomes arranged by size?
A)conceptus
B)primordium
C)epigenesis
D)karyotype
E)fertilization age
Q3) Distinguish between genotype and phenotype and explain how the environment may affect each.
Q4) Describe the products of the three primary germ layers.
Q5) Describe the process and purpose of amniocentesis.
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