Biology for Health Professionals Study Guide Questions
Course Introduction
Biology for Health Professionals provides a foundational understanding of biological principles with a focus on human health and disease. The course covers essential topics such as cell structure and function, genetics, microbiology, physiology, and immunology, emphasizing their relevance to healthcare practice. Students learn to apply biological concepts in clinical contexts, develop critical thinking skills for interpreting scientific data, and explore the biological basis of current health issues. This course equips future health professionals with the knowledge needed to make informed decisions in patient care and public health.
Recommended Textbook
Anatomy Physiology Disease Foundations for the Health Professions 1st Edition by Deborah Roiger
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17 Chapters
1477 Verified Questions
1477 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Basics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Related to affecting two sides refers to which of the following anatomical terms of direction?
A) Bilateral
B) Superior
C) Anterior
D) Lateral
Answer: A
Q2) The thoracic cavity can be subdivided into which two cavities?
A) Abdominal and pelvic cavities
B) Cranial and vertebral cavities
C) Pleural and pericardial cavities
D) Thoracic and abdominal pelvic cavities
Answer: C
Q3) Separating the front and back half of the body is achieved by what anatomical plane?
A) Sagittal
B) Transverse
C) Frontal
D) Midsagittal
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Levels of Organization of the Human Body
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is ATP?
A) A usable form of energy for the cell
B) A modified glucose molecule
C) The waste product produced by cellular respiration
D) Adenosine diphosphate
Answer: A
Q2) What is an acid?
A) A molecule with a pH of 7
B) A molecule that releases hydroxide ions when added to water
C) A molecule that releases hydrogen atoms when added to water
D) A molecule with a pH higher than 7
Answer: C
Q3) Which of the following is found orbiting the atom?
A) Proton
B) Neutron
C) Electron
D) Nucleus
Answer: C
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4
Chapter 3: Introduction to Pathology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement describes therapeutic treatment?
A) The goal of treatment is to make a patient more comfortable during the terminal stages of the disease.
B) The goal of treatment is to cure the patient of the disease.
C) The goal of treatment is to restore normal function.
D) The goal of treatment is to prevent disease.
Answer: C
Q2) Which tumor originates in connective tissue?
A) Carcinoma
B) Sarcoma
C) Leukemia
D) Lymphoma
Answer: B
Q3) Which statement regarding inflammation is true?
A) Decreased blood flow causes redness and heat.
B) Increased blood flow causes vessel dilation.
C) Increased blood flow causes swelling
D) Increased fluid leaking from blood vessels cause swelling.
Answer: D
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Page 5
Chapter 4: The Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the function of dendritic cells in the skin?
A) To form a durable, waterproof layer on the surface of the skin
B) To give the skin color
C) To allow skin to feel fine touch
D) To protect the skin from pathogens
Q2) What is the function of the dermal papillae at the base of the hair follicle?
A) Pigmentation
B) Strength
C) Texture
D) Nourishment
Q3) All of the following are functions of lactic acid in sweat except which one?
A) Maintain a pH between 4 and 6.
B) Produce a scent that influences behavior.
C) Forms an acid mantle on the skin.
D) Reduces the number of pathogens on the skin.
Q4) Which of the following combining forms mean black?
A) cutane/o
B) cyan/o
C) melan/o
D) onych/o
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Chapter 5: The Skeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What types of cartilage is found in the pinna of the ear and in the epiglottis of the throat?
A) Hyaline cartilage
B) Elastic cartilage
C) Fibrocartilage
D) Fibroelastic cartilage
Q2) All of the following are prominent features on the scapula except which one?
A) Acromion process
B) Coracoid process
C) Glenoid cavity
D) Capitulum
Q3) All of the following are required for bone remodeling except which one?
A) Decreased stress on bones
B) Increased stress on bones
C) Sufficient calcium in the blood
D) Sufficient vitamin D in the diet
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Chapter 6: The Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The gastrocnemius and soleus perform what action?
A) Synergists for doriflexion
B) Synergists for plantar flexion
C) Antagonists for plantar flexion
D) Eversion of the foot
Q2) If a person stands on his or her heels with their toes pointing up,what muscle action is he or she performing?
A) Dorsiflexion
B) Plantar flexion
C) Inversion
D) Eversion
Q3) When discussing levers in the muscular system,which term does the insertion of the muscle describe?
A) Lever
B) Fulcrum
C) Resistance
D) Effort
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8
Chapter 7: The Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are a part of the central nervous system except which one?
A) Sensory neurons
B) Medulla oblongata
C) Cerebrum
D) Thalamus
Q2) Which statement is true about sodium during resting membrane potential?
A) Sodium is located on the outside of the neuron membrane.
B) Sodium in located on the inside of the neuron membrane.
C) Sodium can move freely across the neuron cell membrane.
D) Sodium crosses the membrane using active transport.
Q3) Which type of neuron has one process that serves as the dendrite and axon?
A) Multipolar
B) Unipolar
C) Bipolar
D) Tripolar
Q4) The autonomic nervous system carries what kind of messages?
A) Efferent
B) Afferent
C) Sensory
D) Voluntary
Page 9
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Chapter 8: The Nervous System-Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) The pinna and auditory canal are part of what section of the ear?
A) Outer ear
B) Middle ear
C) Inner ear
D) Neither or these answers are correct.
Q2) Which of the following combining forms refers to a part of the ear?
A) corne/o
B) cochle/o
C) scler/o
D) audi/o
Q3) What is the function of the middle ear?
A) To transfer the sound wave to the tympanic membrane
B) To amplify the vibration of the tympanic membrane
C) To guide the sound wave into the auditory canal
D) To separate the outer ear and inner ear
Q4) What is swimmer's ear?
A) An infection of the outer ear
B) An infection of the middle ear
C) An infection of the inner ear
D) Neither of these answers is correct.
10
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Chapter 9: The Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following terms mean adrenal gland except which one?
A) All of the answer choices are correct.
B) aden/o
C) adren/o
D) adrenal/o
Q2) Which hormone is not produced by the hypothalamus?
A) TSH
B) GnRH
C) CRH
D) GHRH
Q3) The hormone ADH secreted from the posterior pituitary gland targets what organ?
A) Uterus
B) Liver
C) Bone
D) Kidney
Q4) Which disorder causes hypothyroidism?
A) Hashimoto's disease
B) Cushing's syndrome
C) Myxedema
D) Dwarfism
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Chapter 10: The Cardiovascular System-Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which nutrient important to the blood helps the enzymes necessary to produce hemoglobin?
A) Folic acid
B) Vitamin B <sub>12</sub>
C) Copper
D) Iron
Q2) If Amy has type AB blood,what blood type can she receive?
A) A
B) B
C) AB
D) All the answers are correct.
Q3) What type of anemia can be caused by the lack of intrinsic factor from the stomach that allows vitamin B<sub>12</sub> to be absorbed?
A) Iron deficiency anemia
B) Pernicious anemia
C) Aplastic anemia
D) Hemolytic anemia
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12
Chapter 11: The Cardiovascular System - Heart and Vessels
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which cardiac defect is not a defect seen in Tetralogy of Fallot?
A) VSD
B) Overriding aorta
C) Aortic valve stenosis
D) Right ventricular hypertrophy
Q2) In systemic circulation,what happens to CO<sub>2</sub> and O<sub>2</sub> in the blood?
A) Both CO<sub>2</sub> and O<sub>2</sub> are unloaded.
B) CO<sub>2</sub> is unloaded and O<sub>2</sub> is loaded.
C) CO<sub>2</sub> is loaded and O<sub>2</sub> is unloaded.
D) Both CO<sub>2</sub> and O<sub>2</sub> are loaded.
Q3) Blood leaves the left atrium through what valve?
A) Bicuspid valve
B) Tricuspid valve
C) Aortic valve
D) Pulmonary valve
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Page 13
Chapter 12: The Lymphatic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which disorder is characterized as cancer of the plasma cells in the bone marrow?
A) Lymphadenitis
B) Elephantiasis
C) Lymphoma
D) Multiple myeloma
Q2) Which of the following is true about nonspecific resistance and specific immunity?
A) Nonspecific defenses are widespread, meaning they work to fight many pathogens without prior exposure.
B) Nonspecific defenses work to fend off any pathogen in the same way every time the pathogen comes along in the body.
C) Specific immunity requires a prior exposure to a pathogen so the system can recognize the pathogen
D) All of these statements are true.
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14
Chapter 13: The Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following describes expiratory reserve volume?
A) The amount of air in the lungs that cannot be moved
B) The amount of air that can be forcefully expired beyond the amount expired in a normal breath at rest
C) The amount of air that can be forcefully inspired beyond the amount inspired in a normal breath at rest
D) The amount of air moved in a normal breath (inspired or expired) at rest
Q2) What is the definition of vital capacity?
A) The maximum amount of air the lung can hold
B) The maximum amount of air that can be inspired after the expiration of a normal breath at rest
C) The maximum amount of air that can be moved
D) The amount of air remaining in the lungs after the expiration of a normal breath at rest
Q3) What structures serve as the common passage way for food and air?
A) Pharynx
B) Trachea
C) Larynx
D) None of these are correct.
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Page 15
Chapter 14: The Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following combining forms means stomach?
A) esophag/o
B) emet/o
C) enter/o
D) gastr/o
Q2) Which efferent motor neuron listed below is found in the reflex arc for defecation?
A) Stretch receptors in the rectal wall
B) Spinal cord
C) The rectal wall
D) Motor neurons in the rectal wall
Q3) Which cranial nerve is not required for deglutition?
A) Cranial nerve V
B) Cranial nerve VII
C) Cranial nerve XI
D) Cranial nerve XII
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Chapter 15: The Excretoryurinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Where are the afferent neurons for the micturition reflex arc located?
A) Bladder wall
B) Sacral region of the spinal cord
C) Internal urethral sphincter
D) None of these are correct.
Q2) Which of the following organs is not a part of the excretory system?
A) Skin
B) Lungs
C) Liver
D) Bones
Q3) Which excretory system disorder is characterized by enlargement of the prostate gland?
A) Hydronephrosis
B) Incontinence
C) Kidney cancer
D) BPH
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Chapter 16: The Male Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which accessory gland produces trace amounts of a fluid that lubricate the end of the penis to make intercourse easier,and neutralizes the pH of the male urethra?
A) Seminal vesicle
B) Prostate
C) Bulbourethral
D) Glans penis
Q2) Which statement about meiosis is false?
A) Meiosis is a two-division process that starts with a parent cell of 46 chromosomes.
B) Meiosis results in four identical daughter cells, each having 23 chromosomes.
C) Meiosis produces a set of chromosomes in each daughter cell that is different than the sets in the other daughter cells due to independent assortment and crossing-over.
D) Meiosis produces haploid cells.
Q3) What is the purpose of the sperm's midpiece?
A) To contain enzymes that are used to penetrate an egg
B) To contain mitochondria that supply ATP to energize the tail
C) To house the sperm's chromosomes
D) To propel the sperm
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Chapter 17: The Female Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following does not happen during the luteal phase in the ovarian cycle?
A) The ruptured follicle remains in the ovary and changes to become a corpus luteum.
B) The corpus luteum releases estrogen and progesterone.
C) FSH and LH production is inhibited.
D) New egg development continues at this phase.
Q2) Which hormone suppresses uterine contractions,promotes a rich lining of the uterus for the developing blastocyst and embryo to feed upon,and promotes the development of mammary glands and ducts?
A) Human chorionic somatomammotropin
B) Progesterone
C) Estrogen
D) Human chorionic gonadotropin
Q3) What structure coaxes an egg released from the ovary into the uterine tube?
A) Infundibulum
B) Vulva
C) Fimbriae
D) Oviduct
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