Biology for Allied Health Final
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Course Introduction
Biology for Allied Health provides a foundational understanding of biological principles as they relate to human health and disease. The course introduces core topics such as cell structure and function, genetics, metabolism, microbiology, and the major organ systems, emphasizing their relevance to health care professions. Through lectures, laboratory exercises, and case studies, students develop an appreciation for how biological processes affect the human body and learn to apply biological concepts to real-world scenarios in allied health settings. This course equips students with the scientific knowledge necessary for advanced study in health-related fields and for informed decision-making in clinical environments.
Recommended Textbook
Essentials of The Living World 4th Edition by George B Johnson
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Chapter 1: The Science of Biology
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Q1) Evolution is the genetic change in an organism over time.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) We have all heard that dietary fats are linked to higher incidences of heart disease and cancer in humans.Choose the proper hypothesis that a scientist could test to examine this observation.
A) Eating more meat causes cancer.
B) Eating a diet of lard makes you fat.
C) Dietary fat,heart disease,and cancer are all somehow interrelated.
D) Fat levels above 30% of calories in the diet are correlated with an increase in heart disease.
Answer: D
Q3) Scientists employ __________________ at the very beginning of the scientific process.
A) observation
B) deduction
C) prediction
D) experimentation
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Water moving up into a paper towel is attributable to A) heat storage.
B) high heat of vaporization.
C) electronegativity.
D) cohesion.
E) adhesion.
Answer: E
Q2) What is true about <sup>14</sup>C?
A) It is an ion.
B) It is the most common form of carbon.
C) It can be employed in the radioisotopic dating of fossils.
D) It has 6 neutrons.
Answer: C
Q3) A substance that increases the concentration of H<sup>+</sup> is called a(n)________.
Answer: acid
Q4) Due to hydrogen bonding,ice is _______ dense than water.
Answer: less
Q5) What are some of the uses of radioactive isotopes?
Answer: No Answer
4
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Chapter 3: Molecules of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fatty acids that contain the maximum number of hydrogen atoms possible are said to be
A) polyunsaturated.
B) monounsaturated.
C) saturated.
D) phospholipids.
Answer: C
Q2) Which level of protein structure ultimately determines all the other levels of structure?
A) Primary
B) Secondary
C) Tertiary
D) Quaternary
Answer: A
Q3) Describe five functions of proteins.
Answer: No Answer
Q4) List the four major types of macromolecules,their subunits (building blocks),and their functions.
Answer: No Answer
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Chapter 4: Cells
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Q1) Oxidative metabolism takes place in the ___________________ of the cell.
A) chloroplasts
B) peroxisomes
C) mitochondria
D) nucleus
Q2) Which of the following kingdoms contain prokaryotes?
A) Fungi
B) Archaea
C) Plantae
D) Animalia
E) Protista
Q3) Which is incorrect about the plasma membrane?
A) It has a hydrophobic interior and hydrophilic region that faces water.
B) Cholesterol affects the fluid nature of the membrane.
C) Proteins embedded in the lipid bilayer do not move.
D) Transmembrane proteins span the membrane.
E) It surrounds all living cells.
Q4) Give the three major principles of the cell theory.
Q5) ____________ is the minimum distance two points can be apart and still be distinguished as two separate points.
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Chapter 5: Energy and Life
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Q1) Which are the components of an ATP molecule?
A) Deoxyribose,3 phosphates,1 guanine
B) Ribose,2 phosphates,1 thymine
C) Deoxyribose,ribose,1 cytosine
D) Ribose,3 phosphates,1 adenine
E) Glucose,3 phosphates,1 guanine
Q2) In __________ reactions,the products contain more energy than the reactants.
Q3) The site where a noncompetitive inhibitor molecule binds to the surface of an enzyme is the ______________ site.
Q4) A competitive inhibitor interferes with
A) the active site of the enzyme so a substrate cannot bind.
B) the repressor site of the enzyme so a substrate cannot bind.
C) the allosteric site of the enzyme so a substrate cannot bind.
D) the oxidized site of the enzyme so a substrate cannot bind.
E) the reduced site of the enzyme so a substrate cannot bind.
Q5) ATP is composed of a sugar,the organic base adenine,and
A) three phosphate groups.
B) two phosphate groups.
C) three nitrate groups.
D) phenylalanine.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Photosynthesis: Acquiring Energy From the Sun
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Q1) In chemiosmosis,a(n)_________ gradient drives the production of ATP using ATP synthase channels.
A) pigment
B) chlorophyll
C) proton
D) electron
E) NADPH
Q2) When something appears blue,it is absorbing all colors except __________.
A) yellow
B) red
C) blue
D) green
E) orange
Q3) Light energy arrives at earth in tiny packets called A) rays.
B) photons.
C) light waves.
D) wavelengths.
Q4) The portion of the electromagnetic spectrum visible to the human eye is known as ___________.
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Chapter 7: How Cells Harvest Energy From Food
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Q1) Which stage of cell respiration makes the majority of ATP?
A) Glycolysis
B) Krebs cycle
C) Electron transport chain
D) Fermentation
E) They all produce the same amount.
Q2) _________ is an electron carrier similar to NADH.
Q3) Compare ethanol and lactic acid fermentation with regard to their products and the types of cells in which they occur.
Q4) Depending on your body's needs,acetyl-CoA is either directed into the Krebs cycle or A) channeled into fat synthesis.
B) fermented into alcohol.
C) sent back to glycolysis.
D) sent to the electron transport chain.
E) fermented to lactic acid.
Q5) During the second stage of cellular respiration,the ______________ takes place in the mitochondria and generates NADH and FADH<sub>2</sub>.
Q6) Common end products of fermentation include __________ and ______.
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Chapter 8: Mitosis
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Q1) During mitosis,chromosomes are lined up at the equator of the cell during the phase called __________________________.
Q2) What causes cancer in cells?
A) Damage to genes controlling cell division
B) Chemical damage to cell membranes
C) UV damage to transport proteins
D) A disconnect between the two G phases
E) Skipping the S phase in the cell cycle
Q3) All of the following are correct about cancer except
A) malignant tumors are invasive.
B) malignant tumors can produce metastases.
C) cancer cells can sometimes spread into the bloodstream.
D) an oncogene is a cancer cell.
E) cancers are the direct result of mutations in growth-regulating genes.
Q4) Which of the following is not a stage of mitosis?
A) Interphase
B) Prophase
C) Anaphase
D) Metaphase
E) Telophase
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Chapter 9: Meiosis
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Q1) After meiosis I _______ cells are formed and after meiosis II,_____ cells result.
A) 2;3
B) 4;4
C) 2;4
D) 4;8
E) 2;8
Q2) Which of these is not a unique feature of meiosis?
A) Synapsis
B) Reduction division
C) Diploid daughter cells
D) Haploid daughter cells
Q3) In humans,gametes are ________ while somatic cells are _________.
A) diploid;diploid
B) haploid;diploid
C) haploid;haploid
D) haploid;triploid
E) triploid;haploid
Q4) Cells that will eventually undergo meiosis and produce gametes are often referred to as _______________ cells.
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Chapter 10: Foundations of Genetics
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Q1) Two true-breeding pea plants are crossed,one with purple flowers and the other with white.Their offspring are
A) heterozygous with the dominant phenotype.
B) homozygous with the recessive phenotype.
C) a mixture of purple and white flowers with varying genotypes.
D) still true-breeding,with the same parental genotypes.
Q2) Which of the following statements about how genotype determines phenotype is correct?
A) Proteins determine the sequence of genes.
B) Amino acids are located on chromosomes and determine what genes will be expressed.
C) Associations of proteins form polypeptides,which contain genes.
D) Genes encode a sequence of amino acids for a particular polypeptide or protein.
E) Genes are located on proteins,which encode a sequence of amino acids.
Q3) When homologous chromosomes or chromatids fail to separate properly in meiosis,this is called _________________.
Q4) The outward expression of an organism's genotype is referred to as its genotype.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: DNA: The Genetic Material
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Q1) The copying of DNA before cell division is referred to as DNA
Q2) If an error is made during DNA replication,mechanisms of DNA repair always correct the mistakes.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Each strand in the double helix is identical to the opposite strand.
A)True
B)False
Q4) When Frederick Griffith infected mice with a virulent strain of Streptococcus pneumonia,the mice
A) remained healthy.
B) died of blood poisoning.
C) became ill but lived.
D) reproduced quicker.
Q5) The Hershey-Chase experiment demonstrated that protein,not DNA,is the hereditary material.
A)True
B)False
Q6) A change in the genetic message is called a ____________.
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Chapter 12: How Genes Work
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Q1) The primary RNA transcript is
A) tRNA before it forms its hairpin loops.
B) rRNA before it forms the ribosome.
C) mRNA after the introns have been removed.
D) mRNA before the introns have been removed.
E) mRNA before the exons have been removed.
Q2) Said simply,the Central Dogma of gene expression is as follows: DNA is transcribed to produce mRNA,which is translated to produce A) promoters.
B) nucleosomes.
C) operators.
D) proteins.
Q3) Explain why eukaryotic mRNA must be processed before it leaves the nucleus.
Q4) Biologists have found that the genetic code is universal,that the same triplet codons code for the same amino acids in almost all living things.Explain how this can be considered evidence for evolution.
Q5) During translation,a peptide bond forms between the incoming amino acid and the growing polypeptide chain at the ____________ site on the ribosome.
Q6) Describe the differences between DNA and RNA.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: The New Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The use of probes to produce unique banding patterns of DNA on film is called A) PCR.
B) cDNA amplification.
C) DNA fingerprinting.
D) recombinant DNA.
Q2) An adult stem cell differs from an embryonic stem cell in that it is not A) capable of further cell divisions.
B) totipotent.
C) able to accept methyl groups.
D) able to produce a blastocyst.
Q3) All of the following are correct about genetically modified crops except A) they are not allowed to be grown in the U.S.
B) they can be more nutritious than regular crops.
C) their use can lessen the amounts of chemical pesticides used for raising the crop.
D) their use can reduce the amount of tillage and soil erosion.
Q4) How is it possible that there are four times as many kinds of mRNA as there are genes in the human genome?
Q5) What is the advantage of using restriction enzymes to cleave DNA?
Q6) Explain the techniques used in the cloning of "Dolly."
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Evolution and Natural Selection
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Q1) In 1859,naturalist ______________ suggested an explanation for why evolution occurs.
A) Robert McKormick
B) Charles Darwin
C) Charles Lyell
D) Thomas Malthus
E) Peter Grant
Q2) Why were people so upset about Darwin's ideas in On the Origin of Species?
Q3) In the Hardy-Weinberg equation p<sup>2</sup> + 2pq + q<sup>2</sup>,describe what genotype frequency is represented by each member of the equation.
Q4) In a large population of flowers,the frequency of a trait's recessive allele is 0.4.What is the frequency of the trait's dominant allele?
A) 0.16
B) 0.6
C) 0.4
D) 0.36
Q5) What is the process of natural selection?
Q6) Darwin's 1859 book was entitled _____________.
Q7) Give two examples of nonrandom mating.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Exploring Biological Diversity
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Q1) Which of the following domains each contain only one kingdom?
A) Bacteria and Fungi
B) Archaea and Bacteria
C) Fungi and Protista
D) Protista and Animalia
E) Animalia and Plantae
Q2) To what class does the eastern gray squirrel belong?
A) Chondrichthyes
B) Amphibia
C) Aves
D) Mammalia
Q3) How many different species of organisms do scientists believe exist on earth today?
A) 10,000
B) 1.5 million
C) 10 million
D) 1 billion
Q4) Traditional ___________ constructs phylogenies with "weighted" characters.
Q5) The taxonomic level just below kingdom is ____________.
Q6) Biologists currently recognize ______ different kingdoms.
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Chapter 16: Evolution of Microbial Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) The mutualistic associations between plant roots and fungi are called _______.
A) molds
B) lichens
C) mycorrhizae
D) truffles
Q2) Discovery that viruses act more like a chemical than an organism came from work with the
A) Vibrio cholerae virus.
B) SARS virus.
C) HIV virus.
D) tobacco mosaic virus.
Q3) Which of the following diseases can be considered among the most devastating of all time?
A) Influenza
B) Measles
C) Chicken pox
D) Herpes
Q4) Some bacteria can pass plasmids from one cell to another in a process called
Q5) Fungal hyphae that have two nuclei are said to be ____________________.
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Evolution of Plants
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Q1) During the sporophyte generation in the life cycle of a fern,the plant releases _______________ that germinate and become gametophytes.
A) haploid spores
B) diploid spores
C) haploid gametes
D) diploid gametes
Q2) Which of the following could not be found within a carpel?
A) Egg
B) Megaspore
C) Polar nuclei
D) Endosperm
E) Microspore
Q3) In a seed plant,the pollen grains are actually tiny
A) female gametophytes.
B) seeds.
C) male gametophytes.
D) eggs.
Q4) The _________ are the most abundant type of seedless vascular plant.
Q5) In some seeds,the _____________ is stored as food in the cotyledons.
Q6) Why is the evolution of secondary growth important for plants?
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Evolution of Animals
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Q1) Cnidarians and ctenophorans differ from other eumetazoans by having A) radial symmetry.
B) bilateral symmetry.
C) major organ systems.
D) gills.
Q2) Homo habilis differed from australopithecines in A) stature.
B) having legs longer than arms.
C) skeletal structure.
D) brain volume.
Q3) In all coelomates,the coelom develops entirely within the A) endoderm.
B) mesoderm.
C) ectoderm.
D) mesoglea.
Q4) Animals in which the anus develops before the mouth in the embryo are A) coelomic.
B) protostomes.
C) deuterostomes.
D) pseudocoelomates.
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Populations and Communities
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Q1) A snake that has evolved to look similar to a branch will probably be able to avoid
A) predation.
B) parasitism.
C) competition.
D) mutualism.
E) the sun's rays.
Q2) _____________ species avoid competition by living in different portions of the habitat or using different resources.
A) Sympatric
B) Allopatric
C) Co-evolved
D) Predator
Q3) In most species,populations that are characteristic of a particular biome are found wherever that biome occurs in the world.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which organism is more likely to go extinct-one with a specialized,narrow niche or one with a broad,generalized niche? Explain your answer.
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Chapter 20: Ecosystems
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Q1) Which part of the lake contains numerous bacteria and wormlike organisms that consume dead debris?
A) Profundal zone
B) Limnetic zone
C) Littoral zone
D) Fundal zone
Q2) Characterized by permafrost and low,shrubby plants,_______ can be found nearest the poles.
A) tundra
B) taiga
C) temperate deciduous forests
D) chaparral
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a component of the physical habitat in which organisms live?
A) Rocks
B) Water
C) Wind
D) Bacteria
Q4) How have humans intruded into the global water cycle?
Q5) Why do food chains rarely have more than three or four steps,or links?
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Chapter 21: Behavior and the Environment
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Q1) When Pavlov's dog salivated after hearing a bell,this is called
A) operant conditioning.
B) classical conditioning.
C) nonassociative learning.
D) habituation.
Q2) Behavior can be defined as the way an animal responds to a ________ in its environment.
Q3) When Green sea turtles travel over 1400 miles of open ocean to the Ascension Island,they are exhibiting
A) map sense.
B) compass sense.
C) timely sense.
D) direction sense.
Q4) Discuss optimal foraging theory.
Q5) The appearance of an egg outside of a goose's nest is called A) an innate releasing mechanism.
B) a fixed action pattern.
C) imprinting.
D) sign stimulus.
Q6) Discuss the difference between home range and territory.
Page 23
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Chapter 22: How Human Influence the Living World
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Q1) Ecosystems that have undergone fragmentation may have their fragmented habitats reconnected by _____________ extending between fragments.
A) preserves
B) home ranges
C) suboptimal habitats
D) corridors
Q2) The amount of productive land required to support an individual at the standard of living of a particular population is called an ecological ______________.
Q3) Acid rain can lead to the destruction of
A) trees.
B) fish.
C) aquatic invertebrates
D) All of these choices are correct.
Q4) Humans have been able to expand the _____________ of environments in which they live.
Q5) Damage to an ecosystem usually has only local effects.
A)True
B)False
Q6) How might the aesthetic value of biodiversity relate to economic value?
Page 24
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Chapter 23: The Animal Body and How It Moves
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Q1) Muscle cells are unique because of the contractible protein fibers,called ______________________,within them.
A) tropomyosin
B) sarcoplasmic reticulum
C) myofilaments
D) collagen fibers
Q2) Which body system covers the body and includes skin,hair,and nails?
A) Integumentary
B) Endocrine
C) Skeletal
D) Circulatory
E) Digestive
Q3) Cuboidal epithelium is found in the A) glands.
B) mouth.
C) stomach.
D) capillary walls.
Q4) The special type of muscle found only in the heart is called __________ muscle.
Q5) When the _________________ muscle of the leg contracts,the lower leg is moved closer to the thigh.
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Chapter 24: Circulation
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Q1) Which type of blood cell mainly defends against parasites?
A) Erythrocytes
B) Neutrophil
C) Eosinophil
D) Basophil
E) Monocyte
Q2) Which of these is not a characteristic of an open circulatory system?
A) Found in mollusks and arthropods
B) Contains hemolymph
C) There is no distinction between blood and extracellular fluid
D) Blood is enclosed within blood vessels
Q3) Which animal has a gastrovascular cavity?
A) Flatworms,such as Planaria
B) Mollusks,such as clams
C) Vertebrates,such as fish
D) Arthropods,like insects
Q4) _________________ are tiny blood vessels leading away from capillaries to veins.
Q5) All vertebrates have a closed circulatory system.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 25: Respiration
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Q1) The air pressure in the lungs is reduced when the volume of the lungs is reduced.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which mineral in hemoglobin binds oxygen in a reversible way?
A) Nitrogen
B) Calcium
C) Iron
D) Zinc
E) Sodium
Q3) A mixture of lipoprotein molecules called ____________________ reduces surface tension and prevents the alveoli from collapsing.
Q4) Which of the following is incorrect concerning hemoglobin?
A) Hemoglobin is made of amino acids.
B) Hemoglobin is made inside red blood cells.
C) Hemoglobin never leaves red blood cells.
D) Hemoglobin can bind to carbon dioxide.
E) Hemoglobin is composed of 3 protein chain subunits.
Q5) Why is smoking cigarettes so dangerous to human health?
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Chapter 26: The Path of Food Through the Animal Body
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Q1) Which animal has a multi-chambered stomach?
A) Rabbit
B) Cow
C) Horse
D) Insect
E) Fish
Q2) Explain why birds do not need teeth to "chew."
Q3) Food moves through the digestive system with the aid of ______________,special muscular contractions of the food tube.
Q4) Pepsinogen is made by ________ cells of the _________.
A) Langerhans;pancreas
B) bile;liver
C) parietal;stomach
D) chief;stomach
E) mucous;large intestine
Q5) Humans cannot synthesize certain amino acids and must obtain them in the diet.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Heterotrophs that are meat eaters are termed ____________.
Q7) Determine your BMI and explain its meaning.
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Chapter 27: Maintaining the Internal Environment
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Q1) Which simple excretory structure is present in the flatworm?
A) Malpighian tubules
B) Nephridia
C) Nephron
D) Protonephridia
Q2) Which organ detects and responds to changes in blood glucose levels?
A) Liver
B) Gallbladder
C) Thymus
D) Pancreas
E) Thyroid
Q3) Mammals and birds can produce urine that is ____________,such that wastes are excreted in a small volume of water.
A) isotonic
B) hypertonic
C) hypotonic
Q4) Filtrate passes through the proximal tubule of the nephron before the distal tubule.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 28: How the Body Defends Itself
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Q1) Which proteins puncture the membranes of infected target cells?
A) Interleukin-2
B) MHC proteins
C) Complement proteins
D) Interleukin-1
E) Perforins
Q2) Which of the following cells do not kill cells directly?
A) B cells
B) T cells
C) Macrophages
D) Neutrophils
Q3) Why is AIDS such a deadly disease?
A) Because it is caused by a virus.
B) Because they have not isolated the virus yet that causes AIDS.
C) Because the virus cripples the immune system.
D) The body does not recognize the virus as foreign.
E) It is a sexually transmitted virus.
Q4) Explain why relatives are sought for kidney transplants.
Q5) The virus that causes AIDS is the called _______________.
Q6) Why does the body often respond to an infection with a fever?
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Chapter 29: The Nervous System
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Q1) The _________________ is a network of nerves running through several areas of the brain,and is responsible for sleep and wakefulness.
A) limbic system
B) brain stem
C) medulla oblongata
D) reticular formation
Q2) Much of the thought that occurs in the thinking portion of the brain occurs in the gray outer layer called the ______________.
Q3) Describe the condition of a neuron when it is not transmitting a nervous impulse,that is,when it is at rest.
Q4) Which part of the brain controls balance and coordination?
A) Medulla oblongata
B) Hypothalamus
C) Amygdala
D) Occipital lobe
E) Cerebellum
Q5) The sensory receptors that sense changes in the body's internal environment are called _______________.
Q6) Compare the sympathetic nervous system with the parasympathetic nervous system.
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Chapter 30: Chemical Signaling Within the Animal Body
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Q1) In this disease,the numbers of insulin receptors on target cells are abnormally low.
A) Goiter
B) Type II diabetes
C) Type I diabetes
D) Gallbladder disease
Q2) What are the three advantages of using hormones as messengers rather than nerves to control bodily processes?
Q3) The ____________ gland is a shield-shaped gland in the neck that produces thyroxine and calcitonin.
Q4) ____________ regulates the kidney's retention of water.Its secretion is suppressed by alcohol.
A) Prolactin
B) Oxytocin
C) Thyroxin
D) Vasopressin (ADH)
Q5) _______________ is the hormone released by the pancreas to lower levels of glucose in the blood.
Q6) Peptide hormones employ ______________ that amplify the response of the cell.
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Chapter 31: Reproduction and Development
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Q1) Choose the most effective means of birth control from the following list.
A) Condom
B) Birth control pill
C) Diaphragm
D) Spermicidal foam
Q2) Which hormone,secreted by the embryo,is tested for in all pregnancy tests?
A) Luteinizing hormone
B) Follicle-stimulating hormone
C) Progesterone
D) Estrogen
E) Human chorionic gonadotropin
Q3) The layer of cells called the endoderm in the developing embryo eventually gives rise to
A) epidermis and nervous system.
B) connective tissue and muscle.
C) the lining of the digestive system and associated organs.
D) hair and nails.
Q4) The downy hair that covers the fetus in the fifth month of development is known as
Q5) Compare and contrast hemaphoditism with asexual reproduction.
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Chapter 32: Plant Form and Function
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Q1) In woody plants,a layer called the ____________ consists of the cork,cork cambium,and a layer of parenchyma cells.
Q2) Just beneath the upper epidermis of a leaf is one or more layers of closely packed column-like cells,called
A) palisade mesophyll.
B) the cuticle.
C) stipules.
D) spongy mesophyll.
Q3) The two principal types of conducting cells in the xylem are _________ and ________.
A) tracheids;vessel elements
B) sieve tubes;companion cells
C) sieve cells;sieve tube members
D) guard cells;tracheids
E) protoderm cells;pericycle cells
Q4) The movement of water up through a plant is a passive process that requires no energy expenditure by the plant.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 33: Plant Reproduction and Growth
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Q1) What is the mechanism by which synthetic auxins are routinely used to control weeds?
A) They cause weeds to grow so fast they reduce their ATP production so no energy is left for other essential plant functions.
B) They disrupt the plasma membrane of plant cells causing them to leak and die.
C) They interfere with protein synthesis in the cell.
D) They interfere with DNA synthesis in the cell.
E) They cause the plant cell wall to disintegrate.
Q2) In order to delay the ripening of tomatoes,the gene for this hormone has been disrupted in genetically engineered tomatoes.
A) Gibberellin
B) Auxin
C) Cytokinin
D) Abscisic acid
E) Ethylene
Q3) When pollen from a flower's anther pollinates the same flower's stigma,the process is called _____________________.
Q4) Describe how adventitious plantlets form.
Q5) Give an example of a wind-pollinated plant._____________________
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