Biological Systems
Mock Exam
Course Introduction
This course explores the fundamental principles and organization of biological systems, examining life from molecules and cells to organisms, populations, and ecosystems. Students will study the structure and function of major biomolecules, cellular processes, genetics, homeostasis, and the interaction of biological components in complex networks. Emphasis is placed on understanding how biological systems maintain balance, respond to external stimuli, and evolve over time. The course integrates concepts from molecular biology, physiology, ecology, and evolution, providing a foundational framework for further study in biology and related disciplines.
Recommended Textbook
Human Physiology An Integrated Approach 7th Edition by Silverthorn
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A horse runs 10 races, each a mile long, during a 6-month period, and you are interested in determining if the horse's race time changes with experience.You set up a graph to display the race finish times of this horse. What would the labels be for the graph axes?
Answer: The x-axis is race number or date; the y-axis is finish time in minutes.
Q2) What is the difference between a peer-reviewed article and a review article?
Answer: A peer-reviewed article describes original research by one author (or group of authors working together) that has gone through a screening process in which a panel of qualified scientists evaluate the work.A review article is a summary (usually a collection of published research that was previously peer-reviewed, usually from more than one independent lab) that discusses a particular topic in the field.
Q3) Write a teleological explanation for why heart rate increases during exercise.Now write a mechanistic explanation for the same phenomenon.
Answer: Teleological: Heart rate increases because the increased activity of skeletal and cardiac muscles requires increased delivery of blood contents such as oxygen and glucose.Mechanistic: Heart rate increases in response to signals from the brain (pacemaker cells of the heart are stimulated by the nervous system).
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Chapter 2: Molecular Interactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A.Distinguish between the mass of a molecule and the mass of a mole, using NaCl in your example.
B.Calculate the mass of a mole of NaCl in g, using the mass of one Da (amu).
C.Calculate the mass of a dozen NaCl molecules, a dozen donuts, and a mole of donuts, assuming a 30 gram donut.
Answer: A.The mass of a molecule is determined by the mass of its component atoms.From the periodic table, the mass of Na is 23 amu and of Cl is nearly 36 amu, so the mass of one molecule of NaCl is 59 Da.A mole is like a dozen, i.e., it is a particular number of items, specifically 6.02 × 10²³.
B.A mole of NaCl = 59 Da × 6.02 × 10²³ = 3.55 × 10² Da.
1 Da = 1.66 × 10 ² kg, so 3.55 × 10² Da × 1.66 × 10 ² kg/Da × 1000 g/kg = 59 g.
C.A dozen NaCl molecules: 12 × 59 Da × 1.66 × 10 ² kg/Da × 1000 g/kg = 1.2 × 10 ²¹ g. A dozen donuts: 12 × 30 g = 360 g.A mole of donuts: 6.02 × 10²³ × 30 g = 1.8 × 10² g.
Q2) What is the pH of a 0.005 M HCl solution? Assume complete dissociation.
Answer: pH = 2.3.If pH = - log [H ] and HCl is a strong acid, we can assume complete dissociation will occur in solution.
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Chapter 3: Compartmentation: Cells and Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) This type of epithelia actively and selectively regulates the exchange of nongaseous material, such as ions and nutrients, and can be regulated in response to various stimuli.
A) exchange
B) transport
C) ciliated
D) protective
E) secretory
Answer: B
Q2) The nucleus stores all the information needed to synthesize which of the following molecules?
A) carbohydrates
B) lipids
C) proteins
D) phospholipids
E) All of the answers are correct.
Answer: E
Q3) Sketch a cell membrane.Label at least three components and briefly explain what each one does.
Answer: See Figure 3.2
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Chapter 4: Energy and Cellular Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Regulatory-protein transcription factors bind to ________ and activate ________, which tells the RNA polymerase ________.
Q2) Once the promoter region of a gene is activated, ________ unwinds the DNA of the downstream gene and begins the process of ________.What is the molecule generated by this process? How does the cell control the amount of this molecule released from the nucleus?
Q3) The tRNA molecule contains the three-base sequence called the A) codon.
B) anticodon.
C) semicodon.
D) aminocodon.
Q4) How would the lack of a required cofactor for an enzyme affect that enzyme's function?
A) The enzyme's function would not be altered.
B) The enzyme would function more slowly.
C) The enzyme would function more quickly.
D) The enzyme would not be able to function.
Q5) mRNA is created in a process called ________.It then leaves the ________ and enters the cytosol to direct ________, the assembly of amino acids into protein.
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Chapter 5: Membrane Dynamics
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Sample Questions
Q1) movement from the extracellular fluid into the lumen of an organ
A)secretion
B)paracellular transport
C)transcellular transport
D)Absorption
Q2) What are the two extracellular fluid compartments in the body?
A) intracellular and plasma
B) plasma and interstitial
C) interstitial and intracellular
D) plasma and the fluid portion of the blood
E) None of the answers are correct.
Q3) The ability of a carrier molecule to transport only one specific molecule or a group of closely related molecules is called ________.
Q4) any value other than 0 mV, regardless of relationship to resting potential
A)electrical polarization
B)hyperpolarization
C)depolarization
D)repolarization
E)more than one of the answers
Q5) The two extracellular compartments in the body are ________ and ________.
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Chapter 6: Communication, Integration, and Homeostasis
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Sample Questions
Q1) The binding of lipophilic messengers, such as steroid hormones, to their receptors triggers
A) adenylyl cyclase activation.
B) cyclic nucleotide formation.
C) G protein inhibition.
D) gene transcription.
E) protein kinase activation.
Q2) "Too much of a good thing can hurt you." "It's all good." We've all heard phrases like this, and know that they contain some truth.For example, both life essentials water and sunshine can harm us.Not enough cholesterol in the body is worse than too much.What otherwise poisonous gas has recently been shown to be a signal molecule? What does it do in the body?
Q3) All molecules secreted by nerve cells (neuromodulators, neurotransmitters, and neurohormones)are known as ________.
Q4) ________ can be caused by alterations in receptors or by problems with G protein or second messenger pathways.
Q5) A physiological parameter which is regulated in an up-down fashion by signals that are always present but change in intensity is said to be under ________.
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Chapter 7: Introduction to the Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A ________ is a problem with one of the tissues producing trophic hormones.
Q2) List and explain two ways hormones affect their targets.
Q3) There are two forms of diabetes: diabetes mellitus (lack of insulin regulation of cellular uptake of glucose)and diabetes insipidus (lack of regulation of water loss in the urine by the hormone antidiuretic hormone or ADH).In each case, there are two similar explanations for the resulting pathology.What are they? (Hint: Consider general principles of hormone action.)
Q4) Explain the concept of evolutionary conservation of hormone activity, and how recognition of that phenomenon has influenced hormone therapies.
Q5) When a catecholamine or peptide hormone binds to receptors on the surface of a cell,
A) the cell membrane becomes less permeable.
B) a second messenger appears in the cytoplasm.
C) the cell becomes inactive.
D) the hormone is transported to the nucleus where it alters the activity of DNA.
E) None of the answers are correct.
Q6) What normally stops hormone action, and why is this important?
Q7) The outer layer of the adrenal gland is called the ________.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Neurons: Cellular and Network Properties
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Sample Questions
Q1) To increase the amount of neurotransmitter released onto a postsynaptic cell, the presynaptic cell would have to
A) send action potentials with higher voltage (higher amplitude).
B) send action potentials with longer durations.
C) send action potentials with higher frequency.
D) do nothing; no change is possible since the all-or-none law is in effect.
Q2) The inhibitory neurotransmitters of the CNS, GABA and glycine, act by opening ________ channels.
A) only Na
B) only Cl
C) only K
D) only Ca²
E) Na and K
Q3) Explain the differences in axon regeneration in the CNS and PNS, and the implications for recovery from injury.What experiments might scientists try based on these differences?
Q4) At a(n)________ synapse, a neurotransmitter is released to affect the postsynaptic cell.
Q5) The gaps between adjacent Schwann cells on an axon are called ________.
Page 10
Q6) What is a channelopathy, and what are some examples?
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Chapter 9: The Central Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The brain area acknowledged as the center for emotions is the
A) amygdala.
B) hypothalamus.
C) suprachiasmatic nucleus.
D) pons.
E) cerebellum.
Q2) Ginger was a happy, healthy 17-year-old girl.One day while sitting at the kitchen table with her family, she looked up with an odd expression, complained that her head hurt, dropped her fork, and fell off her chair as she lost consciousness.Her father caught her before her head hit the floor.Ginger regained consciousness at the hospital, where it was determined that she had suffered from a ruptured brain aneurysm.An aneurysm results when a blood vessel wall becomes progressively thinner and weaker, and can ultimately rupture, depriving of blood the areas it normally supplies.Sometimes permanent brain damage results.Ginger seems to have all of her normal functions and cognitive abilities, except she cannot see.What areas did the ruptured blood vessel possibly supply with blood? If instead of blindness she could see normally but control of eye movement was abnormal, what areas may have been damaged by loss of blood?
Q3) Explain neural plasticity in the brain, in the context of recovery from injury.
Q4) Do the terms vertebral column and spinal cord mean the same thing? Explain.
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Chapter 10: Sensory Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) conductive hearing loss
A)damage to the cerebral cortex
B)degeneration of hair cells
C)ringing in the ears
D)dizziness and nausea
E)problems with structures of the middle ear
Q2) Which structures monitor rotational acceleration of the head?
A) cristae of the semicircular canals
B) maculae of the saccule only
C) maculae of the utricle only
D) maculae of the utricle and saccule
Q3) flutter
A)free nerve ending
B)Merkel receptor
C)Meissner's corpuscle
D)Ruffini corpuscle
E)Pacinian corpuscle
Q4) A ________ is a single energy packet of visible light.
Q5) Discuss the gate control theory of pain modulation.
Q6) Gustatory receptors are clustered in individual ________.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Efferent Division: Autonomic and Somatic Motor Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) To perform surgery with a minimum of pain for the patient and hassle for the surgeon, a patient may be administered a general anesthetic to prevent sensation and consciousness, as well as a paralytic to prevent reflexive muscle spasms.From what you have learned of motor control, suggest mechanisms by which a paralytic can prevent muscle contraction.With paralytics, what extra measure must be taken to keep the patient alive? Name such a paralytic agent.
Q2) On average, one preganglionic neuron synapses with eight or nine postganglionic neurons, each innervating a different target.
A)True only for the sympathetic division
B)True only for the parasympathetic division
C)True for both divisions
Q3) ________ postganglionic sympathetic neurons secrete ________ onto their target cells.
A) All, norepinephrine
B) Most, norepinephrine
C) All, acetylcholine
D) Most, acetylcholine
Q4) The signal molecule ________ elicits the stronger response from alpha receptors.
Q5) Cholinergic muscarinic receptors are found at the ________ in the ANS.
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Chapter 12: Muscles
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Sample Questions
Q1) The binding of acetylcholine to its receptor at the neuromuscular junction causes the opening of a
A) Na channel.
B) channel for both Na and K .
C) calcium channel.
D) ryanodine receptor.
Q2) Define and explain the differences between slow wave potentials and pacemaker potentials in smooth muscle cells.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a correct comparison of cardiac myocytes to other muscle cell types?
A) Like smooth muscle cells, some cardiac myocytes have pacemaker potentials.
B) Like some smooth muscle cells, cardiac myocytes are electrically coupled.
C) Like skeletal muscle cells, actin and myosin are organized into sarcomeres.
D) Like skeletal muscle, contraction of cardiac muscle is under autonomic nervous control.
E) Like smooth muscle cells, cardiac muscle is under hormonal control.
Q4) The gap junctions in cardiac muscle are part of specialized cell junctions that are localized to the ________.
Q5) Describe the process of relaxation of a skeletal muscle fiber.
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Chapter 13: Integrative Physiology I: Control of Body Movement
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Sample Questions
Q1) The tension maintained in a muscle at rest is known as ________.
Q2) Muscle spindles are ________ receptors and cause reflex ________, whereas Golgi tendon organs respond primarily to ________ and cause a ________ reflex.
Q3) The control of voluntary movement can be divided into what three steps?
Q4) It is the middle of winter and you walk over an icy patch and lose your balance.As you begin to fall, you react by extending your arms to catch yourself.In this instance, what type of reflex is occurring?
A) stretch reflex
B) tendon reflex
C) flexor reflex
D) crossed extensor reflex
E) reciprocal reflex
Q5) Draw a diagram of the cerebral motor cortex and descending input to spinal motor neurons.Voluntary suppression of the knee jerk reflex originates in the motor cortex, which can send inhibitory signals to the motor neurons.If the left motor cortex is active, is the left or right knee jerk reflex suppressed or are both suppressed? Explain your answer.If the left side of the spinal cord at the level of leg muscle control is damaged, is it the left or right knee jerk reflex that is suppressed or are both suppressed?
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Chapter 14: Cardiovascular Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The resting membrane potential is ________ for skeletal muscle and ________ for contractile myocardium.It is ________ for autorhythmic myocardium.
Q2) A person has a total blood volume of 5 L.Of this total, 4 liters is contained in the systemic circulation and 1 L in the pulmonary circulation.If the person has a cardiac output of 5 L/min:
A.how long will it take for a drop of blood leaving the left ventricle to return to the heart?
B.how long will it take a drop of blood to go from the right ventricle to the left ventricle?
Q3) A heart rate of 125 beats per minute could be correctly termed A) bradycardia.
B) tachycardia.
C) an arrhythmia.
D) fibrillation.
E) a normal resting heart rate.
Q4) A chronotropic agent is one that affects the heart rate.Compare and contrast this term with an inotropic agent.Give specific examples of each.
Q5) A resting heart rate of less than 60 beats per minute is identified as ________.
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Chapter 15: Blood Flow and the Control of Blood Pressure
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Sample Questions
Q1) Reactive hyperemia is
A) lack of blood flow due to an allergic reaction.
B) increased blood flow following a period of reduced blood flow.
C) increased blood pressure after stress.
D) reflex contraction of smooth muscle in response to stress.
E) None of the answers are correct.
Q2) Calculate the pulse pressure for each example listed.
A.a person with a blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg
B.a person with a blood pressure of 130/95 mm Hg
Q3) Restoring lost fluid from the capillaries back to the circulatory system is one of the major functions of the ________ system.
A) urinary
B) thirst-quenching
C) lymphatic
D) immune
E) digestive
Q4) The decrease in blood pressure upon standing is known as ________.
Q5) Because the suffix "itis" means ________, swelling of the lower extremities due to blockage of lymph flow is NOT called ________-itis; rather it is called ________.
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Chapter 16: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain how anticoagulant drugs can be useful to heart attack or stroke patients.
Q2) In healthy adults, blood cell production occurs only in the ________.
Q3) genetic condition resulting in crescent moon-shaped red blood cells
A)hereditary spherocytosis
B)polycythemia vera
C)iron-deficiency anemia
D)sickle cell disease
E)anemia
Q4) Mike has classical hemophilia, a clotting disorder, but his case is considered "mild." Contrary to popular belief, Mike doesn't usually have problematic bleeding episodes related to cutting himself; a more severe problem for him would be brought on by a sprained ankle or by having a full body impact, like falling off a horse and landing hard on the ground, injuries considered "closed." With what you have learned about blood coagulation, can you explain how this could be so? Assuming Mike is lacking factor VIII, which pathways does he depend on?
Q5) Summarize the steps of hemostasis.
Q6) Name the five types of white blood cells.Which type develops into macrophages? Which white blood cells are collectively known as phagocytes and why?
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Chapter 17: Mechanics of Breathing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Breathing that involves active inspiratory and expiratory movements is called
A) eupnea.
B) hyperpnea.
C) diaphragmatic breathing.
D) costal breathing.
E) shallow breathing.
Q2) Which of the following features of the alveolar sacs allows for the ease of diffusion of gasses?
A) They are made of a single layer of simple squamous epithelium.
B) Type II alveolar cells secrete surfactant.
C) Elastin fibers allow the alveoli to stretch thin enough for diffusion to occur.
D) They are made of a single layer of simple squamous epithelium and elastin fibers allow the alveoli to stretch thin enough for diffusion to occur.
Q3) Bronchioles and systemic arterioles constrict.
A)PO increases.
B)PCO increases.
C)PO decreases.
D)PCO decreases.
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19
Chapter 18: Gas Exchange and Transport
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Sample Questions
Q1) fluid accumulation in interstitial spaces
A)fibrotic lung disease
B)emphysema
C)asthma
D)pulmonary edema
Q2) Which is typically more important in regulating the respiratory system, PO or PCO ?
Explain your answer and briefly discuss the receptors involved.Give examples of situations in which each of those factors changes enough to stimulate a reflex.How and why are these factors related to each other?
Q3) Of the factors that influence diffusion of respiratory gases, the most variable and, therefore, important factor to consider is the
A) concentration gradient.
B) diffusion distance.
C) membrane surface area.
D) membrane thickness.
E) electrical charge.
Q4) ________ is characterized by a thickened alveolar membrane, slowing respiratory gas exchange.
Q5) Name three pathological changes that adversely affect gas exchange.
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Chapter 19: The Kidneys
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Sample Questions
Q1) Damage to the renal medulla would interfere first with the functioning of the A) Bowman's capsule.
B) distal tubule.
C) collecting ducts.
D) proximal tubule.
E) glomerulus.
Q2) Technically, the kidneys are located
A) in the thoracic cavity.
B) in the abdominal cavity.
C) behind the pleural membranes.
D) behind the peritoneal membrane.
E) in the pelvic cavity.
Q3) Make a map of the following terms: blood, Bowman's capsule, collecting duct, distal tubule, excretion, external environment, filtration, loop of Henle, lumen, osmosis, peritubular capillaries, proximal tubule, urine, water.Add terms as needed.
Q4) Neural control of GFR is mediated by ________ that innervate ________ receptors on vascular smooth muscle causing ________.
Q5) The excretion of glucose in the urine is called ________.
Q6) Describe GFR autoregulation, and explain why it is important.
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Integrative Physiology II: Fluid and Electrolyte Balance
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Q1) Which of the following is most likely to be observed in a patient with compensated respiratory alkalosis?
A) respiratory rate increases
B) tidal volume increases
C) kidneys conserve bicarbonate
D) kidneys secrete fewer hydrogen ions
E) body retains less carbon dioxide
Q2) Why is sodium actively reabsorbed in the nephron?
A) to decrease osmolarity inside the nephron
B) to make urine less concentrated
C) to increase passive reabsorption of water
D) to decrease blood pressure
Q3) If sodium increases in the ECF, water will move from
A) cells to the ECF, and cells will swell.
B) the ECF to cells, and cells will swell.
C) cells to the ECF, and cells will shrink.
D) the ECF to cells, and cells will shrink.
Q4) Kidneys respond relatively ________ to changes in blood volume.
A) slowly
B) quickly
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Chapter 21: The Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A possible treatment for Salmonella could involve
A) increasing macrophages.
B) increasing lymphocytes.
C) blocking M cell receptors.
D) activating cytokine receptors.
Q2) Fat digestion begins here.
A)mouth
B)stomach
C)rectum
D)small intestine
E)large intestine
Q3) basolateral transporter for ionized iron
A)ezetimibe
B)ferroportin
C)hepcidin
D)DMT1
E)NPC1L1
Q4) Defects in which channel lead to the disease cystic fibrosis? Which ion does this channel transport?
Q5) What would be the nutritional consequence of excessive antacid use?
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Metabolism and Energy Balance
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Q1) After ingestion of carbohydrates in an insulin-deficient diabetic, ________ would happen.
A) protein degradation
B) fat synthesis
C) ketone production
D) glycolysis
E) protein degradation and ketone production
Q2) synthesis of tissues
A)carbohydrate
B)protein
C)fat
Q3) During the absorptive state,
A) the liver forms glycogen.
B) adipocytes contribute fatty acids to the circulation.
C) skeletal muscles break down glycogen.
D) glucagon levels are elevated.
E) All of these answers are correct.
Q4) Chemicals known as ________ are fever-producing cytokines that are part of the normal immune response.
Q5) ________ is the direct transfer of heat energy from one object to another.
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Endocrine Control of Growth and Metabolism
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Q1) Pendrin is an anion transporter important in the production of A) parathyroid hormone.
B) calcitonin.
C) TRH.
D) TSH.
E) thyroid hormone.
Q2) The Thyroid hormones T and T are lipophilic so they do not require transporters to cross cell membranes.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What are the three common causes of hypercortisolism?
Q4) GH
A) is secreted by the anterior pituitary.
B) is secreted by the posterior pituitary.
C) binds to a plasma protein.
D) is secreted by the anterior pituitary and binds to a plasma protein.
E) is secreted by the posterior pituitary and binds to a plasma protein.
Q5) Carl is suffering from hypothyroidism.How could his physician determine if his symptoms result from problems at the level of the hypothalamus and pituitary or at the level of the gland itself?
Page 25
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Chapter 24: The Immune System
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Q1) Molecules that attract immune cells are known as
A) interferons.
B) lysozymes.
C) antigens.
D) opsonins.
E) chemotaxins.
Q2) Class II MHC molecules are found
A) on all cells with a nucleus.
B) only on red blood cells.
C) only on granulocytes and macrophages.
D) only on lymphocytes and macrophages.
E) only on liver cells and macrophages in the spleen.
Q3) These cells are related to mast cells, and both release chemical mediators such as histamine and heparin, which aid in the immune response.
A)lymphocytes
B)neutrophils
C)monocytes
D)eosinophils
E)basophils
Q4) Draw a concept map illustrating the immune response to bacterial infection.
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Chapter 25: Integrative Physiology III: Exercise
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Q1) With acclimatization, the body begins to do a better job of conserving
A) water only.
B) heat only.
C) salt only.
D) water and heat only.
E) water, heat, and salt.
Q2) With endurance training, muscle mitochondria increase in A) size only.
B) number only.
C) size and number.
D) neither size nor number.
Q3) percent fat metabolized for ATP production as exercise intensity increases
A)increase
B)decrease
C)no change
Q4) Explain the advantages and disadvantages of glycolytic metabolism.
Q5) In resistance exercise, such as strength training, muscles rely heavily on ________ energy production.
A) anaerobic
B) aerobic
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Chapter 26: Reproduction and Development
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Q1) ________ decreases ovarian follicle sensitivity to FSH.
A) Progesterone
B) Estrogen
C) GnRH
D) LH
E) Anti-Müllerian hormone
Q2) Which of the following is responsible for the cessation of reproductive cycles in women?
A) The hypothalamus no longer produces gonadotropin releasing hormone.
B) The anterior pituitary no longer produces lutenizing hormone.
C) The ovaries no longer produce estrogen.
D) The ovaries are unable to respond to lutenizing hormone or follicle stimulating hormone.
E) The ovaries no longer produce progesterone.
Q3) List the components of the uterus, including the layers of the wall.Briefly explain the function of each.
Q4) What seems to be the most likely hormone that we could use as a male contraceptive pill? Explain.
Q5) Why is the scrotum, the sac that contains the testes, located outside of the body?
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 28