Biological Sciences
Question Bank
Course Introduction
Biological Sciences is an interdisciplinary field that explores the structure, function, growth, origin, evolution, and distribution of living organisms. This course examines the fundamental principles governing life at the molecular, cellular, organismal, and ecosystem levels. Students will gain a comprehensive understanding of topics such as genetics, ecology, physiology, and the evolutionary processes that shape biodiversity. Laboratory and fieldwork experiences enhance theoretical knowledge, enabling students to apply scientific methods, analyze experimental data, and develop critical thinking skills essential for careers in research, healthcare, environmental management, and biotechnology.
Recommended Textbook
Discover Biology 6th Core Edition by Anu Singh
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Nature of Science and the Characteristics of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Because the California sea lions that live along the Pacific Coast freely migrate and regularly interbreed with one another,biologists classify this group as a ________.
Answer: population
Q2) The basic unit of life is the
A) cell.
B) organ.
C) organelle.
D) tissue.
Answer: A
Q3) All living organisms share a unity in their characteristics because they A) are all multicellular.
B) are all producers.
C) have been stable and unchanging throughout time.
D) descended from a common ancestor.
Answer: D
Q4) Experimentation is the primary means that verifies or refutes the ________ made by a hypothesis.
Answer: predictions
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Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) An oil is a lipid that is ________ at room temperature.
A) liquid
B) saturated
C) supersaturated
D) solid
Answer: A
Q2) Macromolecules are typically formed by repetitively adding small monomers together; which macromolecule is properly matched with the appropriate monomer?
A) polypeptide-amino acid
B) nucleic acid-amino acid
C) polysaccharide-nucleotide
D) triglyceride-cholesterol
Answer: A
Q3) The monomers that are linked together to form a DNA polymer are called ________.
Answer: nucleotides
Q4) The atoms in water molecules are held together by hydrogen bonds.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Internal Compartments
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nucleolus is
A) the region of the cell where chromosomes are found.
B) the name of the double layer of membranes that forms the boundary of the nucleus.
C) the region of the nucleus where ribosome production begins.
D) a piece of DNA wrapped around proteins.
Answer: C
Q2) The microfilaments that allow cells to move contain the protein ________. Answer: actin
Q3) Membrane-enclosed structures in eukaryotic cells are called ________. Answer: organelles
Q4) The light-capturing pigments of photosynthesis like chlorophyll are contained in the membrane of a structure known as a(n)
A) pore.
B) envelope.
C) crista.
D) thylakoid.
Answer: D
Q5) The ________ endoplasmic reticulum is covered with ribosomes. Answer: rough
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Chapter 4: Cell Membranes, Transport, and Communication
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Q1) Signaling molecules can be "tagged" by attaching glow-in-the-dark molecules to them.After adding tagged signaling molecules to the fluid around several cells,you observe the cells with a microscope designed to see the glow-in-the-dark molecules.After a few minutes,you notice that the plasma membrane of some of the cells begins to glow.This observation indicates that some cells
A) have more dense plasma membranes than others.
B) have receptors for the signaling molecule.
C) have no active carrier proteins for the signaling molecules.
D) block the signaling molecules by repelling them.
Q2) Animal cells are attached to neighboring cells by all of the following,EXCEPT A) anchoring junctions.
B) gap junctions.
C) tight junctions.
D) plasmodesmata.
Q3) When the solute concentration outside a cell is equal to the solute concentration inside the cell,the cell is in a(n)________ solution.
Q4) The signaling molecules that interact with cell surface receptors cannot cross the plasma membrane and would generally be classified as large and/or________.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Energy, Metabolism, and Enzymes
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Q1) All molecules have a combination of kinetic energy and potential energy.If an external heat source were used to increase the kinetic energy of a group of molecules,the group's potential energy would
A) decline, because the sum of kinetic energy and potential energy always equals 100 percent.
B) be unaffected, because no changes in the bonding pattern of the molecules would take place.
C) also increase, because potential energy and kinetic energy are directly proportional to each other.
D) decrease, because the potential energy is inversely proportional to the kinetic energy.
Q2) In the chemical reaction C H O + 6 O 6 CO + 6 H O,the 6 CO molecules are some of A) substrates.
B) products.
C) enzymes. D) reactants.
Q3) When chemical energy is converted into kinetic energy in a biological system,________ of the available energy is converted.
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Chapter 6: Photo Synthesis and Cellular Respiration
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Q1) Glycolysis is an anaerobic process,which means that glycolytic reactions
A) require no oxygen.
B) produce molecular oxygen.
C) produce ATP.
D) produce citric acid.
Q2) The light reactions in photosynthesis result in three output products: molecular oxygen,ATP,and ________.
Q3) NAD becomes NADH when it gains one proton and two high-energy ________.
Q4) Plants that live in very dry regions where they are subject to the dangers of extreme water loss through their stomata open their stomata only at night,when the temperature is lower and the air is not as dry.These plants are referred to as ________ plants.
Q5) Today,the pathways of photosynthesis and cellular respiration are complementary and relatively balanced,but early in the history of life on Earth,photosynthesis appears to have dominated.One piece of evidence that suggests the early dominance of photosynthesis is the
A) accumulation of atmospheric oxygen.
B) declines in historic sea levels as photosynthetic organisms consumed water.
C) gradual warming of Earth's climate as CO slowly accumulated.
D) sequestration of O in Earth's oceans.
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Chapter 7: Cell Division
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Q1) If a skin cell of an organism has 24 chromosomes,its gametes must also have 24 chromosomes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The old saying that everyone has a double is likely to be true; except for genetic mutations,the number of meiotically possible recombinations of human DNA is much smaller than the total number of people in the world.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Chromosomes are lined up at the middle of the cell during the phase of cell division called
A) metaphase.
B) anaphase.
C) telophase.
D) interphase.
Q4) The G phase of the cell cycle is distinguished by A) active preparation for DNA synthesis.
B) a doubling of chromosomes.
C) the absence of preparation for DNA synthesis.
D) the appearance of a metaphase plate.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Cancer and Human Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) In colon cancer,the complete loss of function of the p53 gene requires
A) a single mutation.
B) at least two mutations.
C) at least three mutations.
D) more than four mutations.
Q2) The cells in many late-stage precancerous polyps in the human colon usually contain
A) normal tumor suppressor genes and at least one oncogene.
B) one inactive and one active copy of a tumor suppressor gene and normal proto-oncogenes.
C) two inactive copies of a tumor suppressor gene and two proto-oncogenes.
D) two inactive copies of a tumor suppressor gene and one oncogene.
Q3) Chemotherapy frequently causes nausea because the cells that line the digestive system
A) have receptors similar to those found on tumor cells.
B) divide rapidly like tumor cells.
C) have more proto-oncogenes than other cell types.
D) produce more antibodies than other cell types.
Q4) Malignant colon cancer cells enter the bloodstream and move to the liver where they form ________ tumors.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Patterns of Inheritance
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Q1) If the influence of two alleles is fully displayed in the heterozygote without being diminished by the presence of the other allele or being suppressed by a dominant allele,the two alleles are said to be ________.
Q2) The first reaction in the chain of enzyme-catalyzed chemical reactions that convert the amino acid tyrosine into eumelanin or pheomelanin is orchestrated by an enzyme encoded by the C gene.This enzyme is called ________.
Q3) A mutation that occurs in a diploid cell can be inherited only if the
A) mutated allele is recessive.
B) mutated allele is dominant.
C) mutation occurs in a cell that produces gametes.
D) same mutation also occurs on the homologous chromosome.
Q4) Which of the following expresses Mendel's law of segregation?
A) All dominant alleles of different genes divide into different cells from the recessive alleles.
B) Two copies of a gene separate during meiosis and end up in different gametes.
C) When gametes form, the genes originally from one parent all end up in different gametes from the genes originally from the other parent.
D) Gametes with recessive alleles will only fuse with each other.
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Chapter 10: Chromosomes and Human Genetics
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Q1) Because an individual with an XX genotype is a female,is an individual with an XO (no second sex chromosome)a male?
A) No, because the X always overrides the Y and makes that embryo female.
B) No, because the Y chromosome contains the gene that makes an embryo male.
C) Yes, because if there is only one X, the embryo cannot become female.
D) Yes, because all embryos start off as males.
Q2) Human males have one chromosome that females do not,known as the ________ chromosome.
Q3) One chromosomal abnormality that is usually fatal is
A) a mutation in a gene on the chromosome.
B) the exchange of material between homologous chromosomes.
C) a change in the number of sex chromosomes.
D) the addition of an extra autosomal chromosome.
Q4) A female who is a carrier of the sex-linked gene A has the genotype ________.
Q5) Even though it is deadly,the Huntington disease allele can remain in the population,because
A) the dominant allele sometimes reverts to a recessive form.
B) it is sex-linked to the male gamete, and females do not carry the allele.
C) people with the disorder often live long enough to reproduce.
D) it is autosomal and can be masked by a codominant harmless allele.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: DNA and Genes
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Sample Questions
Q1) All cells in an organism contain a full copy of that organism's DNA.Your ears do NOT produce digestive enzymes because
A) stomach cells have extra DNA.
B) ear cells have nonfunctional DNA.
C) some DNA is deleted from cells where it is not needed.
D) different genes are expressed in different parts of an organism.
Q2) DNA is ________ [more or less] tightly packaged during interphase when most gene expression occurs.
Q3) When compared,the nucleotide sequences of different individuals are________.
Q4) When the breast cancer genes,BRCA1 and BRCA2,are mutated,damaged DNA in the cell is not corrected.Based on this information,the BRCA genes produce ________ proteins.
Q5) Once a gene is turned on,it cannot be turned off.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Translation builds DNA from an RNA template.
A)True
B)False
Q7) When the wrong base is inserted during DNA replication,a(n)________ error occurs.
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Chapter 12: From Gene to Protein
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which molecules are involved in translation?
A) DNA and RNA
B) mDNA, tDNA, and rDNA
C) mRNA, tRNA, and rRNA
D) proteins, amino acids, and DNA
Q2) Which of the following is true of rRNA?
A) It is made up of base pairs.
B) It carries amino acids.
C) It is not translated.
D) It helps transcribe DNA.
Q3) The genes that control lactose utilization (its uptake and degradation)in bacteria are arranged sequentially in the bacterial chromosome under the control of a single promoter sequence.This arrangement of genes is called a(n)
A) operator.
B) exelon.
C) operon.
D) promoton.
Q4) DNA replication involves the copying of the entire chromosome; in contrast,just a small portion of a chromosome is copied in the process of ________.
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Chapter 13: DNA Technology
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Q1) The immune disorder adenosine deaminase (ADA)deficiency is the result of a mutation in one gene.How could gene therapy be used to treat this disorder?
A) Red blood cells could be induced to produce the protein encoded by the mutated ADA gene.
B) Cells containing a corrected ADA gene could be injected into patients with ADA.
C) The patients could swallow synthetic blood cells.
D) Patients could be injected with a hybrid molecule made of the DNA and RNA of the normal ADA gene.
Q2) DNA polymerase is used in the laboratory to
A) perform gel electrophoresis procedures.
B) cure patients of certain genetic diseases.
C) make many copies of a DNA sequence.
D) attach DNA fragments to each other.
Q3) The DNA primers used in PCR are
A) identical to the entire base sequence of one strand of the DNA.
B) produced when a gene of interest is read by restriction enzymes.
C) attached to the gene of interest by ligase.
D) complementary to DNA sequences at both ends of the DNA sequence of interest.
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Chapter 14: How Evolution Works
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Q1) Humans simulate the process of natural selection when they use ________ to develop new varieties of crop plants that better meet the needs of farmers.
A) artificial selection
B) cytochrome c
C) habitat changes
D) continental drift
Q2) Biological evolution can be defined as
A) the process of direct observation.
B) adaptations to common descent.
C) the unchanging nature of life on Earth.
D) the change in allele frequencies in a population's gene pool over time.
Q3) Four mechanisms can change the composition of a population's gene pool,but only ________ does so by creating new alleles.
A) genetic drift
B) mutation
C) natural selection
D) gene flow
Q4) Plate tectonics causes the ________ of Earth's landmasses over geologic time.
Q5) ________ are the preserved remains of formerly living organisms.
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Chapter 15: The Origin of Species
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Q1) Speciation
A) can result from geographic isolation.
B) is directed.
C) occurs only in ring species.
D) reduces variation.
Q2) Currently,the biggest factor having an effect on polar bear evolution is
A) convergent evolution.
B) polyploidy.
C) rapid environmental changes.
D) recent geographic isolation.
Q3) Speciation as a result of geographic isolation generally occurs at a ________ rate than speciation as a result of polyploidy.
Q4) Vertebrates,animals with backbones,and arthropods,including insects,are only distantly related.The arthropod eye evolved independently of the vertebrate eye.Therefore,the arthropod eye and the vertebrate eye are ________ structures in relation to each other.
A) homologous
B) vestigial
C) analogous
D) hybrid
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Chapter 16: The Evolution of Biodiversity
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Q1) Two organisms that are more closely related will generally possess more homologous traits than two organisms that are more distantly related.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The first land plants ____________.
A) were descendants of fungi that developed photosynthesis
B) evolved from green algae that could already carry out photosynthesis
C) were ferns and small shrubs
D) grew from the seeds of marine plants
Q3) Which of the following groups of animals evolved the most recently?
A) invertebrates
B) amphibians
C) reptiles
D) mammals
Q4) In an evolutionary tree,a node represents the point in time when two species merged into one species.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The first single-celled organisms arose 3.5 ____________________ years ago.
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Chapter 17: Biological Diversity, Bacteria, and Archaea
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Q1) Bacteria,Archaea,and Eukarya are the three ________; they form the broadest hierarchical level in the organization of life.
Q2) Large-scale agriculture usually ________ biodiversity. A) increases B) decreases C) has no effect on D) improves
Q3) Some bacteria can cause pathology by releasing a(n)________ that kills adjacent tissues.
Q4) What do these products have in common-soy sauce,yogurt,Swiss cheese,and buttermilk?
A) All four are modified dairy products.
B) Antibiotic therapy often depresses the intestinal bacterial flora; any of the four can be used to reestablish those bacterial colonies.
C) Each is one of the better sources of protein for individuals choosing a meatless diet. D) The production of each involves bacterial fermentation.
Q5) Drugs that are produced by living organisms that are effective against bacteria,but not viruses,are known as ________.
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Protista, Plantae, and Fungi
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Q1) Fungi contribute to several important ecosystem processes; among the most important is ________ organic matter.
Q2) Which statement best summarizes the adaptive value of xylem?
A) Xylem is specialized for transporting food molecules such as sugar.
B) Xylem is the reinforcing protein that, in combination with cellulose, allows plants to grow vertically.
C) Xylem cells open and close to admit carbon dioxide into the leaf during photosynthesis.
D) Xylem is specialized for transporting water and dissolved nutrients.
Q3) A variety of bacterial or protozoan heterotrophic microorganisms associate symbiotically with specific fungi to produce a lichen.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Despite their classification as protists,the evolutionary tree suggests that amoebas and the green algae are more closely related to animals and plants,respectively,than one another.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Sexual reproduction requires the fusion of special cells called ________.
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Chapter 19: Animalia
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Q1) Fruit flies,blow flies,and black flies share a similar life history strategy; they first appear as larvae (commonly known as maggots),pupate,and eventually emerge as adult flies.This type of development is called
A) incomplete metamorphosis.
B) complete metamorphosis.
C) somatic differentiation.
D) hermaphroditic development.
Q2) The vertebrates are grouped into a lineage because all members possess an internal ________.
Q3) Relationships among the animals having body cavities can be easily determined by examination of embryonic development; vertebrates and echinoderms are grouped together because in each group,the
A) infolding that forms the body cavity eventually becomes the anus.
B) zygote divides repeatedly to become a blastula.
C) death of specific cells creates the internal hollow that eventually becomes the body cavity.
D) embryonic coelom is lined with mesodermal tissues.
Q4) Following gastrulation,most animal embryos develop three embryonic tissue layers; the endoderm forms the ________ layer.
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Chapter 20: The Biosphere
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Q1) The intertidal zone is somewhat unusual in comparison to the other aquatic biomes because
A) its primary production depends extensively on the photosynthetic output of mutualistic algae.
B) sand is one of the few aquatic substrates that regularly moves.
C) it experiences periodic submersion and exposure during the tidal cycle.
D) the mixing of salt- and freshwater moderates the temperature more so than any other aquatic habitat.
Q2) Which of these biomes typically displays the most fertile soils?
A) chaparral
B) grasslands
C) tropical forest
D) bog
Q3) An easterly wind blows from the east toward the west.
A)True
B)False
Q4) All cities at a given latitude have the same average temperature.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A ________ is a wetland dominated by trees and shrubs.
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Growth of Populations
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Q1) A population will remain at a constant size when emigration equals immigration and A) food is not a limiting factor.
B) births equal deaths.
C) predators leave the area.
D) available space remains the same.
Q2) Density-dependent factors are more likely to limit population growth when A) there are many individuals living in a fixed amount of space.
B) the population moves into a larger habitat.
C) food is abundant.
D) weather conditions become milder.
Q3) The amount of productive land and water that individuals or populations require to provide their required resources and dispose of its wastes is called the A) sustainable area.
B) ecological footprint.
C) biological acreage.
D) environmental measure.
Q4) A group of interacting individuals of the same species living within the same area comprises a(n)________.
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23
Chapter 22: Animal Behavior
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Q1) An advertisement that uses images of pizza takes advantage of ________ that plays a large role in purchasing decisions.
A) a fixed behavior
B) a learned response
C) the imprinting
D) the sensation of hunger, rather than a learned behavior
Q2) ________ is a highly advanced form of communication found in humans.
Q3) A(n)________ is an action made by one organism in response to other organisms or to the physical environment.
Q4) Genes can influence the ability of an organism to learn.
A)True
B)False
Q5) In the waggle dance of the honeybee,the angle of the "waggle" relative to up and down indicates the
A) direction to the food source.
B) richness of the food source.
C) type of food at the source.
D) distance to the food source.
Q6) Past experiences help to form ________ behaviors.
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Chapter 23: Ecological Communities
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Q1) Which of the following animals would be most likely to simultaneously participate in seed dispersal and a gut inhabitant mutualism?
A) wolves
B) rattlesnakes
C) scorpions
D) deer
Q2) The living corals in tropical reefs have a profound affect on the hundreds of species that live in association with the reef and one another,yet corals are not considered keystone species because
A) they are too abundant; keystone species always have a numerically low abundance. B) they consume more energy as plankton than their photosynthetic components produce.
C) their affects are not dependent on the presence of living individuals; the reefs they build persist long after their death.
D) their total benefit is solely related to providing protection from predators for the small species that live there.
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25
Chapter 24: Ecosystems
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Q1) The physical,chemical,and biological processes that link the biotic and abiotic worlds in an ecosystem are known as
A) ecosystem processes.
B) primary production events.
C) energy pyramids.
D) biogeochemical fixation.
Q2) Rainfall in some areas of Canada has a high acidity level and a correspondingly high pH.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The primary contribution of decomposers to an ecosystem occurs when they A) capture solar energy.
B) recycle nutrients sequestered in organisms back to the physical environment. C) regulate the number of producers.
D) prevent consumer overpopulation.
Q4) Ecosystems are closed systems.
A)True
B)False
Q5) In an ecosystem,the assemblage of living organisms constitutes the ________ component.
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Chapter 25: Global Change
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Q1) Wetlands are one of the few habitats to have escaped human-caused destruction; the worldwide distribution of wetlands has remained relatively stable for the past 200 years.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The addition of carbon dioxide to Earth's atmosphere also increases the amount of carbon dioxide dissolved in ocean water.This process has the effect of
A) cooling the ocean water by increasing the rate of evaporation.
B) warming the ocean water by decreasing the rate of evaporation.
C) increasing the acidity of ocean water because dissolved carbon dioxide makes the water more acidic.
D) decreasing the acidity of ocean water because dissolved carbon dioxide makes the water less acidic.
Q3) A shift in the geographic range of a species due to global changes has caused the blindness that is now threatening cheetahs in Africa.
A)True
B)False
Q4) About 50 percent of the human population lives near ________ ecosystems.
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