Course Introduction
Biological Sciences
Pre-Test Questions
Biological Sciences is an interdisciplinary field that explores the structure, function, growth, origin, evolution, and distribution of living organisms. This course covers a wide range of topics, including molecular biology, genetics, physiology, ecology, and environmental biology. Students will study the principles governing life at the cellular and organismal levels, examine the interactions between organisms and their environments, and develop critical thinking and laboratory skills essential for scientific inquiry. The course prepares students for diverse careers in healthcare, research, biotechnology, conservation, and education.
Recommended Textbook
Fundamentals of Anatomy and Physiology 11th Edition by Frederic H. Martini
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29 Chapters
4487 Verified Questions
4487 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: An Introduction to Anatomy and Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Disease is an indicator of
A) negative feedback.
B) signs and symptoms.
C) homeostatic failure.
D) positive feedback.
E) All of the answers are correct.
Answer: C
Q2) The diaphragm muscle separates the ________ from the ________.
A) pleural cavity; mediastinum
B) thoracic cavity; abdominopelvic cavity
C) pericardial cavity; pleural cavity
D) abdominal cavity; pelvic cavity
E) pericardial sac; pericardial cavity
Answer: B
Q3) What is homeostatic regulation, and what is its physiological importance?
Answer: Homeostatic regulation refers to adjustments in physiological systems that are responsible for the preservation of a constant internal environment. This enables cells to maintain metabolism and the chemical environment that stabilizes the living state.
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3
Chapter 2: The Chemical Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ions with a negative charge are called
A) cations.
B) anions.
C) radicals.
D) positrons.
E) isotopes.
Answer: B
Q2) Ions in an ionic molecule are held together due to
A) the sharing of electrons.
B) the attraction of opposite electrical charges.
C) each electron orbiting all of the ions in the molecule.
D) the presence of water molecules.
E) the attraction of similar charges of the ions' protons.
Answer: B
Q3) Explain the role of water molecules in polysaccharide formation.
Answer: Water molecules are removed in the dehydration synthesis of polysaccharides.
Q4) What role do buffer systems play in the human body?
Answer: Buffer systems help maintain pH within normal limits by removing or replacing hydrogen ions as needed.
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Chapter 3: The Cellular Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Transfer of mRNA from the nucleus to the cytosol occurs through A) carrier proteins.
B) gap junctions.
C) nucleosides.
D) gap lines.
E) nuclear pores.
Answer: E
Q2) Which structure has a "gate" to control transport?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 4
D) 7
E) 8
Answer: E
Q3) Define osmosis and tell in what direction it occurs.
Answer: Osmosis is the transfer of water across a semipermeable membrane due to a difference in concentration of impermeant solutes. Water moves from lower to higher solute concentration (or from higher to lower water concentration, or from lower to higher osmolarity, or from lower to higher tonicity).
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Page 5
Chapter 4: The Tissue Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Chondroitin sulfate is abundant in the matrix of
A) epithelial tissue.
B) cartilage.
C) areolar tissue.
D) elastic connective tissue.
E) adipose tissue.
Q2) Glands whose secretions contain mucins are classified as
A) serous glands.
B) compound glands.
C) mucous glands.
D) mixed glands.
E) endocrine glands.
Q3) Which method of secretion destroys the cell? (Figure 4-8)
A) merocrine
B) apocrine
C) holocrine
D) endocrine
E) exocytosis
Q4) During the inflammatory process, blood vessels dilate. What does this accomplish?
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Chapter 5: The Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The layer of the skin that provides a barrier against bacteria as well as chemical and mechanical injuriesis the
A) dermis.
B) subcutaneous layer.
C) epidermis.
D) stratum basale.
E) sebaceous layer.
Q2) Skin can regenerate effectively even after considerable damage has occurred because
A) the epidermis of the skin has a rich supply of small blood vessels.
B) stem cells persist in the skin even after injury.
C) fibroblasts in the dermis can give rise to new germinal cells in the epidermis.
D) contraction in the area of the injury brings cells of adjacent strata together.
E) cells of the stratum basale cannot migrate to other positions in the skin.
Q3) Explain how skin helps to thermally regulate body temperature.
Q4) Why is scab formation important in wound healing?
Q5) Explain how to use the mnemonic ABCD when checking for signs of skin cancer.
Q6) Why is regional infection or inflammation of the skin usually very painful?
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Chapter 6: Bones and Bone Structure
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Sample Questions
Q1) Of the total inorganic components in bone, calcium accounts for what percent?
A) 17%
B) 9.7%
C) 39%
D) 72%
E) 0.72%
Q2) The space occupied by an osteocyte is called
A) Volkmann's canal.
B) a lacuna.
C) a trabecula.
D) a Haversian canal.
E) a canaliculus.
Q3) Cells that secrete protein fibers in bone are called A) osteolytic cells.
B) osteoclasts.
C) osteoblasts.
D) osteocytes.
E) osteogenic cells.
Q4) What is osteopenia? Name and define two forms of osteopenia.
Q5) What is the difference between ossification and calcification?
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Chapter 7: The Axial Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) Each of the following statements concerning the development of the skull is true except that
A) all the bones of the skull develop from one single ossification center.
B) at birth the cranial bones are connected by areas of fibrous connective tissue.
C) the growth of the cranium is usually coordinated with the growth of the brain.
D) the skulls of infants and adults differ in shape and structure of the skeletal elements.
E) the most significant growth of the skull occurs before the age of 5.
Q2) Which of the following is not a cranial bone?
A) frontal
B) parietal
C) palatine
D) temporal
E) occipital
Q3) Billy is injured during a high school football game. His chest is badly bruised and he is experiencing difficulty in breathing. What might the problem be?
Q4) What role do the fontanelles play in infant development?
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Chapter 8: The Appendicular Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following bones is not part of the appendicular skeleton?
A) scapula
B) tibia
C) sacrum
D) coxal bones
E) clavicles
Q2) The trochlea is located on the
A) tibia.
B) humerus.
C) radius.
D) scapula.
E) ulna.
Q3) Identify the bones named for their wedge shape.
A) 3
B) 8
C) 7
D) 1
E) 2
Q4) Why is it necessary for the bones of the pelvic girdle to be more massive than the bones of the pectoralgirdle?
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Chapter 9: Joints
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Sample Questions
Q1) ________ subdivide synovial cavities, channel the flow of synovial fluid, and allow for variations in the shapes of the articular surfaces.
A) Fat pads
B) Menisci
C) Bursae
D) Lacunae
E) Fasciae
Q2) The interspinous ligament is
A) a paired ligament that connects the laminae of adjacent vertebrae.
B) a fibrous band that connects the posterior surfaces of adjacent vertebral bodies.
C) a band of fibrous tissue connecting the spinous processes of adjacent vertebrae.
D) a longitudinal fibrous band that is attached to the tips of spinous processes from C7 to the sacrum.
E) a wide fibrous band that connect the anterior surfaces of the adjacent vertebral bodies.
Q3) When the triceps brachii muscle contracts, what movements does it produce?
Q4) How are osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis different?
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11
Chapter 10: Muscle Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the basic sequence of events that occurs as an action potential arrives at the neuromuscular junction and is transmitted to the muscle cell.
Q2) Put the following events of excitation-contraction coupling in the order in which they occur.
1) Excitation
2) Sarcomere shortening
3) Generation of muscle tension
4) Neural control
5) Contraction cycle begins
6) Release of calcium ions
A) 4,1,5,2,6,3
B) 4,1,6,5,2,3
C) 1,2,5,6,3,4
D) 6,1,4,2,5,3
E) 1,4,6,2,5,3
Q3) Megan wants to enter a weight-lifting competition and consults you as to what type of muscle fibers she needs to develop and how she should go about it. What would you suggest to her?
Q4) Describe a motor unit. How many fibers does a motor unit contain?
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Chapter 11: The Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most of the skeletal muscles in the body are ________ muscles.
A) convergent
B) parallel
C) straight
D) pennate
E) circular
Q2) Which muscle is named for either shape or size?
A) pectoralis major
B) latissimus dorsi
C) deltoid
D) vastus lateralis
E) All of the above are named for shape or size.
Q3) The adductor longus is innervated by which nerve?
A) obturator
B) femoral
C) sciatic
D) fibular
E) tibial
Q4) Jeff is interested in toning his abdomen. What muscles would you tell Jeff to exercise to accomplish hisgoal? What movements would best exercise these muscles?
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Nervous Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) Adrug that blocks ATP production is introduced into an isolated axon preparation. The axon is then repeatedly stimulated, and recordings are made of the response. What effects would you expect to observe?
Q2) The ________ nervous system provides involuntary regulation of smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glandularactivity.
A) somatic
B) peripheral
C) autonomic
D) afferent
E) motor
Q3) Which of the following statements about the action potential is false?
A) The rapid depolarization phase is caused by the entry of potassium ions.
B) During the repolarization phase, sodium channels close and potassium channels open.
C) During the depolarization phase, membrane potential becomes positive.
D) During the hyperpolarization phase, the ion pumps re-establish the sodium and potassium concentrations across the cell membrane.
E) Repolarization occurs as potassium ions leave the axon.
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Chapter 13: The Spinal Cord, Spinal Nerves, and Spinal
Reflexes
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the spinal cord, white matter is separated into ascending and descending tracts organized as
A) nuclei.
B) ganglia.
C) columns.
D) nerves.
E) horns.
Q2) A motor neuron typically receives input from neurons that originate in various areas of the brain. Thistype of circuit is a
A) divergent circuit.
B) convergent circuit.
C) serial processing circuit.
D) parallel processing circuit.
E) reverberating circuit.
Q3) The subdural space lies between
A) the arachnoid mater and the pia mater.
B) the pia mater and the dura mater.
C) the dura mater and the arachnoid mater.
D) the pia mater and the subarachnoid space.
E) the endosteum and the periosteum.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: The Brain and Cranial Nerves
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Sample Questions
Q1) After suffering a blow to the back of the head, Phil loses his vision. The blow probably caused damagetothe
A) frontal lobe.
B) postcentral gyrus.
C) temporal lobe.
D) limbic system.
E) occipital lobe.
Q2) ________ is a condition resulting from an inflammation of a facial nerve.
A) Cerebral palsy
B) Bell's palsy
C) Addison's disease
D) Gout
E) Tic douloureux
Q3) Specialized ________ form the secretory component of the choroid plexus.
A) epididymal cells
B) ependymal cells
C) arachnoid cells
D) astrocyte
E) blood cells
Q4) Why is injury to the medulla oblongata frequently fatal?
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Sensory Pathways and the Somatic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Based on the motor homunculus, which of the following body regions has the fewest number of motor unitsinvolved?
A) tongue
B) face
C) hands
D) back trunk
Q2) Identify the neuron labeled "1."
A) lower motor neuron
B) upper motor neuron
C) first-order neuron
D) second-order neuron
E) ganglionic neuron
Q3) The general senses
A) involve receptors that are relatively simple in structure.
B) are located in specialized structures called sense organs.
C) are localized to specific areas of the body.
D) cannot generate action potentials.
E) include taste and smell.
Q4) What are differences and similarities between "crude" touch and "fine" touch sensations?
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Chapter 16: The Autonomic Nervous System and Higher-Order Functions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify the round structure labeled "3."
A) dorsal root ganglion
B) spinal nerve
C) chain ganglion
D) intramural ganglion
E) rami communicantes
Q2) Collateral ganglia contain neurons that innervate tissues and organs in which cavity?
A) thoracic
B) pelvic
C) abdominal
D) craniosacral
E) abdominopelvic
Q3) Which of the following is not a true statement regarding the sympathetic division?
A) PNS ganglia are near the vertebral column.
B) Preganglionic fibers are relatively short.
C) Preganglionic neurons are located between T1 and L2 of the spinal cord.
D) The effects are not widespread but very specific and localized.
E) Postganglionic fibers are relatively long.
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Chapter 17: The Special Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Vertical movement is detected by which structure?
A) ampullary crest of the lateral semicircular canal
B) ampullary crest of the anterior semicircular canal
C) ampullary crest of the posterior semicircular canal
D) macula in the utricle
E) macula in the saccule
Q2) ________ fills the membranous labyrinth.
A) Perilymph
B) CSF
C) Interstitial fluid
D) Endolymph
E) Blood
Q3) Which of the following is false concerning lacrimal glands?
A) They produce a strongly hypertonic fluid.
B) They produce most of the volume of tears.
C) They produce lysozyme.
D) They produce watery, slightly alkaline secretions.
E) They are located in recesses in the frontal bones.
Q4) Trace the pathway of a nerve impulse from the eye to the cortex.
Q5) What six basic steps are involved in the process of hearing?
Page 19
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Chapter 18: The Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The delta cells of the pancreatic islets produce
A) insulin.
B) glucagon.
C) somatostatin.
D) cortisol.
E) peptide P.
Q2) Which of the following hormones may lead to acromegaly if hypersecreted after closure of the epiphysealplates?
A) cortisol
B) parathyroid hormone
C) insulin
D) growth hormone
E) epinephrine
Q3) Which of the following hormones increases and prolongs effects of the sympathetic nervous system?
A) cortisol
B) parathyroid hormone
C) insulin
D) growth hormone
E) acetylcholine
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Chapter 19: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Monocytes can be stimulated by which of the following colony-stimulating factors?
A) G-CSF
B) G-CSF and GM-CSF
C) EPO
D) G-CSF and EPO
E) M-CSF, GM-CSF, multi-CSF
Q2) When hemoglobin is saturated with oxygen atoms it is termed
A) carbaminohemoglobin.
B) deoxyhemoglobin.
C) oxyhemoglobin.
D) hemolyzed.
E) sickle hemoglobin.
Q3) Areas in a vessel wall where large quantities of lipid accumulate are called A) thrombi.
B) emboli.
C) plaques.
D) clots.
E) occlusions.
Q4) Why do people with advanced kidney disease commonly become anemic?
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Chapter 20: The Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) The normal pacemaker of the heart is located in
A) the Purkinje fibers.
B) the sinoatrial node.
C) the atrioventricular node.
D) the wall of the left ventricle.
E) both the left and right ventricles.
Q2) What occurs at the circle labeled "3" on the graph?
A) atrial systole
B) isovolumetric relaxation
C) atrial diastole and ventricle systole
D) atrial ejection
E) ventricular ejection
Q3) Coronary veins empty into the A) left atrium.
B) left ventricle.
C) right atrium.
D) right ventricle.
E) conus arteriosus.
Q4) Adoctor tells her nursing students that it is important to monitor patients' blood pressure when they are receiving verapamil (a calcium channel blocker). Why?
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Blood Vessels and Circulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) ________ is a bulge, or weakened wall, of an artery.
A) aneurysm
B) stroke
C) vascular edema
D) arteriosclerosis
E) atherosclerosis
Q2) Which of the these blood vessels is not a visceral branch of the thoracic aorta?
A) intercostal arteries
B) pericardial arteries
C) bronchial arteries
D) esophageal arteries
E) mediastinal arteries
Q3) Systemic arterial pressure in an adult at the entrance to the aorta averages
A) 18 mmHg.
B) 35 mmHg.
C) 80 mmHg.
D) 120 mmHg.
E) 93 mmHg.
Q4) Compare the hearts of a trained athlete and a nonathlete.
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Chapter 22: The Lymphatic System and Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) An infection and inflammation of the aggregated lymphatic nodules in the pharynx is called
A) laryngitis.
B) lymph edema.
C) tonsillitis.
D) indigestion.
E) lymphosis.
Q2) A ________ antigen is an antigen with at least two antigenic determinant sites.
A) complete
B) perfect
C) mature
D) paired
E) dipolar
Q3) After the appearance of bacteria in the body, which immune cell is present for the shortest amount of time?(Figure 22-26)
A) neutrophils
B) NK cells
C) macrophages
D) cytotoxic T cells
E) plasma cells
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Chapter 23: The Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ligament bridging the larynx with the trachea is the ________ ligament.
A) cricoid
B) thyrohyoid
C) vestibular
D) cricothyroid
E) cricotracheal
Q2) A common site to place a tracheostomy tube is through the ligament that connects the cricoid cartilage to the ________ cartilage.
A) thyroid
B) cuneiform
C) corniculate
D) epiglottic
E) vestibular
Q3) The respiratory portion of the respiratory tract includes the A) bronchi.
B) trachea.
C) larynx.
D) alveoli.
E) nose.
Q4) What are the primary functions of the respiratory system?
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Chapter 24: The Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the layer labeled "4"?
A) mucosa
B) submucusa
C) muscularis externa
D) muscularis mucosae
E) serosa
Q2) The dangling process that aids in keeping food out of the nasopharynx is known as the
A) palatine tonsil.
B) pharyngeal tonsil.
C) soft palate.
D) tongue.
E) uvula.
Q3) Which is not true of pancreatic enzymes?
A) Their primary site of action is the pancreas.
B) The majority are proteases.
C) Most are secreted as proenzymes.
D) They digest carbohydrates, lipids, proteins, and nucleic acids.
E) They are produced by exocrine tissue.
Q4) Leon has gallstones. His doctor puts him on a diet low in fat. Why?
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Chapter 25: Metabolism, Nutrition, and Energetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Lipogenesis is common for organic molecules because the intermediate ________ is formed in most nutrientmetabolic processes.
A) pyruvate
B) acetyl-CoA
C) glycerol
D) glucose
E) lipoprotein
Q2) ________ carry excess cholesterol from peripheral tissues to the liver.
A) Very-low-density lipoproteins (VLDLs)
B) Low-density lipoproteins (LDLs)
C) Micelles
D) High-density lipoproteins (HDLs)
E) Very-high-density lipoproteins (VHDLs)
Q3) In the citric acid cycle, a 2 carbon molecule and a 4 carbon molecule combine to produce
A) fructose-1, 6-bisphosphate.
B) carbon dioxide.
C) pyruvic acid.
D) NADH.
E) citric acid.
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Chapter 26: The Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The detrusor muscle
A) moves urine along the ureters by peristalsis.
B) compresses the urinary bladder and expels urine through the urethra.
C) functions as the internal urinary sphincter.
D) functions as the external urinary sphincter.
E) surrounds the renal pelvis.
Q2) The region of the nephron containing intercalated cells primarily associated with pH balance is the
A) glomerulus.
B) proximal convoluted tubule.
C) nephron loop.
D) collecting duct.
E) papillary duct.
Q3) The process of filtration is driven mainly by A) active transport.
B) blood osmotic pressure.
C) blood hydrostatic pressure.
D) renal pumping.
E) solvent drag.
Q4) List each organ of the urinary system and concisely describe its function.
28
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Chapter 27: Fluid, Electrolyte, and Acid-Base Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is a serious condition that could occur if the potassium ion concentration is >7 mEq/L? (Figure 27-7)
A) muscle weakness leading to paralysis
B) increased urine volume
C) respiratory depression
D) acidosis
E) cardiac arrhythmias
Q2) The most dangerous problems with electrolyte balance are caused by an imbalance between gains and lossesof
A) calcium ions.
B) chlorine ions.
C) potassium ions.
D) sodium ions.
E) electrons.
Q3) Extreme losses of bicarbonate ions, such as in diarrhea, will cause
A) acute respiratory acidosis.
B) chronic respiratory acidosis.
C) respiratory alkalosis.
D) metabolic acidosis.
E) metabolic alkalosis.
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Chapter 28: The Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The principal hormone secreted by the corpus luteum is A) LH.
B) FSH.
C) progesterone.
D) luteosterone.
E) estrogen.
Q2) The main portion of the uterus is called the corpus or A) fundus.
B) cervix.
C) horn.
D) body.
E) isthmus.
Q3) Sperm production occurs in the A) ductus deferens.
B) seminiferous tubules.
C) epididymis.
D) seminal glands (seminal vesicles).
E) rete testis.
Q4) Imagine that a seven-year-old girl develops a hormone-secreting ovarian tumor derived from granulosa cells.What signs of the disease would you expect?
Page 30
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Chapter 29: Development and Inheritance
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Q1) Stretching of the cervix causes an increase in the blood levels of A) estrogen.
B) progesterone.
C) oxytocin.
D) relaxin.
E) chorionic gonadotropin.
Q2) A space opens within the inner cell mass that will form the A) blastocoele.
B) lacunae.
C) amniotic cavity.
D) chorion.
E) allantois.
Q3) The period of gestation when organs and organ systems complete most of their development and the fetus looks distinctly human is the ________ trimester.
A) first
B) second
C) third
Q4) List and briefly characterize the three trimesters of gestation.
Q5) What activity during oocyte activation prevents penetration by additional sperm?
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