Biological Sciences for Allied Health Pre-Test Questions - 3928 Verified Questions

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Biological Sciences for Allied Health

Pre-Test Questions

Course Introduction

This course provides an introduction to the fundamental principles of biological sciences with a focus on topics relevant to allied health professions. Students will explore cell structure and function, genetics, human anatomy and physiology, microbiology, and basic biochemistry. Emphasis will be placed on the application of biological concepts to health, disease prevention, and patient care. Through a combination of lectures, laboratory exercises, and case studies, students will develop a foundational understanding of the biological processes essential for effective practice in various allied health fields.

Recommended Textbook

Anatomy and Physiology An Integrative Approach 2nd Edition by McKinley

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29 Chapters

3928 Verified Questions

3928 Flashcards

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Page 2

Chapter 1: The Sciences of Anatomy and Physiology

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128 Verified Questions

128 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A(n)_______ plane separates the body into superior and inferior parts.

A)transverse

B)oblique

C)sagittal

D)coronal

E)frontal

Answer: A

Q2) Describe the positions of the thumbs and the palms of the hands in the anatomic position.

Answer: Thumbs point out,palms face forward.

Q3) The smallest structural unit that exhibits the characteristics of living things is A)an organ.

B)an individual. C)tissue.

D)a cell.

E)a system.

Answer: D

Q4) The ______ reproductive system produces oocytes. Answer: female

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Chapter 2: Atoms,Ions,and Molecules

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which statement accurately describes amino acids

A)There are twenty varieties,with each type having a different R group.

B)There are twenty varieties,with each type having a different C-terminal end.

C)There are over 200 varieties,with each type having a different R group.

D)There are over 200 varieties,with each type having a different C-terminal end.

Answer: A

Q2) An element's atomic number is determined by the number of __________ in one atom of that element.

A)protons

B)nuclei

C)electrons

D)neutrons

E)atomic mass units

Answer: A

Q3) When a nonpolar molecule is placed in water,it will

A)neither dissolve nor carry electrical current.

B)dissolve and carry electrical current.

C)dissociate and carry electrical current.

D)carry electrical current but not dissolve or dissociate.

Answer: A

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Chapter 3: Energy,Chemical Reactions,and Cellular

Respiration

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125 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Diseases of the respiratory or circulatory systems that impair oxygen delivery to body cells will diminish ATP production in those cells.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Q2) According to the second law of thermodynamics,when energy is transformed from one kind to another

A)some of it is converted to heat.

B)some energy is destroyed.

C)new energy is created.

D)homeostasis is maintained.

E)chemical bonds must be broken.

Answer: A

Q3) The first stage of cellular respiration is

A)electron transport,and it occurs in the cytosol.

B)electron transport,and it occurs in the mitochondria.

C)glycolysis,and it occurs in the cytosol.

D)glycolysis,and it occurs in the mitochondria.

E)the citric acid cycle,and it occurs at the mitochondria.

Answer: C

Page 5

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Chapter 4: Biology of the Cell

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151 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Pinocytosis is the process in which the cell

A)internalizes ("drinks")a droplet of interstitial fluid.

B)internalizes ("eats")a large solid particle.

C)splits ("pinches")off a small part of itself to secrete into the extracellular space.

D)pumps small solutes against their concentration gradient and out of the cell.

Q2) Proteins that are embedded within,and extend across,the phospholipid bilayer are called _____ proteins.rev: 02_22_2014_QC_45534

A)catalytic

B)integral

C)cytoskeleton

D)peripheral

Q3) The subunits of ribosomes are exported outside the nucleus into the cytoplasm,where they are assembled into their finished product.

A)True

B)False

Q4) The centrosome is considered to be an inclusion.

A)True

B)False

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Page 6

Chapter 5: Tissue Organization

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Sample Questions

Q1) Fibronectin is an example of a(n)

A)adherent glycoprotein.

B)glycosaminoglycan.

C)proteoglycan.

Q2) The primary role of epithelial tissue in the stomach is

A)housing blood vessels and nerves.

B)secretion of substances for chemical digestion.

C)mixing and propulsion of foodstuffs.

D)regulation of contraction.

Q3) Plasma is

A)a liquid ground substance containing dissolved proteins.

B)a dissolved ground matrix and a lining of epithelial cells.

C)a liquefied ground substance that includes several dissolved cells.

D)platelets,red blood cells,and white blood cells.

E)platelets and a watery ground substance.

Q4) The epithelial linings of the respiratory and digestive systems develop from the A)ectoderm.

B)endoderm.

C)mesoderm.

D)lumenoderm.

Page 7

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Chapter 6: Integumentary System

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Sample Questions

Q1) What type of epithelium is found in the epidermis

A)Keratinized stratified squamous

B)Nonkeratinized stratified squamous

C)Keratinized stratified cuboidal

D)Nonkeratinized stratitified cuboidal

E)Transitional

Q2) Which type of hair forms the beard on the faces of males

A)Terminal

B)Lanugo

C)Vellus

D)Nonpigmented

E)Pilus

Q3) Sebum is a secretion that

A)cools the skin and eliminates certain drugs.

B)lubricates skin and helps defend against bacteria.

C)maintains water balance through waterproofing the skin.

D)acts as a pheremone once reproductive maturity is reached.

Q4) In response to severe injuries or burns,the body may repair itself by producing scar tissue to fill the damaged area.This process is called _______.

Q5) From what else,besides physical trauma,does the skin provide protection

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Chapter 7: Skeletal System: Bone Structure and Function

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Sample Questions

Q1) An example of a flat bone would be the A)femur (of thigh).

B)radius (of forearm).

C)trapezoid (of wrist).

D)sternum (breast bone).

E)calcaneus (heel).

Q2) The periosteum is anchored to the bone by collagen fibers called _____ fibers. A)transverse B)perforating

C)penetrating D)connecting E)cementing

Q3) The spongy bone found within a flat bone is called _________.

Q4) When bone forms by intramembranous ossification,the ossification centers are within

A)hyaline cartilage. B)compact bone.

C)mesenchyme. D)elastic cartilage. E)spongy bone.

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Chapter 8: Skeletal System: Axial and Appendicular

Skeleton

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the name of the prominence on the medial surface of the ankle

A)Tibial tuberosity

B)Medial condyle

C)Medial malleolus

D)Calcaneus

E)Head of the fibula

Q2) The three bones that make up each of the ox coxae are the ilium,pubis,and _______.

Q3) Each of the depressions on the maxillae and mandible that holds a tooth is called a(n)

A)fossa.

B)sulcus.

C)sinus.

D)alveolus.

E)foramen.

Q4) The seven bones that form the orbit are the maxilla,frontal,nasal,ethmoid,sphenoid,palatine,and zygomatic bones.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Each vertebral arch is composed of two pedicles and two _____________.

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Chapter 9: Skeletal System: Articulations

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Sample Questions

Q1) Moderate exercise improves the health of joints by increasing the flow of synovial fluid in and out of the articular cartilage.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Sutures are joints that are found

A)throughout the axial and appendicular skeletons.

B)between all bones and teeth of the skull.

C)between certain bones of the skull.

D)only where a facial bone articulates with a cranial bone.

Q3) A joint in which the bone can move in two planes is said to be __________.

Q4) In the human body,joints start to form by the _________ week of embryonic development.

A)4th

B)8th

C)6th

D)10th

E)12th

Q5) A slightly mobile joint is referred to as a(n)_________.

Q6) At the knee,a bone called the ____________ is embedded within the tendon of the quadriceps femoris muscle.

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Chapter 10: Muscle Tissue

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Sample Questions

Q1) The structure responsible for attaching muscle to bone is a A)sphincter.

B)ligament.

C)fascia.

D)tendon.

E)myofibril.

Q2) A motor unit within the powerful quadriceps muscle would

A)contain several motor neurons.

B)be much like those in the eye muscles.

C)generally contain less than ten fibers.

D)generally contain several hundred fibers.

Q3) In a graph of wave summation,the tension level returns to baseline between each peak of force.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Which contraction occurs when you try (unsuccessfully)to move a wall

A)Isometric

B)Isotonic

Q5) The _____________ is the connective tissue covering of a fascicle.

Q6) The plasma membrane of a skeletal muscle fiber is called the ______________.

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Chapter 11: Muscular System: Axial and Appendicular

Muscles

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Sample Questions

Q1) You just ran over a skunk on your way to class.The odor was overwhelming and in response you wrinkled your nose in disgust by contracting your A)nasalis muscle.

B)procerus muscle.

C)depressor anguli oris.

D)frontal belly of the occipitofrontalis muscle.

E)occipital belly of the occipitofrontalis muscle.

Q2) This figure shows an anterior view of the right orbit.What muscle does number 1 indicate

A)Superior oblique

B)Inferior oblique

C)Lateral rectus

D)Medial rectus

E)Superior rectus

Q3) Crural muscles are those that move the A)vertebral column.

B)hip.

C)thigh.

D)wrist.

E)ankle,foot,and toes.

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Chapter 12: Nervous System: Nervous Tissue

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158 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The type of neuronal circuit that ensures that we continue to breathe while asleep is a _____________ circuit.

A)converging

B)diverging

C)reverberating

D)parallel-after-discharge

E)None of the choices is correct.

Q2) The glial cell that helps to form the blood-brain barrier is the A)astrocyte.

B)ependymal cell.

C)neurolemmocyte.

D)microglial cell.

E)oligodendrocyte.

Q3) One main category of neurotransmitters is amino acids.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Neurotransmitter is released from the synaptic knob by exocytosis,and it then diffuses across the synaptic cleft.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 13: Nervous System: Brain and Cranial Nerves

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148 Verified Questions

148 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The mesencephalic (cerebral)aqueduct carries CSF from the lateral ventricles to the third ventricle.

A)True

B)False

Q2) As motor tracts descend to the brainstem,they become the anterolateral surfaces of the midbrain known as the A)inferior colliculi.

B)accessory nerves.

C)inferior olives.

D)cerebral peduncles.

E)substantia nigra.

Q3) The superior olivary complex is involved in detecting the A)location of a sound.

B)brightness of a light.

C)flavor of a taste.

D)intensity of a smell.

E)texture of a touch stimulus.

Q4) A memory that has lasted over a weekend is described as a A)short-term memory.

B)long-term memory.

Page 15

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Chapter 14: Nervous System: Spinal Cord and Spinal Nerves

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Sample Questions

Q1) Where the sciatic nerve splits,it branches directly to the

A)deep and superficial fibular nerves.

B)tibial and common fibular nerves.

C)femoral and obturator nerves.

D)deep femoral and tibial nerves.

E)popliteal and sural nerves.

Q2) The cervical plexus is formed by the

A)posterior rami of spinal nerves C2-C6.

B)posterior rami of spinal nerves C4-C8.

C)anterior rami of spinal nerves C1-C4.

D)anterior rami of spinal nerves C3-C7.

E)rami communicantes of spinal nerves C1-C7.

Q3) For many reflexes,including the stretch reflex,the excitation of a muscle leads to

A)excitation of all motorneurons that are contralateral.

B)inhibition of motor neurons of its antagonist.

C)inhibition of motor neurons of its synergist.

D)excitation of motor neurons of the antagonist.

E)inhibition of sensory neurons that initiate the reflex.

Q4) A specific segment of skin supplied by a single spinal nerve is a ___________.

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Chapter 15: Nervous System: Autonomic Nervous System

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which system has more divergence of preganglionic axons

A)Parasympathetic division

B)Sympathetic division

Q2) Limited branching of preganglionic axons allows for

A)mass activation.

B)local and discrete activation.

C)rapid changes in numerous structures at once.

Q3) Which statements are correct concerning the parasympathetic division of the ANS

A: Contains preganglionic cell bodies in brainstem nuclei

B: Contains preganglionic cell bodies in the lateral horns of the T1-L2 regions

C: Participates in the "fight-or-flight" response

D: Helps maintain homeostasis

E: Contains preganglionic cell bodies in the sacral region of the spinal cord

A)a,d,e

B)a,c,e

C)b,c,d

D)b,c

E)c,d,e

Q4) An axon takes the ______ nerve pathway if a preganglionic neuron synapses with a ganglionic neuron in a sympathetic trunk ganglion.

Page 17

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Chapter 16: Nervous System: Senses

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Sample Questions

Q1) The fibrous tunic of the eye is composed of two parts.What are they

A)The cornea and the sclera

B)The conjunctiva and the cornea

C)The conjunctiva and the sclera

D)The sclera and the retina

E)The sclera and the uvea

Q2) Where is the saccule located

A)Within the middle ear

B)Lateral to the auditory ossicles

C)Within the cochlea

D)Within the vestibule

E)In the auditory tube

Q3) Olfactory glomeruli are located in the A)thalamus.

B)olfactory epithelium.

C)olfactory bulbs.

D)hypothalamus.

Q4) _________ receptors respond continuously to a stimulus at a constant rate.Bloom's: Remember

Q5) The opsin in rods is called _________.

Page 18

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Chapter 17: Endocrine System

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Sample Questions

Q1) Aldosterone release can be triggered by the presence of the blood-borne messenger angiotensin II or by low levels of sodium,and so its secretion regulation is said to be

A)purely neural.

B)both hormonal and humoral.

C)both antagonistic and synergistic.

D)both neural and synergistic.

E)purely hormonal.

Q2) This figure shows an example of regulation of hormone secretion by a negative feedback loop.The large box labeled 1 represents the initial stimulus.Which could be the initial stimulus for this pattern of regulation

A)High blood calcium level

B)Low body temperature

C)Low blood sugar level

D)High WBC (white blood cell)count

E)Low RBC (red blood cell)count

Q3) Somatostatin suppresses the release of pancreatic polypeptide.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Alpha cells of the pancreas secrete the hormone _________.

Page 19

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Chapter 18: Cardiovascular System: Blood

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Sample Questions

Q1) Old erythrocytes are phagocytized in the A)liver.

B)spleen.

C)lung.

D)liver and spleen.

E)spleen and lung.

Q2) In the centrifuged sample of blood illustrated,what blood components are contained in the layer labeled number 3

A)Leukocytes and platelets

B)Plasma and water

C)Erythrocytes

D)Plasma,water,waste materials,and electrolytes

E)Leukocytes and waste materials

Q3) The smallest and most abundant plasma proteins are the A)globulins.

B)endocrine hormones.

C)albumins.

D)fibrinogens.

E)prothrombins.

Q4) The production of platelets is called _______________.

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Chapter 19: Cardiovascular System: Heart

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Sample Questions

Q1) Occlusion of blood vessels tends to lead to

A)increases in perfusion.

B)increases in capillary exchange.

C)inadequate blood supply and damage to body tissues.

D)defibrillation of cardic muscle cell contraction.

Q2) The shutting of the semilunar valves occurs during which phase

A)Isovolumetric contraction

B)Ventricular ejection

C)Isovolumetric relaxation

D)Atrial contraction and ventricular filling

E)Late ventricular diastole

Q3) Immediately prior to atrial contraction,blood continues to enter the atria from the venae cavae and pulmonary veins.

A)True

B)False

Q4) The inferior,conical end of the heart is called the _______________.

Q5) About 70% of the ventricle filling is achieved passively without the contraction of the atria.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 20: Cardiovascular System: Vessels and Circulation

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Sample Questions

Q1) Blood colloid osmotic pressure is largely due to

A)the proteins in the blood,and it promotes reabsorption.

B)the high amount of water in the blood,and it promotes diffusion out of the capillaries.

C)the proteins in the blood,and it promotes filtration.

D)the pressure generated by the heart,and it favors osmosis into the arteriole end of the capillary bed.

E)the high amount of water in the blood,and it promotes filtration from arterioles.

Q2) The azygos vein merges with the _____________ vena cava.

Q3) Oxygen and carbon dioxiode are transported between the blood and interstitial fluid by way of

A)exocytosis and endocytosis by endothelial cells.

B)pinocytosis using fluid-filled vesicles.

C)diffusion from areas of higher concentration to lower concentration.

D)active transport (using ATP)by protein carriers of endothelial cells.

Q4) The formation of new blood vessels is a process known as __________.

Q5) A vasodilator causes a decrease in local blood flow at a capillary bed.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 21: Lymphatic System

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Sample Questions

Q1) Obstruction of the flow of lymph in lymphatic vessels can lead to an accumulation of interstitial fluid in the tissues.This condition is characterized by pain and swelling,and is called ________________.

Q2) Lymph contains protein.

A)True

B)False

Q3) B-lymphocytes are

A)antibody-producing red blood cells.

B)platelets that are generated in the thymus.

C)white blood cells that are generated in red bone marrow.

D)immune system cells that are generated in the tonsils.

E)blood cells found only in people with type B blood.

Q4) Typically,a hilum of a lymph node contains

A)one afferent lymphatic vessel.

B)one efferent lymphatic vessel.

C)numerous afferent vessels.

D)numerous efferent vessels.

Q5) The appendix contains lymphatic nodules.

A)True

B)False

Page 23

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Chapter 22: Immune System and the Bodys Defense

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Sample Questions

Q1) Cytotoxic T-lymphocytes destroy infected cells by

A)increasing the permeability of infected cells and inducing apoptosis.

B)increasing the permeability of infected cells and preventing apoptosis.

C)decreasing the permeability of infected cells and inducing apoptosis.

D)decreasing the permeability of infected cells and preventing apoptosis.

Q2) Exudate is

A)blood that escapes capillaries,passes beyond the skin and leaves the body.

B)increased perfusion of capillary beds within the region of an injury.

C)lymph that flows away from the heart and toward the site of an injury.

D)fluid that leaves capillaries to "wash" the interstitial space of an injured tissue.

E)clotting proteins that wall off microbes and prevent them from spreading through the bloodstream.

Q3) If someone had a cut in their skin through which a bacterium entered,but that bacterium was then destroyed by a neutrophil,this would be an example of A)failed external adaptive immunity,but successful innate immunity.

B)failed innate immunity,but successful adaptive immunity.

C)failed external innate immunity,but successful internal innate immunity.

D)failed external immunity,but successful internal acquired immunity.

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24

Chapter 23: Respiratory System

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Sample Questions

Q1) The exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the air in the alveoli and blood in the lungs is called

A)ventilation.

B)systemic respiration.

C)internal respiration.

D)external respiration.

E)cellular respiration.

Q2) In these views of the trachea,what structure does number 1 indicate

A)Trachealis muscle

B)Thyroid cartilage

C)Cricoid cartilage

D)Anular ligament

E)Tracheal cartilage

Q3) If someone at sea level is given pure oxygen to breathe,it would cause the oxygen saturation of their hemoglobin

A)to increase by more than double.

B)to increase by only a tiny amount.

C)to decrease due to uncooperative binding.

Q4) Relaxation of the smooth muscle within the walls of bronchioles leads to

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Chapter 24: Urinary System

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Sample Questions

Q1) To test someone's glomerular filtration rate,the individual is injected with the polysaccharide _____________.

Q2) The endothelium of the glomerulus is made up of _________ capillaries.

A)fenestrated

B)continuous

Q3) The renal corpuscle is located within the A)collecting duct.

B)renal medulla.

C)renal cortex.

D)renal pelvis.

Q4) Blood pressure in the glomerulus is _______ than in other capillaries due to the relatively large diameter of ________ arterioles.

A)higher;afferent

B)higher;efferent

C)lower;afferent

D)lower;efferent

Q5) In order to accommodate the large liver,

A)the left kidney is about 2 centimeters inferior to the right kidney.

B)the right kidney is about 2 centimeters inferior to the left kidney.

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Chapter 25: Fluid and Electrolytes

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Sample Questions

Q1) Most of the fixed acid in our body comes from A)the oxygen we breathe.

B)acid absorbed from the GI tract.

C)loss of bicarbonate in feces.

D)lactic acid from muscle.

Q2) If a strong acid were to add H<sup>+</sup>to the intracellular fluid,the effect would most likely be buffered,because

A)HPO<sub>4</sub><sup>2-</sup>would act as a weak acid and donate an H<sup>+</sup>to become PO<sub>4</sub><sup>-</sup>.

B)HPO<sub>4</sub><sup>2-</sup>would act as a weak base and accept an H<sup>+</sup>to become H<sub>2</sub>PO<sub>4</sub><sup>-</sup>.

C)H<sub>2</sub>PO<sub>4</sub><sup>-</sup>would act as a weak acid and accept an H<sup>+</sup>to become H<sub>3</sub>PO<sub>4</sub><sup>-</sup>.

D)PO<sub>4</sub>would act as a strong base and accept an H<sup>+</sup>to become HPO<sub>4</sub>.

Q3) When physiological systems cannot compensate for an acid-base disturbance,and the deviation from normal pH becomes more persistent,it is referred to as an acid-base

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Chapter 26: Digestive System

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Sample Questions

Q1) Pepsinogen is an

A)active enzyme that is released in the small intestine and digests carbohydrates.

B)inactive precursor to the enzyme pepsin that digests proteins in the stomach.

C)active enzyme that digests proteins within the small intestine.

D)inactive precursor to a nonspecific enzyme that is synthesized in the pancreas and released in the small intestine.

Q2) The presence of food in the stomach triggers the release of a hormone that stimulates contraction of the pyloric sphincter.Specifically,these events involve release of

A)secretin in the cephalic phase of digestion.

B)gastrin in the gastric phase of digestion.

C)CCK in the intestinal phase of digestion.

D)lipase in the intestinal phase of digestion.

E)chyle in the secretory phase of digestion

Q3) The process of swallowing is also called _____________.

Q4) The process by which bile breaks up large fat droplets into smaller ones is called

Q5) The largest salivary gland is the ________ gland,and its duct opens near the second upper molar.

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Chapter 27: Nutrition and Metabolism

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

106 Verified Questions

106 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40663

Sample Questions

Q1) A deficiency in vitamin _____ may result in night blindness as well as dry,flaky skin.

A)A

B)B<sub>12</sub>

C)C

D)D

E)E

Q2) Low dietary intake of cholesterol triggers cholesterol synthesis within the liver to increase.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Protein is a macronutrient.

A)True

B)False

Q4) The liver absorbs bilirubin and eliminates it as part of bile.

A)True

B)False

Q5) The body is able to produce and recycle vitamin A (retinol)as needed.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 28: Reproductive System

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

146 Verified Questions

146 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40662

Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is true

A)Semen is composed of seminal fluid and sperm.

B)Seminal fluid is composed of semen and sperm.

C)Sperm are composed of seminal fluid within a cell membrane.

D)The three ingredients of ejaculate are sperm,semen,and prostate-specific antigen.

Q2) Which cord or sheet of connective tissue attaches to the ovary at the hilum

A)Suspensory ligament

B)Ovarian ligament

C)Mesovarium

D)Broad ligament

E)Round ligament

Q3) During female sexual excitement,the mammary glands,clitoris,and labia become engorged with blood.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Someone born with an inherited condition known as adrenal hyperplasia might have two X chromosomes but genitalia that resemble those of a male.Explain the effects on the individual's phenotypic and genotypic sex.

Q5) The most primitive type of ovarian follicle is a _____________ follicle.

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Chapter 29: Development,Pregnancy,and Heredity

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127 Verified Questions

127 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40661

Sample Questions

Q1) Increased levels of estrogen,progesterone,and corticosteroids result in increased insulin resistance during preganancy.

A)True

B)False

Q2) The fingerlike structures of the placenta that form from its fetal portion are known as A)amniotic villi.

B)chorionic villi.

C)amniotic stalks.

D)chorionic stalks.

Q3) Cephalocaudal folding occurs because of the rapid growth of the A)amnion and embryonic disc. B)yolk sac.

Q4) Typically,at the moment a full-term baby is born,the child's lungs are A)fully inflated due to practice respiratory movements in the womb.

B)not fully inflated,but they will inflate within about ten seconds.

C)not fully inflated,and will not inflate fully for ten days,when surfactant production begins.

Q5) Substances that can cause birth defects or the death of the embryo are referred to as __________.

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