

Biological Sciences
Exam Answer Key
Course Introduction
Biological Sciences is an interdisciplinary field that explores the diverse processes and systems that constitute life on Earth. This course provides a comprehensive foundation in cellular and molecular biology, genetics, physiology, ecology, and evolution. Students will engage in both theoretical learning and practical laboratory experiences to understand how living organisms function, interact with each other, and adapt to their environments. The course also addresses current topics such as biotechnology, conservation, and the impact of human activities on ecosystems, preparing students for advanced study or careers in research, healthcare, environmental management, and related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Foundations in Microbiology 9th Edition by Kathleen Park Talaro
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27 Chapters
1932 Verified Questions
1932 Flashcards
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Page 2

Chapter 1: The Main Themes of Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A scientist studying helminths is working with bacteria.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Organisms called parasites are
A)always classified in the kingdom Monera.
B)always harmful to their host.
C)the decomposers in ecosystems.
D)always viruses.
E)free-living.
Answer: B
Q3) The scientist(s) that proposed assigning organisms to one of three domains is(are):
A)Robert Koch and Louis Pasteur.
B)Antonie van Leeuwenhoek.
C)Carl Woese and George Fox.
D)Robert Whittaker.
E)Francesco Redi.
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following pertain to <sup>14</sup><sub>6</sub>C except it
A)has 6 protons.
B)has 6 electrons.
C)has 14 neutrons.
D)is an isotope of carbon.
E)mass number is 14.
Answer: C
Q2) Isotopes are atoms of the same element that differ in their A)neutron number.
B)electron number.
C)proton number.
D)atomic number.
E)chemical properties.
Answer: A
Q3) The only part of an amino acid that differs from other amino acids is its R group.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 3: Tools of the Laboratory: Methods of Studying Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) The _____ of the microscope holds and allows selection of the objective lenses.
Answer: nosepiece
Q2) All of the following are correct about agar except A)it is flexible.
B)it melts at the boiling point of water (100<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>C).
C)it is a source of nutrition for bacteria.
D)it solidifies below 42<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>C.
E)it is solid at room temperature.
Answer: C
Q3) A reducing medium contains A)sugars that can be fermented.
B)extra oxygen.
C)hemoglobin, vitamins, or other growth factors.
D)substances that remove oxygen.
E)inhibiting agents.
Answer: D
Q4) The correct microbiological term for the tiny sample of specimen that is put into a nutrient medium in order to produce a culture is the _____.
Answer: inoculum

Page 5
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Chapter 4: A Survey of Prokaryotic Cells and Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) The region between the bacterial cell membrane and the cell wall is called the outer membrane.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Discuss the difference between Bacillus and bacilli, and the difference between Streptococcus and streptococci.
Q3) Peptidoglycan is a unique macromolecule found in bacterial A)cell walls.
B)cell membranes.
C)capsules.
D)slime layers.
E)inclusions.
Q4) Bacterial cells could have any of the following appendages, except A)flagella.
B)cilia.
C)fimbriae.
D)periplasmic flagella (axial filaments).
E)sex pili.

Page 6
Q5) Movement of a cell toward a chemical stimulus is termed _____.
Q6) The chemical components of ribosomes are proteins and _____.
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Page 7

Chapter 5: A Survey of Eukaryotic Cells and Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) The eukaryotic cell membrane is a bilayer of sterols.
A)True
B)False
Q2) All of the following are helminths except A)pinworms.
B)flukes.
C)trypanosomes.
D)roundworms.
E)tapeworms.
Q3) Organelles found in algae but not found in protozoa or fungi are the A)mitochondria.
B)lysosomes.
C)Golgi apparatus.
D)chloroplasts.
E)endoplasmic reticulum.
Q4) Compare and contrast the physical characteristics of protozoans, yeasts, and algae.
Q5) Compare and contrast the morphology of Cestodes, Trematodes, and Nematodes.
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Q6) A _____ originates from the Golgi apparatus as one type of vesicle that contains a variety of enzymes for intracellular digestion.

Chapter 6: An Introduction to Viruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not associated with every virus?
A)envelope
B)capsomers
C)capsid
D)nucleic acid
E)genome
Q2) T-even phages
A)include the poxviruses.
B)infect Escherichia coli cells.
C)enter host cells by engulfment.
D)have helical capsids.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) Infectious protein particles are called A)viroids.
B)phages.
C)prions.
D)oncogenic viruses.
E)spikes.
Q4) A(n) _____ is the protein shell around the nucleic acid core of a virus.
Q5) Viruses that infect bacteria are specifically called _____.
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Chapter 7: Microbial Nutrition, Ecology, and Growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) Facilitated diffusion is limited by
A)Substrate concentration
B)Carrier proteins in the membrane
C)Size of the pores in the membrane
D)Osmotic pressure
E)The size of the cell
Q2) Most of the dry weight of a microbial cell is from
A)Inorganic compounds
B)Minerals
C)Water
D)Organic compounds
E)Salts
Q3) The direct cell count, using a cytometer, can calculate viable cell numbers from a sample.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The degree of turbidity in a broth culture correlates to the amount of cell growth.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: An Introduction to Microbial Metabolism: the Chemical Crossroads of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) In which stage of aerobic respiration is water produced?
A)Glycolysis
B)Krebs cycle
C)Electron transport system
Q2) All organisms that are photosynthetic are oxygenic.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The best way to control a metabolic pathway is to control the fastest enzyme in the series.
A)True
B)False
Q4) When enzyme action stops due to a buildup of end product, this control is called
A)Negative feedback
B)Competitive inhibition
C)Enzyme induction
D)Enzyme repression
E)Feedback inhibition
Q5) Oxygen-containing ions are used by some bacteria in a cytochrome-like system.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: An Introduction to Microbial Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The process in which mutations are removed and the correct bases added is called A)Transduction
B)Excision repair
C)Frameshift
D)Back-mutation
E)Transformation
Q2) The jumping of a gene from one location to another is done by A)Conjugation
B)Transposons
C)Transformation
D)Transduction
E)Transmission
Q3) Okazaki fragments are attached to the growing end of the lagging strand by
A)DNA ligase
B)DNA polymerase
C)DNA helicase
D)DNA gyrase
E)Primase
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12

Chapter 10: Genetic Engineering: a Revolution in Molecular Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) An example of gene therapy is the insertion of the gene for human growth hormone into E.coli cells.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Restriction endonucleases are obtained from various species of bacteria.
A)True
B)False
Q3) All of the following are desirable features in a microbial cloning host, except it
A)can be grown in large quantities.
B)has a slow growth rate.
C)is capable of accepting plasmid vectors.
D)will secrete a high yield of proteins from expressed foreign genes.
E)has a genome that is well delineated.
Learning Outcome: 10.06 Characterize the events in cloning, using an example.
Topic: Basics of Genetic Engineering
Q4) In recombinant DNA technique, an enzyme called _____ is needed to seal the sticky ends of genes into plasmids or chromosomes.
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Q5) Two different nucleic acids can _____ by uniting at their complementary sites.
Chapter 11: Physical and Chemical Agents for Microbial Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these metals have antimicrobial properties associated with them?
A)Silver
B)Gold
C)Tin
D)Aluminum
E)Both A and B are correct.
Q2) All of the following are correct about food irradiation, except:
A)food is not made radioactive by the process.
B)the World Health Organization does not endorse this process.
C)it is approved in the U.S.for beef, chicken, and pork.
D)it can lead to a longer shelf life for the irradiated food.
E)no irradiated food can be sold without clear labeling.
Q3) _____ heat is more rapidly effective and efficient compared to _____ heat.
Q4) Microbiological contaminants are best described as:
A)unwanted microbes present on or in a substance.
B)any and all microbes present on or in a substance.
C)pathogenic microbes present on or in a substance.
D)vegetative microbes present on or in a substance.
E)None of the choices are correct.

Page 14
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Chapter 12: Drugs, Microbes, Host-The Elements of Chemotherapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe how the therapeutic index of a drug is determined and explain its function.
Q2) A "shotgun" approach to antimicrobial therapy involves
A)giving a narrow spectrum drug.
B)culturing the pathogen and identifying it.
C)performing the disk diffusion assay.
D)using a broad spectrum drug so that the chance of killing the pathogen is greater.
E)using antiviral and antibiotic drugs in combination.
Q3) Levaquin, a fluoroquinolone, kills viruses.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Mebendazole, niclosamide, and ivermectin are drugs used to treat _____ infections.
A)bacterial
B)fungal
C)protozoan
D)helminthic
E)virus
Q5) _____ are plasmids that contain genes for resistance to a drug.
Page 15
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Chapter 13: Microbe-Human Interactions: Infection, Disease, and Epidemiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) When would Koch's Postulates be utilized?
A)To determine the cause of a patient's illness in a hospital microbiology lab.
B)To develop a new antibiotic in a pharmaceutical lab.
C)To determine the cause of a new disease in a microbiology research lab.
D)To formulate a vaccine against a new pathogen in a genetic engineering lab.
E)Whenever the scientific method is used to investigate a microbiological problem.
Q2) Which portal of entry is the most commonly used by pathogens?
A)urogenital
B)gastrointestinal
C)respiratory
D)skin
E)They are all equally used as portals.
Q3) Write about some ways to prevent any contamination in lab while making sub-cultures.
Q4) Fomites, food, and air serve as indirect transmission routes of pathogens.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A _____ is an infection indigenous to animals that can, on occasion, be transmitted to humans.
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Chapter 14: An Introduction to Host Defenses and Innate
Immunities
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Sample Questions
Q1) During what process are hypochlorite and hydrogen peroxide produced to destroy bacteria and inhibit viral replication?
A)Inflammation
B)Phagocytosis
C)Interferon production
D)Complement production
E)Lysozyme production
Q2) Which is mismatched?
A)interferon alpha and beta - inhibits viral replication
B)interleukin-2 - stimulate T cell mitosis and B cell antibody production
C)serotonin - causes smooth muscle contraction
D)prostaglandins - activate eosinophils and B cells
E)tumor necrosis factor - increases chemotaxis and phagocytosis
Q3) The most numerous WBCs, that have multilobed nuclei and are very phagocytic are
A)Basophils.
B)Eosinophils.
C)Neutrophils.
D)Monocytes.
E)Lymphocytes.
Q4) The _____ system of blood proteins act to lyse foreign cells.
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Chapter 15: Adaptive, Specific Immunity and Immunization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Each _____ fragment of an antibody molecule contains the variable regions of a heavy and light chain that folds into a groove for one antigenic determinant.
Q2) Killed or inactivated vaccines are prepared by
A)removal of virulence genes from the microbe.
B)treatment with formalin, heat, or radiation.
C)passage of the pathogen through unnatural hosts or tissue culture.
D)long-term subculturing of the microbe.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) The albumin fraction of serum separated by electrophoresis will contain most of the antibodies.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Scientists are currently developing bananas that synthesize proteins from pathogens, as a delivery system to vaccinate populations that otherwise would not have access to them.
A)True
B)False
Q5) During presentation of APC-bound antigen, macrophages secrete the cytokine, _____, that activates T helper cells.
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Chapter 16: Disorders in Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Food allergies include gastrointestinal symptoms and often hives.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Any heightened or inappropriate immune response resulting in tissue damage is called a/an
A)autoimmune disease.
B)immunodeficiency.
C)hypersensitivity.
D)transfusion reaction.
E)desensitization.
Q3) _____ hypersensitivities involve soluble antigen with IgM or IgG forming complexes that can deposit in tissues.
Q4) The initial encounter with an allergen is called the A)sensitizing dose.
B)provocative dose.
C)allergic dose.
D)hypersensitivity dose.
E)desensitizing dose.
Q5) The ___________ theory explains that during embryonic growth, some tissues are immunologically privileged.
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Chapter 17: Procedures for Identifying Pathogens and Diagnosing Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Precipitation tests involve all of the following, except:
A)they rely on formation of visible clumps for detection.
B)they include the VDRL test for syphilis.
C)they are often performed in agar gels.
D)they can be done in a test tube by carefully adding antiserum over antigen solution.
E)a cloudy or opaque zone developing where antigen and antibody react
Q2) Maggie was told she has a positive titer to measles.Which of the following could explain this?
A)She was vaccinated against measles.
B)She had measles sometime in her life.
C)She has measles now.
D)The test was a false positive.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) Serological testing always involves reactions between specific antibody and antigen.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Compare and contrast agglutination and precipitation reactions, and include a description of one test for each type of reaction.
Page 20
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Chapter 18: The Gram-Positive and Gram-Negative Cocci
of Medical Importance
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are associated with subacute endocarditis, except:
A)it occurs in patients that have prior heart damage.
B)it is caused by immune system autoantibodies that attack heart and valve tissue.
C)oral bacteria get introduced by dental procedures to the blood.
D)bacteria colonize previously damaged heart tissue resulting in vegetation.
E)signs and symptoms include fever, heart murmur, and possible emboli.
Q2) All staphylococci can be differentiated from all streptococci because only staphylococci produce the enzyme _____ that is easily detected in the lab.
Q3) Which chemical produced by S.aureus is also known as "spreading factor"?
A)Coagulase
B)Penicillinase
C)Hemolysin
D)Hyaluronidase
E)Toxic shock syndrome toxin
Q4) Staphylococcus, Streptococcus, and Neisseria tend to stimulate pus production and are collectively referred to as _____ cocci.
Q5) The viridans group of streptococci and the pneumococcus produce _____ hemolysis on blood agar.
Page 21
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Chapter 19: The Gram-Positive Bacilli of Medical Importance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is not correct about Bacillus cereus?
A)present in soil
B)produce enterotoxins
C)causes foodborne intoxication
D)causes a zoonosis
E)associated with cooked rice, potato, and meat dishes that are stored at room temperature
Q2) Botox injections contain botulin toxin.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The major virulence factor of Corynebacterium diphtheriae that causes serious systemic effects is:
A)capsule.
B)metachromatic granules.
C)exotoxin.
D)endospores.
E)endotoxin.
Q4) Using specific examples, discuss how gram positive bacilli are divided into major genera.At the very least include the oxygen requirements, sporulation characteristics, and acid-fast test results.
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Chapter 20: The Gram-Negative Bacilli of Medical Importance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following species was once considered so benign that microbiologists used it to trace movements of air currents in hospitals and over cities?
A)Morganella
B)Providencia
C)Citrobacter
D)Serratia
E)Legionella
Q2) Characteristics of all the members of the family Enterobacteriaceae include
A)ferment lactose.
B)are normal flora of human intestines.
C)produce enterotoxins.
D)ferment glucose.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) Legionellosis is a zoonosis.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Compare and contrast shigellosis and salmonellosis.
Q5) The two true pathogenic enteric genera of the Enterobacteriaceae are _____ and _____.
Q6) Compare and contrast typhoid fever and salmonellosis. Page 23
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Page 24

Chapter 21: Miscellaneous Bacterial Agents of Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Syphilitic tumors called _____ develop in the liver, skin, bone, and cartilage during the tertiary stage of syphilis.
Q2) Discuss the activities or professions that would increase the risk of contracting Coxiella burnetii.
Q3) Oral flora bacteria on the tooth surface
A)develop a biofilm.
B)use fimbriae and slime layers to adhere.
C)include streptococci that metabolize sucrose, produce sticky glucans, and form plaque.
D)lactobacilli and streptococci ferment carbohydrates and produce acids that cause caries.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q4) Which of the following characteristics is NOT true of Treponema pallidum?
A)Requires mammalian host
B)Microaerophilic
C)Causative agent of syphilis
D)Solely utilizes glycolysis for energy
E)Grows well on chocolate agar in the laboratory
Q5) Discuss the role of Ixodes scapularis and Ixodes pacificus in Lyme disease.
Q6) The two bacterial genera of obligate parasites are _____ and _____.
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Chapter 22: The Fungi of Medical Importance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is mismatched?
A)Tinea capitis - ringworm of the beard
B)Tinea pedis - ringworm of the foot
C)Tinea cruis - ringworm of the groin
D)Tinea corporis - ringworm of the body
E)Tinea unguium - ringworm of the nails
Q2) Compare and contrast Histoplasmosis, Coccidioidomycosis, and Blastomycosis with regard to: a) causative agent, b) reservoir, c) transmission, and d) disease, including complications.
Q3) All fungi are heterotrophic and can break their substrates down by secreting enzymes.
A)True
B)False
Q4) This opportunist is the most frequent cause of life-threatening pneumonia in AIDS patients:
A)Cryptococcus neoformans
B)Candida albicans
C)Malassezia furfur
D)Pneumocystis (carinii) jiroveci
E)None of the choices are correct.
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Chapter 23: The Parasites of Medical Importance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Diseases transmitted by vectors include
A)balantidiasis.
B)amebiasis and trichomoniasis.
C)amebic meningoencephalitis.
D)trypanosomiasis and leishmaniasis.
E)cryptosporidiosis and cyclosporiasis.
Q2) Which is not correct about trichinosis?
A)It can be transmitted by eating undercooked pork.
B)It can be transmitted by eating bear meat.
C)Numerous cases occur each year in the U.S.
D)The first symptoms mimic influenza.
E)A cure is not available once the larvae have encysted in muscles.
Q3) Chagas disease involves transmission of the pathogen by the A)reduviid, "kissing," bug.
B)tsetse fly.
C)Anopheles mosquito.
D)phlebotomine (sand) fly.
E)hard-bodied tick.
Q4) Control of _____ revolves around mosquito control and methods to prevent human-mosquito contact.
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Chapter 24: Introduction to Viruses That Infect Humans: the
Dna Viruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following pertain to monkeypox, except:
A)symptoms include skin pocks, fever, and swollen lymph nodes.
B)outbreaks have occurred in Africa.
C)transmission is typically by contact with monkeys, squirrels, and rats.
D)a recent U.S.outbreak involved pet prairie dogs infected by an African rat.
E)the virus has shown a trend in becoming less virulent, with fewer outbreaks in humans.
Q2) Molluscum contagiosum is transmitted by direct contact with skin lesions, fomites, and sexual activity.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The smallpox vaccine uses the _____ virus.
Q4) Varicella and herpes zoster are caused by the same virus.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The only body fluid that can transmit hepatitis B virus is blood.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Using at least three examples, summarize how HPV can be prevented.
Page 28
Q7) Adenoviruses cause an inflammation of the conjunctiva and cornea called _____.
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Chapter 25: The Rna Viruses That Infect Humans
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Sample Questions
Q1) A frequent cancer that is seen in AIDS patients is:
A)leukemia.
B)Hodgkin's lymphoma.
C)Kaposi's sarcoma.
D)melanoma.
E)colon cancer.
Q2) Which is incorrect about measles?
A)Koplik spots appear before the characteristic rash.
B)Humans are the sole reservoir.
C)Vaccination is with an attenuated oral vaccine.
D)It is also known as rubeola.
E)It is one of the most contagious infectious diseases.
Q3) Which is correct about influenza?
A)Antigenic shift is a minor change in the viral strain.
B)The virus is found in swine and cats.
C)The virus is grown in poultry eggs for vaccines.
D)Influenza A has a mortality rate of close to 35%.
E)The virus binds to the intestinal mucosa.
Q4) An antigenic _____ occurs when genome segments from different influenza strains recombine.
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Chapter 26: Environmental Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The primary role of producers is to recycle nutrients in an ecosystem.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following cannot be photoautrophs?
A)Bacteria
B)Fungi
C)Plants
D)Algae
E)All of the above can be photoautrophs.
Q3) The conversion of gaseous nitrogen (N<sub>2</sub>) to the ammonium ion (NH<sub>4</sub><sup>+</sup>) occurs during
A)ammonification.
B)nitrogen fixation.
C)photosynthesis.
D)nitrification.
E)denitrification.
Q4) Mycorrhizae are the mutualistic relationship between fungi and the roots of certain plants.
A)True
B)False

Page 30
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Chapter 27: Applied and Industrial Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hypertonic levels of sugar or salt create high __________ pressure that plasmolyzes bacteria.
Q2) A food _____ results from ingestion of whole microbial cells that target the intestine.
Q3) Freshly fermented beer is lagered, meaning it is treated with potassium metabisulfate.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What process does wine go through in order to prevent it from turning to vinegar?
A)Irradiation
B)Pasteurization
C)Autoclaving
D)Filtration
E)Distillation
Q5) Describe the major steps in water purification as carried out by a modern municipal treatment plant.
Q6) Drying, or _________ is not a reliable microbicidal method.
Q7) The process of recovery, purification, and packaging of product is known as _________ processing.
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