Chapter 8: Cell-Cell Interactions
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Q1) All of the following can be proteins found in the extracellular matrix of animal cells except A)collagen.
B)fibronectin.
C)actin.
D)fibrillin.
Q2) Scientists have found that extracellular matrix components may induce specific gene expression in embryonic tissues such as the liver and testis.For this to happen,there must be direct communication between the extracellular matrix and the developing cells.Which kind of transmembrane protein would most likely be involved in this kind of induction?
A)integrins
B)collagens
C)actins
D)fibronectins
Q3) Hormones function as A)cell receptors.
B)second messengers.
C)signal molecules.
D)neurotransmitters.
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Chapter 9: Cellular Respiration and Fermentation
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Q1) Substrate level phosphorylation occurs in the citric acid cycle when Succinyl CoA is converted to Succinate.Which of the following statements about this event is true?
A)Inorganic phosphate is added to ADP by HS-CoA thereby creating ATP.
B)Inorganic phosphate is used to create GTP.GTP then donates a phosphate group to ADP to create ATP.
C)A phosphate group is removed from HS-CoA and is donated to GDP to form GTP.GTP then donates a phosphate group to ADP to create ATP.
Q2) Why might adding inorganic phosphate to a reaction mixture where glycolysis was rapidly proceeding help sustain the metabolic pathway?
A) It would increase the amount of glucose available for catabolism.
B)It would increase the oxygen supply available for aerobic respiration because each phosphate group has four oxygen atoms as constituents.
C)The metabolic intermediates of glycolysis are phosphorylated.
D)It increases the energy level of the electrons that are transferred to the electron transport chain where ATP is produced.
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Chapter 10: Photosynthesis
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Q1) How does carbon fixation differ between C and C plants?
A)C plants undergo carbon fixation by carboxylation of a four-carbon substrate (oxaloacetate),while in C plants,a three-carbon compound (phosphoglycerate)is carboxylated.
B)Both C and C plants involve carboxylation of ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate by rubisco;but in C ,the first stable intermediate is 3-phosphoglycerate,and in C ,it is oxaloacetate.
C)C plants don't undergo photorespiration,but C plants do.
D)Rubisco is the primary enzyme that catalyzes carbon fixation in C plants,and phosphoenolpyruvate carboxylase can catalyze carbon fixation in C plants.
Q2) If pigments from a particular species of plant are extracted and subjected to paper chromatography,which of the following is the most believable result?
A)Paper chromatography for the plant would isolate a single band of pigment that is characteristic of the particular plant.
B)Paper chromatography would separate the pigments from a particular plant into several bands.
C)The single band of pigment that is isolated is always some shade of green.
D)Paper chromatography isolates only the pigments that reflect green light.
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Chapter 11: The Cell Cycle
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Q1) Based on structures present in the figure above,this cell is in which substage of interphase?
A)S phase
B)G phase
C)G phase
D)G phase
Q2) Which of the following statements is FALSE with respect to both bacterial binary fission and eukaryotic mitotic cell division?
A)DNA must be replicated prior to division.
B)Daughter cells must contain the same hereditary material as one another and the parent cell.
C)Cytoplasmic materials must be distributed to each of the daughter cells.
D) The nuclear envelope must disintegrate before the spindle apparatus can move the chromosomes.
Q3) The term contact inhibition refers to the
A)exchange of signals between cells using cell surface receptions.
B)cessation of cell growth when two cells touch each other.
C)action of non-competitive inhibitors on the catalytic activity of enzymes.
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13
Chapter 12: Meiosis
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Q1) In sexual reproduction,the variation among offspring,and the fact that they are genetically different from their parents,is due to which of the following?
A)random alignment of homologues during meiosis I
B)crossing over
C)random process of fertilization
D)all of the above contribute to genetic variability in sexual reproduction
Q2) If meiosis produces haploid cells,how is the diploid number restored for those organisms that spend most of their life cycle in the diploid state?
A)DNA replication
B)reverse transcription
C)synapsis
D)fertilization
Q3) What happens when an individual has an odd number of chromosome sets (e.g.,triploidy)?
A)They produce offspring with an even number of chromosome sets (e.g.,tetraploid,hexaploid).
B)Their offspring are often sterile.
C)They go through three sets of meiosis (meiosis I,meiosis II,and meiosis III)
D)Their cells are unable to complete meiosis.
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Chapter 13: Mendel and the Gene
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Q1) Assuming independent assortment for all gene pairs,what is the probability that the following parents,AABbCc × AaBbCc,will produce an AaBbCc offspring?
A)1/2
B)1/16
C)1/8
D)3/4
E)9/16
Q2) A couple has a child with Harman's ataxia (a recessive disorder).If this couple has second child,what is the probability that child will have ataxia?
A)0
B)2/3
C)1/2
D)1/4
E)1/16
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Chapter 14: Dna and the Gene: Synthesis and Repair
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Q1) The fact that within a double-stranded DNA molecule,adenine forms two hydrogen bonds with thymine and cytosine forms three hydrogen bonds with guanine is known as A)semi-conservative replication.
B)complementary base pairing.
C)secondary structure of a DNA molecule.
D)a double helix.
Q2) If during the process of DNA replication,the enzyme topoisomerase was not functioning (i.e.it was mutated)what do you expect will happen to the replication process?
A)The double helix would not begin to unwind at all.
B)The double helix would begin to unwind but this unwinding would stop prematurely due to over-twisting of the DNA.
C)The double helix would unwind completely but no primers would be added to the template strand.
D)The double helix would unwind completely but no new strand would be created due to the formation of secondary structures.
Q3) Refer to Figure 14.3.Which of the structures in the figure breaks hydrogen bonds between complementary bases?
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Chapter 15: How Genes Work
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Q1) All three domains (Bacteria,Archaea,and Eukarya)follow the same genetic code.Which of the following statements would most likely be accurate given that information?
A)The genetic code evolved three times.
B)The genetic code evolved before DNA replaced RNA as the unit of genetic information.
C)There were no mutations following the evolution of the genetic code.
D)The genetic code evolved before the different domains diverged.
Q2) Given the DNA template shown above,which of the following bases would you find in a complementary RNA strand?
A)A-A-A-A-A
B)U-U-U-U-U
C)T-T-T-T-T
D)G-C-G-C-G
Q3) What feature makes organisms less vulnerable to small mutations in DNA replication that are not corrected?
A)alternative splicing
B)redundancy in the genetic code
C)differential gene expression
D)pleiotropy
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Transcription, RNA Processing, and Translation
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Q1) What is the function of the 3 end of the tRNA?
A)It attaches to the amino acid.
B)It base pairs with the codon of mRNA.
C)It stabilizes the tRNA-amino acid complex.
D)It is the active site of this ribozyme.
Q2) Which of the following processes is central to the initiation of transcription?
A)binding of sigma to the promoter region
B)formation of a phosphodiester bond in the elongating RNA strand
C)binding of DNA polymerase to the promoter region
D)formation of a DNA primer
Q3) During elongation,RNA polymerase has three prominent channels,or grooves.These channels provide sites for all of the following,EXCEPT
A)a site for the double-stranded DNA molecule.
B)a site for the entry of ribonucleoside triphosphates.
C)a site for the exit of the diphosphates removed from the nucleotide triphosphates.
D)a site for the growing RNA strand.
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Chapter 17: Control of Gene Expression in Bacteria
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Q1) How did Cronin et al.activate expression of tyrosinase to change the color of a white (albino)mouse to brown?
A)They exercised the mice vigorously.
B)They fed the mice a diet rich in glucose.
C)They added IPTG,a lactose analogue,to the drinking water.
D)They added cAMP to the drinking water.
Q2) Imagine that you've set up a genetic screen to identify E.coli mutants that cannot metabolize the amino acid tryptophan.Beginning with a master plate containing many colonies,you prepare replica plates on medium with glucose or tryptophan as the only energy source.You would look for colonies that
A)cannot grow on either type of media.
B)can grow on both types of media.
C)can grow only on the plates with tryptophan.
D)can grow only on the plates with glucose.
Q3) A technique that can be used to identify mutant bacterial cells is called
A) indicator plating.
B)replica plating.
C)master plating.
D)comparison plating.
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Control of Gene Expression in Eukaryotes
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Q1) Imagine that you are studying the control of -globin gene expression in immature red blood cells (mature red blood cells contain -globin protein,but lack a nucleus and,therefore,the -globin gene).If you deleted a sequence of DNA outside the protein-coding region of the -globin gene and found that this increased the rate of transcription,the deleted sequence likely functions as a(n) A)promoter.
B)promoter-proximal element.
C)enhancer.
D)silencer.
E)any of the above.
Q2) Alternative splicing takes place in the A)nucleus.
B)rough endoplasmic reticulum.
C)ribosome.
D)polysome.
E)cytoplasm.
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Chapter 19: Analyzing and Engineering Genes
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Q1) In the form of gene therapy used successfully for severe combined immunodeficiency syndrome (SCID)-X1,the genetic engineering of human cells is done
A)by injecting engineered viruses into the patient's bloodstream.
B)by injecting engineered viruses into the patient's bone marrow.
C)by treating a relative's cultured bone marrow cells with genetically engineered viruses and then injecting these cells into the patient's bone marrow.
D)by isolating the patient's bone marrow cells,infecting them with genetically engineered viruses,and injecting them back into the patient's bone marrow.
Q2) How can an amino acid sequence be used to design a gene-specific hybridization probe?
A)A portion of a polypeptide chain can be synthesized based on the amino acid sequence of the full protein.
B)A protein can be purified,digested with proteases that cleave it at specific sites,and one of the peptide fragments can be used as a probe.
C)All possible nucleotide sequences that could encode a portion of the polypeptide can be synthesized and used as probes.
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Chapter 20: Genomics
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Q1) If the sequence of a cDNA matches a DNA sequence in the genome,then this genomic DNA is likely to
A)code for a protein.
B)code for a tRNA.
C)code for an rRNA.
D)be part of an intron.
E)be a regulatory sequence.
Q2) A DNA microarray is a tool that owes its existence to earlier genomics investigations.What essential contribution of genomics makes microarrays possible?
A)recently improved RNA sequencing technologies
B)continuously improving methods of gene cloning
C)more efficient techniques for cDNA synthesis
D)knowledge of which DNA sequences to synthesize for the array
E)The concept that hybridization between single-stranded nucleic acids can be used as a means of identifying any DNA sequence.
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Chapter 21: Principles of Development
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Q1) Gastrulation is an important event in early embryonic development.Which of the following is NOT a result of this process?
A)formation of three embryonic cell layers
B)movement and alignment of many embryonic cells
C)determination of cell types as a result of cell-cell interactions
D)formation of specialized plant tissues
Q2) Animal species exhibit an enormous diversity of genetic information contained in nuclear DNA.This may be reflected in very different genome sizes.One might predict that animals with more complex structures might show greater numbers of different types of mRNAs during development.Scientists investigating this possibility were surprised to find that similar numbers of genes were transcribed at a particular time in development among species whose genomes differed greatly in size.How can this result be interpreted?
A)Some species retain large amounts of DNA that are never used.
B)The number of genes transcribed at any one time is tightly regulated and independent of genome size.
C)Genome size has nothing to do with the physical complexity of the species.
D)Nuclear DNA complexity is unrelated to the complexity of mRNAs transcribed during development.
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Page 23
Chapter 22: An Introduction to Animal Development
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Q1) The cells of the somites are determined to become all of the following tissues EXCEPT
A)bone tissue.
B)muscle tissue.
C)nervous tissue.
D)skin tissue.
E)connective tissue.
Q2) Sperm-egg interactions are species-specific in sea urchins,but not in mammals.What might be one reason for this difference?
A)Other kinds of signals serve similar functions in mammals.
B)Sperm-egg recognition relies on egg cytoplasmic components in mammals.
C)Sperm have evolved to become more selective in mammals.
D)Sea urchin fertilization occurs in open ocean.
Q3) Which of the following directors of embryonic development can be found in the unfertilized egg?
A)tissue-specific proteins
B)proteins in the organizer region
C)cytoplasmic determinants
D)mRNAs from embryonic genome
E)proteins in the gray crescent
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Page 24
Chapter 23: An Introduction to Plant Development
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Q1) If the expression of the PHAN gene is blocked in plants,what will be the likely result?
A)Plants will fail to develop leaves.
B)Plants will develop more leaves than usual.
C)Plants will develop leaves in very simple shapes.
D)Plants will develop leaves in inappropriate places.
Q2) An elm tree is heavily shaded on one side due to growth of a nearby tree.How would the elm respond to such a change in its environment?
A)The elm tree cannot respond as only animals can respond to their environment.
B)The elm tree would stop growing on the shaded side and grow more on the unshaded side.
C)The elm tree would stop growing because of a lack of sunlight.
D)The elm tree would become dormant until the nearby tree died.
Q3) In the early plant embryo,cells divide asymmetrically.Which structure does NOT result from divisions of the apical cell?
A)the suspensor
B)the cotyledons
C)the hypocotyls
D)the shoot
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Chapter 24: Evolution by Natural Selection
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Q1) Read the scenario above.If the population is maintained on media that lacks rifampin,what is expected to occur over a period of time?
A)The rifampin resistant bacteria will increase in proportion compared to the rifampin susceptible bacteria.
B)The rifampin susceptible bacteria will increase in proportion to the rifampin resistant bacteria.
C)The rifampin susceptible bacteria and the rifampin resistant bacteria will remain in approximately equal proportions.
Q2) Which of the following is an example of acclimation?
A)Some hemoglobins have a higher affinity for oxygen than others.
B)Some animals grow thicker coats when exposed to low temperatures.
C)Some bacteria can use the energy from sunlight to make sugars.
D)Some plant species can absorb nitrogen better than others can.
E)Some fungi are larger than others are.
Q3) Gill pouches in chick,human,and house-cat embryos are an example of
A)structural homology.
B)developmental homology.
C)genetic homology.
D)the inheritance of acquired characters.
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Page 26
Chapter 25: Evolutionary Processes
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Q1) Which of the following is true?
A)Hardy-Weinberg can be used to examine only 1 gene at a time.
B)Hardy-Weinberg considers an organism's entire genotype (all genes).
C)Hardy-Weinberg can be used to examine more than 1 gene at a time.
Q2) Male turkeys have a snood,a flap of skin that hangs across their beak.Snood length is negatively correlated with parasite load (e.g.,males with longer snoods have fewer parasites),and females prefer to mate with long-snooded males.This is an example of
A)the fundamental asymmetry of sex.
B)sexual selection via female choice.
C)sexual selection via male-male competition.
D)a genetic marker.
Q3) Which of the following describes what we should expect when a population is in Hardy-Weinberg genetic equilibrium?
A)a sexually reproducing population that is increasing in size
B)an asexually reproducing population that is increasing in size
C)a sexually reproducing population that is not evolving
D)an asexually reproducing population that is not evolving
E)a sexually reproducing population that is evolving.
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Chapter 26: Speciation
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Q1) Three populations of crickets look very similar,but the males have courtship songs that sound different.What function would this difference in song likely serve if the populations came in contact?
A)a prezygotic isolating mechanism
B)a postzygotic isolating mechanism
C)all of the above
Q2) Which of the following does not tend to promote speciation?
A)the founder effect
B)gene flow
C)natural selection
D)polyploidy
Q3) A population of ground squirrels is separated by a glacier.Changes in which of the following would most likely result in reproductive isolation if the two populations came into contact several generations later?
A)A change in the fur colour of one group.
B)A change in the diet of one group.
C)A change in the gene encoding of a receptor on the egg-cell surface in one group.
D)A change in the alarm call of one group to warn of predators.
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Chapter 27: Phylogenies and the History of Life
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Q1) To use a genetic sequence as a molecular clock,the changes in nucleotides in the sequence must have accumulated at a steady pace over time.Drawing on what you know about codons and redundancy in the genetic code,which type of change would most likely be the type that is useful for a molecular clock?
A)changes in the first nucleotide pair in the codon
B)changes in the second nucleotide pair in the codon
C)changes in the third nucleotide pair in the codon
D)All of these changes are equally useful for a molecular clock.
Q2) Applying the principle of parsimony to the trait "ability to fly," which of the two phylogenetic trees above is better?
A)Tree 1
B)Tree 2
C)Both trees are equally parsimonious.
Q3) The cladistic approach to estimating phylogenetic trees is most like the approach of which species concept?
A)morphospecies concept
B)biological species concept
C)phylogenetic species concept
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29
Chapter 28: Bacteria and Archaea
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Q1) You need to identify the major type of bacteria living on the shower curtain in your bathroom and find out what they use as a food source.What is the most efficient method for answering this question?
A)enrichment culture
B)direct sequencing
C)Enrichment culture and direct sequencing are equally efficient methods.
Q2) Which of the following can a chemolithotrophic bacteria use as a source of energy?
A)light
B)glucose
C)water
D)ammonia
Q3) While examining a rock surface,you have discovered an interesting new organism.Which of the following criteria will allow you to classify the organism as belonging to Bacteria,but not Archaea or Eukarya?
A)It is unicellular.
B)Its cell walls are made primarily of peptidoglycan.
C)The organism does not have nucleus.
D)It can survive at a temperature over 100°C.
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Chapter 29: Protists
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Q1) A particular species of protist lacks the ability to engulf food and does not contain chloroplasts.However,gene sequencing data indicate that this species evolved from a lineage containing many species with the ability to engulf food.What does this information suggest about this species of protist?
A)It probably reproduces asexually.
B)It is likely parasitic.
C)It is likely aquatic.
D)It probably eats bacteria.
Q2) Alternation of generations occurs in protists.Which of the following represents the correct sequence of events for this mode of reproduction?
A)gametophyte gamete fusion sporophyte spore gametophyte
B)sporophyte spore fusion gametophyte gamete sporophyte
C)gametophyte fusion sporophyte spore gamete gametophyte
D)gamete fusion gametophyte spore sporophyte gamete
Q3) According to the phylogenetic tree in the figure above,Giardia intestinalis constitutes a ________ group.
A)paraphyletic
B)monophyletic
C)polyphyletic
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Page 31
Chapter 30: Green Algae and Land Plants
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Q1) Late in the season,when only hawk moths were present,researchers painted the red flowers white.What would you expect?
A)Unpainted red flowers would produce more fruits than white flowers would.
B)Red flowers painted white would produce more fruits than red flowers would.
C)Red and white flowers would produce the same numbers of fruits.
Q2) Which of these are spore-producing structures?
A)sporophyte (capsule)of a moss
B)antheridium of a moss or fern
C)archegonium of a moss or fern
D)All of these answers apply.
Q3) Seed plants are heterosporous.This means that
A)they produce two types of spores.
B)they produce two types of sperm.
C)they produce two types of pollen.
D)they produce two types of eggs.
Q4) As you stroll through a moist forest,you are most likely to see a A)zygote of a green alga.
B)gametophyte of a moss.
C)sporophyte of a liverwort.
D)gametophyte of a fern.
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Chapter 31: Fungi
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Q1) It has been hypothesized that fungi and plants have a mutualistic relationship because plants make sugars available for the fungi's use.What is the best evidence in support of this hypothesis?
A)Fungi survive better when they are associated with plants.
B)Radioactively labeled sugars produced by plants eventually show up in the fungi they are associated with.
C)Fungi associated with plants have the ability to undergo photosynthesis and produce their own sugars,while those not associated with plants do not produce their own sugars.
D)Radioactive label experiments show that plants pass crucial raw materials to the fungus for manufacturing sugars.
Q2) Plant biomass (growth)in Figure 31.6 increases as fungal diversity increases.True or false?
A)True
B)False
Q3) The plants in graphs (b),(c),(e),and (f)have mycorrhizal associations.True or false?
A)True
B)False
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Page 33
Chapter 32: An Introduction to Animals
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Q1) The text describes four ways,or tactics,of feeding.Which of the following is NOT one of those ways?
A)suspension feeding
B)food-mass feeding
C)herbivory feeding
D)deposit feeding
E)fluid feeding
Q2) If humans were characterized as undergoing metamorphosis,human development from infant to adult would be better described as
A)hemimetabolous metamorphosis.
B)holometabolous metamorphosis.
Q3) Comb jellies may not be the most familiar animal to you,but they are critical in the food chain because they make up a significant portion of the planktonic biomass.Their feeding strategy is predatory and involves adhesives or mucous on their tentacles or other body parts.What feeding tactic do these animals use?
A)suspension feeder
B)fluid feeder
C)deposit feeder
D)food-mass feeder
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Page 34
Chapter 33: Protostome Animals
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Q1) Which of these mollusc features substitutes for the coelom by providing a space for organ development and circulation of bodily fluids?
A)visceral mass
B)foot
C)mantle
D)none of the above
Q2) Which adaptation is unique to insects among all protostomes?
A)the ability to move via jointed limbs
B)the ability to move by flying
C)the ability to consume terrestrial plants
D)the ability to parasitize other organisms
E)the ability to metamorphose
Q3) Among protostomes,which morphological trait has shown the most diversity?
A)type of symmetry (bilateral vs.radial vs.none)
B)type of body cavity (coelom vs.pseudocoelom vs.acoelom)
C)number of embryonic tissue types (diploblasty vs.triploblasty)
D)direction of gastrulation (protostome vs.deuterostome)
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Chapter 34: Deuterostome Animals
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Q1) Which of the following groups is classified as Homo sapiens?
A)Neanderthals
B)Cro-Magnons
C)Paranthropus
D)Australopithecus
E)None of the above
Q2) Which of the following characteristics would not be helpful in distinguishing between a hagfish and a lamprey?
A)presence or absence of a rasping tongue
B)presence or absence of fins
C)presence or absence of cartilage along a dorsal hollow nerve cord
D)feeding tactics
E)All of the above would be helpful in distinguishing these two groups.
Q3) Which evolutionary innovation was most significant in helping tetrapods move to dry terrestrial environments?
A)the lung
B)the amniotic egg
C)bone
D)limb specialization
E)endothermy
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Chapter 35: Viruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) You are a physician,and you suspect your patient has a viral infection that has never been seen in humans.The infection is localized in the cells along the lining of the small intestine.The cells in this area are regularly sloughed off and replaced with new cells;that is,these cells are constantly dividing.When you isolate this new virus and incubate it in culture,you discover that it does not replicate well in cultures that have slowly dividing cells,but it does much more damage in cultures that have actively dividing cells.What do these findings suggest about this new virus?
A)It is a double-stranded RNA virus.
B)It is a negative-sense,single-stranded RNA virus.
C)It is a double-stranded DNA virus.
D)It is a single-stranded DNA virus.
Q2) To make a vaccine against mumps,measles,or rabies,which type of viruses would be useful?
A)dsDNA viruses
B)negative-sense ssRNA viruses
C)retroviruses
D)positive-sense ssRNA viruses
E)dsRNA viruses
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Page 37
Chapter 36: Plant Form and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) What part of the root is responsible for water and nutrient absorption?
A)root cap
B)mucigel
C)zone of cellular division
D)zone of cellular elongation
E)zone of cellular maturation
Q2) Which of the following structure-function pairs is correct?
A)chloroplasts-give shape and support to the cell
B)plasmodesmata-store pigments and fluids
C)cell walls-help support plants
D)vacuoles-link one cell to another
E)pigments-digest waste products
Q3) Which of these is not an example of a parenchyma cell?
A)stem cells that form a callus in the making of cuttings
B)cells that can form clones in tissue culture of plants
C)support cells near the outside of nonwoody stems
D)edible cells in fruits and vegetables
E)tissue in leaves that photosynthesizes
Q4) Explain why it is possible for big old hollow trees to live and grow for many years,still producing green leaves.
Page 38
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Chapter 37: Water and Sugar Transport in Plants
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Q1) Water potential of plants during night is ________ compared to day water potential due to ________.
A)increased;open stomata
B)increased;closed stomata
C)decreased;open stomata
D)decreased;closed stomata
Q2) Researchers have investigated bidirectional transport in phloem by applying different radioisotope tracers to two source leaves and monitoring a point between the two sources for the presence of the tracers.Which of the following observations would not support the pressure-flow hypothesis? Appearance of the two tracers in
A)sieve-tube members of different vascular bundles.
B)a single sieve-tube member.
C)adjacent sieve-tube members of the same vascular bundle.
Q3) Which of the following is a similarity between xylem and phloem transport?
A)Many cells in both tissues have sieve plates.
B)Expenditure of energy from ATP is required.
C)Transpiration is required for both processes.
D)Bulk flow of water is involved.
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Chapter 38: Plant Nutrition
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Q1) After mutagenesis and screening,you have found a mutant that is able to grow in soil with high salt content.Chemical analysis showed that this plant has a decreased amount of Na relative to normal plants.What kind of mutation do you predict this plant contains?
A)mutation in the plasma membrane sodium channel
B)mutation in the metallothioneins
C)mutation in the tonoplast sodium channel
D)mutation in the tonoplast antiporter
E)none of the above
Q2) In an experiment,you find that the addition of arbuscular mycorrhizal fungi to the soil improves the growth rate of tomato plants.Which of the following conclusions are supported by your experiment?
A)Hyphae of fungi were able to penetrate the walls of the tomato root cells.
B)The soil used was deficient in nitrogen or phosphorus.
C)Tomato plants associate with mycorrhizal fungi.
D)Arbuscular mycorrhizal fungi can supply tomato plants with nutrients and water.
E)All of the above answers apply.
Q3) Give two reasons that relatively few plants thrive in bogs.
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Page 40
Chapter 39: Plant Sensory Systems, signals, and Responses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Antisense gene sequences can be used to block the transcription of specific genes in a cell or group of cells.Suppose you took a cutting from a plant and treated it with an antisense gene that would block the transcription of an enzyme involved in auxin production.What would happen to your cutting?
A)Photosynthesis would decrease.
B)It would grow to be very tall and thin.
C)Adventitious root growth would be greatly reduced.
D)It would not be able to initiate a hypersensitive response.
E)All of the above answers apply.
Q2) Which of the following is not a characteristic of plant hormones?
A)They exist in plant in very tiny amounts.
B)They change their shape in response to stimulus.
C)They are able to move from one cell to another cell through extracellular spaces.
D)They affect only cells with an appropriate receptor.
E)All of the above are correct descriptions of plant hormones.
Q3) The cells that have phosphorylated phototropin receptors elongate in response to blue light.
A)true
B)false
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Page 41
Chapter 40: Plant Reproduction
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Sample Questions
Q1) If an ovary contains 50 ovules,what is the minimum number of pollen grains that must land in order to form 50 mature seeds?
A)25
B)50
C)100
D)It is impossible to tell.
Q2) During self-fertilization,which of the following is absent?
A)pollination
B)transfer of pollen from one plant to the other
C)transfer of pollen from anther to stigma
D)formation of gametes
E)all of the above
Q3) A population of flowers varies from deep blue to nearly white.Bees are active during the day and prefer color.Moths are active at night,when colors are not very visible and white is more conspicuous.Design a scenario in which the blue and white flowers form two species where there once was one species.You must end with a conclusion that the two new species cannot interbreed (a definition of a species).
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Chapter 41: Animal Form and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Wading birds in northern climates are able to walk in pools of water on ice without dying of hypothermia because they have countercurrent heat exchangers in their legs.These exchangers allow heat in warm blood going to the feet to be transferred to cool blood returning from the feet.Why are such countercurrent heat exchangers so efficient at conserving heat?
A)The gradient between the two currents is maintained even as one current cools and the other current heats.
B)There is a large temperature differential from one end of each current to the other.
C)Blood in the arteries and veins flow in the same direction,so there is no loss to friction.
D)All of the above apply.
E)A and B only apply.
Q2) What tissue types make up a human hand?
A)connective and epithelial tissues only
B)connective,nervous,cardiac,and epithelial tissues
C)connective,nervous,and epithelial tissues only
D)connective,nervous,muscle,and epithelial tissues
E)muscle,nervous,and epithelial tissues
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Chapter 42: Water and Electrolyte Balance in Animals
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Sample Questions
Q1) On a very hot,dry day,you lose ________ through the skin.
A)water and electrolytes
B)water only
C)heat only
D)electrolytes only
Q2) Salmon eggs hatch in freshwater.The fish then migrate to the ocean (a hypertonic solution)and,after several years of feeding and growing,return to freshwater to breed.How can these organisms make the transition from freshwater to ocean water and back to freshwater?
A)The rectal gland functions in the ocean water,and chloride cells function in freshwater.
B)Different gill cells are involved in osmoregulation in freshwater than in salt water.
C)Salmon surface to breathe oxygen,so there is no need for more than one mechanism of osmoregulation.
D)Their metabolism changes in salt water to degrade electrolytes.
Q3) Where does filtration take place in the figure above?
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Chapter 43: Animal Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) Refer to Figure 43.1.Which of the mouthparts shown in the figure above are specialized for crushing and grinding?
Q2) What is the role of HCl in the human stomach?
A)breaks down lipids
B)activates pepsin into pepsinogen
C)denatures proteins
D)denatures carbohydrates
Q3) Why did scientists originally hypothesize that proteolytic enzymes like pepsin and trypsin are secreted in inactive form?
A)These proteolytic enzymes,in active form,would digest the very tissues that synthesize them.
B)They identified the hormone that activates pepsin and trypsin.
C)The stomach is too acidic to maintain these enzymes in their active form.
D)Upon study of chief cells,they were able to isolate active forms of pepsin and trypsin.
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Chapter 44: Gas Exchange and Circulation
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Q1) Premature infants may not produce surfactants in the alveoli of their lungs.What implications does this have for their health and survival?
A)The partial pressure of oxygen drops significantly in the absence of these surfactants,and the child may suffer brain damage from oxygen deprivation.
B)The surface tension of fluids in the lungs may be too high for the lungs to expand fully during inhalation.
C)Surfactants are necessary to trap pollutants and other material that enters the lungs during inhalation;thus,lung disease is more likely.
D)Surfactants raise the surface tension of alveolar fluids so that deoxygenated air does not get trapped in the lungs during exhalation.
Q2) Which of the following mechanisms are used to regulate blood pressure in the closed circulatory system of vertebrates?
A)changing the force of heart contraction
B)constricting and relaxing sphincters in the walls of arterioles
C)adjusting the volume of blood contained in the veins
D)all of the above
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Chapter 45: Electrical Signals in Animals
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following types of ions are most likely to cross the plasma membrane of a resting neuron?
A)K
B)Na
C)Ca
D)Cl
E)Mg
Q2) If the sodium-potassium pump were inactivated by a drug,what would happen to the neuron's membrane potential?
A)immediate loss of resting potential
B)immediate loss of action potentials
C)slow decrease of resting potential
D)no effect
Q3) Which nervous pathway does sensory information travel through to elicit a response in the effector cells?
A)CNS afferent division CNS interneuron PNS efferent division effector
B)PNS efferent division CNS interneuron PNS afferent division effector
C)CNS efferent division CNS interneuron PNS afferent division effector
D)PNS afferent division CNS interneuron PNS efferent division effector
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Chapter 46: Animal Sensory Systems and Movement
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Sample Questions
Q1) The amount of depolarization that occurs in a sound-receptor cell is proportional to the volume (loudness)of the sound.
A)true
B)false
Q2) How could you genetically modify an animal so that it would distinguish more shades of green?
A)Induce genes to produce a greater number of cone cells in the fovea.
B)Introduce genes for different opsins that respond in the green region of the spectrum.
C)Introduce genes to produce green fluid in the eyeball,because green fluids will not absorb green light.
D)Induce increased production of cGMP to increase opening of cGMP-gated sodium channels.
Q3) Corneal surgery is now routinely performed to improve vision.This surgery
A)improves the circulation of nutrients to the eye.
B)improves the focusing of light onto the retina.
C)increases the amount of light entering the eye.
D)increases the sensitivity of the photoreceptors.
E)answers B and C both apply.
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Chapter 47: Chemical Signals in Animals
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Sample Questions
Q1) A cluster of tumor cells that produces and secretes growth factors to induce surrounding cells to grow and divide are showing which type of cell-to-cell signalling?
A)autocrine
B)paracrine
C)endocrine
D)neuroendocrine
Q2) You are dissecting a fish in your biology laboratory section.Your teaching assistant points out a long oval structure and tells you it is an endocrine gland.Which of the following is true about this structure?
A)It secretes a product that is carried in the bloodstream or other fluids to target cells.
B)The gland's product will interact with receptors on the cell membrane or inside target cells.
C)The gland's product is secreted into the cavity of some organ,outside of the circulatory system.
D)Only answers A and B apply.
E)Only answers B and C apply.
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Chapter 48: Animal Reproduction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT a true statement about puberty in humans in the United States?
A)On average,puberty occurs at a younger age now than it did 200 years ago.
B)On average,puberty occurs later in girls with larger fat stores than it does in thin girls.
C)Puberty is initiated by hormones from the hypothalamic-pituitary axis.
D)All of the above are true statements about puberty.
E)Only answers A and B are true.
Q2) Which of the following correctly describes the reproduction of males in Daphnia?
A)Daphnia males are produced asexually from unfertilized eggs.
B)Daphnia males are produced sexually through fertilization of eggs,but are sterile from birth.
C)Daphnia males are produced from a pseudo-sexual union of two eggs.
D)Daphnia males are produced asexually,but are sterile from birth.
Q3) Which of the following hormones would you use if you want to induce ovulation in a few days?
A)estradiol (estrogen)
B)progesterone
C)luteinizing hormones (LH)
D)human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
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Page 50
Chapter 49: The Immune System in Animals
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Q1) What do neutrophils and macrophages have in common?
A)Both ingest and kill bacteria.
B)Both arrive simultaneously at a wound site.
C)Both secrete cytokines.
D)Both secrete lysozymes.
Q2) A certain cell type has existed in the blood and tissue of its vertebrate host's immune system for over 20 years.One day,it recognizes a newly arrived antigen and binds to it,subsequently triggering a secondary immune response in the body.Which of the following cell types most accurately describes this cell?
A)B cell
B)T cell
C)memory cell
D)secondary cell
Q3) What major advantage is conveyed by having a system of acquired immunity?
A)It enables a rapid defense against an antigen that has been previously encountered.
B)It enables an animal to counter most pathogens almost instantly.
C)It allows for extremely precise specificity for defense against antigens.
D)All of the above answers are correct.
E)Answers A and C are both correct.
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Page 51
Chapter 50: An Introduction to Ecology
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Q1) Which abiotic factor would have the most significant physiological effect on migrating salmon?
A)water solute content
B)competition for resources
C)water temperature
D)human-built structural interferences
Q2) You are measuring the effect of increased sunlight on a tropical wet forest biome.Which of the following would you measure?
A)NPP as it indicates the biomass available for other organisms to use.
B)Species diversity as it indicates the number of species present and their relative numbers.
C)The number of parasites in the area as it indicates the health of the biome.
D)All of A,B,and C.
E)Both A and B.
Q3) The carnivorous pitcher plant is successful in bog habitats because
A)it can tolerate lack of oxygen in the bog water.
B)it can tolerate the high acidity of the bog water.
C)it can gain nitrogen in an unusual way.
D)it can gain oxygen in an unusual way.
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Page 52
Chapter 51: Behavioural Ecology
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Q1) You observe that by flashing a small light in a particular sequence,you can attract male fireflies of a certain species.You begin to think how this signal may be used against these males.Which of the hypotheses seems to be the most logical?
A)This particular signal will be used commonly by other firefly species as a way to lure males and prey on them.
B)This particular signal will be used only by this species of firefly.
C)This particular signal will be used widely by males of this species in territorial disputes.
D)This particular signal will be used rarely by other firefly species as a way to lure males and prey on them.
Q2) Homing pigeons' ability to always return to their home,no matter where they are released,is an excellent example of A)piloting.
B)compass orientation.
C)true navigation.
D)all of the above.
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Chapter 52: Population Ecology
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Q1) Looking at the figure above,what is contributing significantly to stabilizing population size over time?
A)no migration
B)low migration
C)high migration
D)none of the above
Q2) It is estimated that a flock of wood buffalo crane should be able to sustain an r of 0.085 for the foreseeable future.If the flock currently contains 350 individuals,how long will it take for that population to double?
A)8 years
B)13 years
C)15 years
D)21 years
Q3) Which of the following statements about the graphs in the figure above is FALSE?
A)Primrose populations in large gaps (high light)have many juveniles.
B)Primrose populations in small gaps (low light)have few juveniles.
C)Primrose populations change in structure over time.
D)The age structure of primrose determines the gap size.
E)All of the above statements are true.
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54
Chapter 53: Community Ecology
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Q1) In the figure above,which of the following statements is true?
A)All of the species of insects shown are in the order Hymenoptera.
B)There are no true mimics in the insects shown.
C)All of the insects are displaying Batesian mimicry.
D)Half of the insects shown are harmless.
Q2) What is the term used to describe the process shown in the panels in the figure above?
A)competition
B)species interaction
C)niche differentiation
D)niche realization
Q3) Clements's view of biological communities is that of a highly predictable and interrelated structure,while Gleason's view of biological communities is that individual species operate independently.Looking at the results in the figure above,which hypothesis (by Clements or Gleason)is supported by the data?
A)Clements
B)Gleason
C)both
D)neither
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Chapter 54: Ecosystems
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Q1) After looking at the experiment in the figure above,what can be said about productivity in marine ecosystems?
A)Nothing can be said based on this information.
B)Marine organisms break down iron for energy and thus for productivity.
C)Iron can be a limiting nutrient in productivity.
D)Productivity increases when chlorophyll a is added.
Q2) Considering the global water cycle depicted in the figure above,where does one find the largest amount of water changing phases?
A)groundwater runoff to oceans
B)movement of water vapor from ocean to land
C)evaporation/transpiration and precipitation over land
D)evaporation and precipitation over the oceans
Q3) Based on the figure above,and given the populations of the following countries,which country uses the most oil overall?
A)United States (population = 300 million)
B)Canada (population = 33 million)
C)China (population = 1.32 billion)
D)Russia (population = 142 million)
E)United Kingdom (population = 60 million)
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Page 56
Chapter 55: Biodiversity and Conservation Biology
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Q1) Based on how you would go about measuring biodiversity,which of the following is true?
A)Bacteria are among the easiest to count regarding numbers of different species.
B)Species in the tropics are much easier to study than species in other biomes.
C)The easiest animals to study are the insects.
D)The most intensively studied lineages are vertebrates.
Q2) On Easter Island,data show that it was once covered by massive palm trees.How can an ecosystem collapse from removal of just one species of large tree?
A)Without large trees,soil erosion increases and reduces productivity.
B)Species of plants needing shade no longer have it.
C)Large trees are habitats for many species.
D)Humans use the trees as a resource.
E)All of the above apply.
Q3) According to the figure above,what is occurring after 1985?
A)The population is increasing exponentially.
B)The population is increasing.
C)The population growth rate is increasing.
D)The sheep are climbing a hill.
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