Biological Science Test Bank - 2002 Verified Questions

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Biological Science

Test Bank

Course Introduction

Biological Science is an interdisciplinary field that explores the structure, function, growth, origin, evolution, and distribution of living organisms. This course provides a comprehensive overview of fundamental concepts in biology, including cellular biology, genetics, evolution, ecology, and physiology. Emphasis is placed on understanding the scientific methods, laboratory techniques, and real-world applications of biological principles. Through lectures, experiments, and discussions, students develop a broad appreciation for the complexity of life and the role of biology in addressing global challenges such as health, sustainability, and biodiversity conservation.

Recommended Textbook

Human Biology Concepts and Current Issues 7th Edition by Michael D. Johnson

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24 Chapters

2002 Verified Questions

2002 Flashcards

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Page 2

Chapter 1: Human Biology, Science, and Society

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Sample Questions

Q1) In science, graphs are often used to display data collected from an experiment. Which one of the following is TRUE regarding a graph?

A) Most graphs are plotted on three axes.

B) The dependent variable is plotted on the y-axis.

C) Independent variables are generally not included on a graph.

D) The horizontal axis is known as the ordinate.

E) Graphs always involve plots of individual data points.

Answer: B

Q2) The first step of the scientific method is ________.

Answer: observation

Q3) Molecules of life include which one of the following?

A) water, proteins, lipids, nucleic acids, carbohydrates

B) proteins, saturated fats, monosaccharides, but not polysaccharides

C) lipids and proteins only

D) any noncarbon base molecule

E) nonsugar carbohydrates, proteins, lipids, water

Answer: A

Q4) The ability to stand upright and walk on two legs is termed ________. Answer: bipedalism

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Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Living Things

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Sample Questions

Q1) The figure above shows a triglyceride that contains unsaturated fatty acids.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

Q2) The acidity or alkalinity of a solution can be measured in terms of ________.

Answer: pH

Q3) A student has isolated a large compound (macromolecule) from cells. Chemical analysis of the compound shows that it is made up of the following elements: carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen, and sulfur. To which group of macromolecules does this compound most likely belong?

A) carbohydrate

B) protein

C) nucleic acid

D) lipid

E) aqueous

Answer: B

Q4) Molecules that are polar and attracted to water are ________; molecules that are nonpolar and therefore not attracted to water are ________.

Answer: hydrophilic, hydrophobic

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Chapter 3: Structure and Function of Cells

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Sample Questions

Q1) During the citric acid cycle, acetyl CoA is oxidized completely.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Q2) The movement of large molecules or large quantities of molecules into a cell is accomplished through ________; movement of these molecules out of the cell is accomplished through ________.

Answer: endocytosis, exocytosis

Q3) Chemical reactions that take place in living organisms are collectively known as the organism's ________.

Answer: metabolism

Q4) Bulk movement of water across plasma membranes and the exchange of oxygen from blood into cells are similar in that the method of transport is by

A) facilitated transport

B) endocytosis

C) diffusion

D) active transport

E) sodium-potassium pumps

Answer: C

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Chapter 4: From Cells to Organ Systems

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which one of the following wraps around, supports, and holds organs in proper position within the body?

A) loose areolar tissue

B) tendons

C) ligaments

D) cytoskeleton

E) reticular tissue

Q2) Since skin is made up of several types of tissues and has a number of different functions, it is best classified as an organ.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Epithelial tissues are classified according to the cell ________ as well as the number of cell layers making up the tissue.

Q4) A group of two or more tissues that function as a unit is a(n) ________.

Q5) A supportive noncellular proteinaceous layer underneath epithelial tissue is the ________ membrane.

Q6) If you were in a bike accident that resulted in bleeding, explain why the injury must be deeper than the epidermis.

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Chapter 5: The Skeletal System

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Sample Questions

Q1) The coccyx is classified as a(n) ________ structure because it no longer has a function.

Q2) Surgically removed growth plates from a child result in no further increases in bone length.

A)True

B)False

Q3) The stability of a synovial joint is due largely to the presence of calcium salts.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Stem cells in red bone marrow give rise to ________ and ________ blood cells.

Q5) Tendons attach ________ to bone.

Q6) The process by which the cartilage of fetal bones is gradually replaced with bone tissue is ________.

Q7) In characterizing cartilage, which one of the following is CORRECT?

A) Cartilage is found where support under pressure is required.

B) All types of cartilage are produced by osteocytes.

C) Cartilage functions to link muscles to bone.

D) Cartilage fibers make up ligaments.

E) Cartilage is flexible due to a spongy network of trabeculae.

Page 7

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Chapter 6: The Muscular System

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Sample Questions

Q1) Muscles constitute 60-70% of our body mass.

A)True

B)False

Q2) At the end of the contractile period, energy from the breakdown of ATP is used to

A) transport calcium back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum

B) repair any muscle damaged during contraction

C) digest energy sources to generate new ATP for the next round of contractions

D) produce lactic acid

E) unlink the troponin-tropomyosin complexes

Q3) In skeletal muscle, potassium ions are stored in the sarcoplasmic reticulum.

A)True

B)False

Q4) A protein that stores oxygen in slow-twitch muscle fibers is ________.

Q5) A student, who was late for class, bounded up four flights of steps, ran down the hall, and then arrived in his classroom, huffing and puffing. This student was breathing hard in order to reverse his body's ________.

Q6) Isometric contractions usually result in no movement of the skeleton or objects.

A)True

B)False

Page 8

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Chapter 7: Blood

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which one of the following formed element in the blood is not a cell, but actually a fragment of a cell?

A) monocyte

B) lymphocyte

C) neutrophil

D) platelet

E) plasma

Q2) Calcium must activate prothrombin to its enzyme form before it can participate in the clotting mechanism.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Humans may have one of four different blood types-A, B, AB, or O. Explain why a person with type O blood is referred to as the "universal donor," yet can receive blood only from other individuals with type O blood.

Q4) Monocytes can mature into ________, which are phagocytic cells.

Q5) The fluid portion of blood is known as blood ________; this portion constitutes approximately ________ % of the total blood volume.

Q6) The blood components in C are the ________.

Q7) Nutrients are absorbed into the blood from the ________ system.

Page 9

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Chapter 8: Heart and Blood Vessels

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Sample Questions

Q1) In the ________ circuit, blood leaving the ________ ultimately delivers oxygen and nutrients to all of the body's tissues and organs.

A) pulmonary, lung capillaries

B) systemic, vena cava

C) pulmonary, torso and lower limbs

D) systemic, left ventricle

Q2) Which one of the following blood vessels transports oxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart?

A) pulmonary artery

B) aorta

C) carotid artery

D) pulmonary vein

E) iliac vein

Q3) Artificial hearts are used routinely today to replace damaged hearts when a donor heart is not available for transplant.

A)True

B)False

Q4) The ________ division of the nervous system causes the rate of heart contraction to increase.

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Chapter 9: The Immune System and Mechanisms of Defense

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is associated with the specific defenses of the body?

A) cell-mediated immunity

B) phagocytosis

C) interferons

D) the inflammatory response

E) the complement system

Q2) Bacteria are helpful to humans in many ways, including all of the following EXCEPT which one?

A) production of antibiotics

B) breakdown of raw sewage

C) digestion of cellulose in the human intestine

D) production of soy sauce

E) production of vitamins for the human body

Q3) Which one of the following is/are located in the tonsils to filter out many of the microorganisms that enter the throat?

A) thymus

B) adenoids

C) lymphocytes

D) platelets

E) red blood cells

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Chapter 10: The Respiratory System: Exchange of Gases

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Sample Questions

Q1) Burning of carbon-based fuels can produce which one of the following, an odorless gas that competes with oxygen for binding to hemoglobin.

A) carbon tetrachloride

B) nitrogen

C) ozone

D) hydrogen

E) carbon monoxide

Q2) External respiration is the process of

A) transporting gases in the blood stream to target cells

B) exchanging air in lungs with the surrounding environment

C) moving gases into or out of the blood stream within lung tissue

D) gas uptake by target cells

E) carbon dioxide release by cells into the bloodstream

Q3) During a normal breathing cycle, pressure changes are essential to the exchange of gases with the environment. Describe what type of pressure changes must occur during ventilation.

Q4) Contraction of this structure causes it to flatten out, increasing lung volume.

Q5) Large airways that enter each lung and then branch into smaller and smaller airways; walls contain connective tissue, smooth muscles, and cartilage.

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Chapter 11: The Nervous System: Integration and Control

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Sample Questions

Q1) regulates body temperature and stimulates hunger drive

Q2) Saltatory conduction is

A) the process of conduction leaping along myelinated neurons

B) an action potential generated in taste receptors or buds

C) the movement of neurotransmitters across a synaptic cleft

D) the activation of the fight-or-flight response

E) the movement of an electrical impulse from the dendrite to an axon

Q3) Regulation of the production of breast milk, carbohydrate metabolism, and temperature control are some of the functions of the

A) frontal lobe

B) midbrain

C) medulla oblongata

D) thalamus

E) hypothalamus

Q4) controls heart rate and blood pressure, as well as sneezing and swallowing reflexes; motor nerves from one side of the forebrain cross to the opposite side of the body

Q5) Bacterial and viral infections of the brain are rare because of the protective nature of the ________.

Q6) the membrane is depolarized

Page 13

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Chapter 12: Sensory Mechanisms

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which one of the following receive(s) a physical or chemical stimulus and ultimately cause(s) nerve impulses to be generated in sensory neurons?

A) the brain

B) axons

C) Schwann cells

D) hillocks

E) receptors

Q2) The two fluid-filled chambers of the vestibule are the ________ and ________.

Q3) During eye examinations, a test is done to monitor the pressure within the eye. This test is done to detect

A) detachment of the retina

B) glaucoma

C) macular degeneration

D) astigmatism

E) cataracts

Q4) It is common for people who are traveling in cars or planes to experience an unpleasant sensation known as ________, which is due to conflicting sensory inputs from receptors located in muscles and tendons, the eyes, and the vestibular apparatus.

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Chapter 13: The Endocrine System

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Sample Questions

Q1) Cortisol is a glucocorticoid that helps maintain blood glucose levels during fasting by

A) stimulating the synthesis of fatty acids

B) promoting the conversion of amino acids into proteins in muscle tissues

C) increasing the glucose-dependent inflammatory response

D) promoting fat utilization

E) inhibiting glucose utilization in muscle cells

Q2) Which two endocrine glands exert the most control over blood calcium levels?

A) thyroid and ovaries

B) adrenal cortex and thyroid

C) anterior pituitary and adrenal cortex

D) thyroid and parathyroid

E) parathyroid and anterior pituitary

Q3) When the amount of thyroxine in the body increases, the basal metabolic rate of the body also increases.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Nonsteroid hormones are ________ acting than steroid hormones because they activate enzyme cascades within a cell.

Q5) pancreas stops secretion of insulin

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Chapter 14: The Digestive System and Nutrition

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Sample Questions

Q1) secretes bicarbonate and digestive enzymes into small intestine

Q2) Diets that include complex carbohydrates instead of simple carbohydrates are recommended because sugar is released more slowly into the body.

A)True

B)False

Q3) The end products of the digestion of proteins, fats, and carbohydrates are absorbed in the

A) stomach

B) small intestine

C) liver

D) pancreas

E) large intestine

Q4) Fats that are liquids at room temperature are ________.

Q5) Natural sugars such as those from fruit and honey are classified as ________.

Q6) All of the following are involved in the digestion of proteins EXCEPT which one?

A) pepsin

B) amylase

C) carboxypeptidase

D) chymotrypsin

E) trypsin

Page 16

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Chapter 15: The Urinary System

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following regulates salt balance?

A) ADH

B) aldosterone

C) atrial natriuretic hormone (ANH)

D) renin

E) both aldosterone and ANH

Q2) Three organs in the human body are involved in the production of vitamin D; they are the ________, ________, and ________.

Q3) Alcohol has diuretic effects, increasing urine output. By which one of the following is this mediated?

A) Alcohol increases the amount of sodium reabsorbed.

B) Alcohol decreases the amount of sodium reabsorbed.

C) Alcohol makes the renal tubules more permeable to water.

D) Alcohol inhibits the release of ADH.

E) Drinks with alcohol also contain a lot of water, and the kidneys excrete this.

Q4) Tubular reabsorption occurs when most of the fluid and solutes move back into the ________.

Q5) The process of reabsorbing water is regulated by ________.

Q6) filtrate in lumen contains solutes smaller than proteins

Page 17

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Chapter 16: Reproductive Systems

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Sample Questions

Q1) The vagina is indicated by letter ________.

Q2) During male ejaculation, the internal urethral sphincter closes tightly to

A) prevent urine from leaking into the urethra

B) isolate the ureters from the urinary bladder

C) block movement of mucus from the bulbourethral gland into the ejaculatory duct

D) keep sperm from moving into the ductus deferens

E) allow seminal vesicle to transfer sperm to the epididymis

Q3) The human papilloma virus (HPV) causes

A) gonorrhea

B) vaginal yeast infections

C) genital herpes

D) syphilis

E) genital warts

Q4) The only completely effective method of birth control is ________.

Q5) An extensive bacterial infection of the female reproductive tract is known as ________, which is the most common cause of female infertility.

Q6) Mifeprex is a pill that can essentially cause an early abortion.

A)True

B)False

Page 18

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Chapter 17: Cell Reproduction and Differentiation

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Sample Questions

Q1) During which one of the following phases of the cell cycle does the nucleus divide?

A) G phase

B) interphase

C) S phase

D) late into G

E) mitotic phase

Q2) Determine whether each of the following events is characteristic of mitosis, meiosis, or both. Answers may be used more than once.

A) mitosis

B) meiosis

C) mitosis and meiosis

13) preceded by replication of chromosomes during interphase

14) results in production of four genetically different daughter cells

15) yields haploid daughter cells

16) involves pairing of homologous chromosomes and crossing-over

17) involves chromosome movement and distribution to daughter cells

18) results in the production of gametes

19) involves two successive nuclear and cell divisions

20) results in the production of two genetically identical daughter cells

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Chapter 18: Cancer: Uncontrolled Cell Division and Differentiation

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Sample Questions

Q1) Tobacco is a carcinogen that has NOT been linked to the induction of cancer in which one of the following?

A) pancreas

B) lungs

C) mouth

D) pharynx

E) liver

Q2) Consider an individual undergoing cancer chemotherapy, taking a drug that slows or stops cell division. Which one of the following is a likely side effect of such chemotherapy?

A) improved hair growth

B) anemia

C) weight gain

D) headaches

E) fluid retention

Q3) Proto-oncogenes are genes that promote the development of tumors.

A)True

B)False

Q4) The potential damaging effects of free radicals to DNA can be averted by

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Chapter 19: Genetics and Inheritance

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Sample Questions

Q1) Genes represent the set of instructions for the expression of one or more traits human beings and influence human behaviors by

A) directly causing specific changes in mood or patterns of behavior

B) producing protein products that serve as switches for directly turning on or off certain behaviors

C) directing the synthesis of protein products that influence but do not directly cause most human behaviors

D) activating behavior pathways, like those leading to depression or happiness

E) functioning as specific behavior suppressors

Q2) If both alleles of a particular gene are identical, the person is said to be

A) an identical twin

B) phenotypic

C) heterozygous

D) homozygous

E) genotypic

Q3) Failure of homologous chromosomes or sister chromatids to separate properly is called ________.

Q4) In ________, the phenotype of the heterozygous genotype is an intermediate between the phenotype of either homozygous genotype.

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Chapter 20: DNA Technology and Genetic Engineering

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Sample Questions

Q1) The goal of polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is to determine the sequence of nucleotides in a stretch of DNA.

A)True

B)False

Q2) ________ is a useful technique in criminal investigations because humans contain many copies of repeating or junk sequences, the length of which can be unique to an individual.

Q3) Through genetic engineering, it is possible for scientists to identify the sequence of bases in DNA, determine the location of certain genes in DNA, and create more DNA from DNA samples.

A)True

B)False

Q4) After a strand of DNA has been cut with restriction enzymes, the pieces are attached again by the action of

A) DNA ligases

B) stop codons or sequences

C) DNA polymerase

D) plasmids

E) primers

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Chapter 21: Development and Aging

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Sample Questions

Q1) The blood vessels of the umbilical cord are derived from which one of the following structures?

A) allantois

B) chorion

C) embryonic disk

D) amnion

E) yolk sac

Q2) The muscles and nervous system of the fetus become mature enough for movement to occur by the ________ month of development.

A) fifth

B) first

C) eighth

D) third

E) seventh

Q3) The first four days of human embryonic development occur in the

A) uterus

B) vagina

C) cervix

D) oviduct

E) ovary

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Chapter 22: Evolution and the Origins of Life

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Sample Questions

Q1) Dinosaurs and modern humans coexisted for about a million years.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Based on the figure above, which one of the following appears to be in the direct ancestral path of modern humans?

A) Homo heidelbergensis

B) Australopithecus afarensis

C) Homo ergaster

D) Homo neanderthalensis

E) Homo floresiensis

Q3) In the 1940s, the population of whooping cranes in North America neared extinction, with fewer than 30 birds. It has since expanded to several hundred birds today. It is likely that these birds will exhibit very little genetic diversity. This is an example of

A) biogeographical distribution

B) the bottleneck effect

C) random mutation

D) the founder effect

E) immigration

Q4) ________ was an early human ancestor thought to be among the first tool makers.

24

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Chapter 23: Ecosystems and Populations

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Sample Questions

Q1) During photosynthesis, high energy carbohydrates are produced during the

Q2) Disease outbreak occurring over a wide geographic area and affecting a large portion of the population is referred to as

A) the biotic carrying capacity

B) a pandemic

C) the abiotic environmental resistance

D) the lag growth phase

E) a population "buffer"

Q3) In a graphical representation of an organism's population growth in a given habitat, the growth rate for an organism whose population is increasing according to its biotic potential is best represented by a(n)

A) line with a negative slope

B) S-shaped curve

C) flat line (no slope) set at the carrying capacity of the environment

D) exponential growth curve

E) flat line (no slope) set at the equilibrium point of environmental resistance versus biotic growth potential

Q4) The type of location where a species lives is its ________.

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Chapter 24: Human Impacts, Biodiversity, and Environmental Issues

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Sample Questions

Q1) What percent of Earth's water is fresh water?

A) <1

B) 5

C) 10

D) 25

E) 40

Q2) Which one of the following statements is TRUE regarding the water on Earth?

A) When humans divert water from one region to another, they always ensure that it does not have an effect on normal migration patterns of other species.

B) Most of the water on Earth is frozen in glaciers and ice caps.

C) Residents of the less industrialized countries typically use more water than residents in industrialized countries.

D) Some semiarid and desert regions of the world have reached carrying capacity for humans due to the shortage of water.

E) Water is considered a renewable resource because it is plentiful in all regions of Earth.

Q3) Damage to the ecosystem by the processes of desertification and deforestation occurs most commonly in ________ areas.

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