Course Introduction
Biological Science Review
Questions
Biological Science is an interdisciplinary field that explores the structure, function, growth, evolution, and distribution of living organisms. This course covers fundamental concepts such as cell biology, genetics, evolution, ecology, and physiology, providing students with an understanding of life from molecular to ecosystem levels. Through laboratory work, lectures, and field studies, students develop critical thinking and scientific inquiry skills, preparing them for advanced studies and diverse careers in health, research, environmental science, and biotechnology.
Recommended Textbook
Biology The Unity and Diversity of Life 14th Edition by Cecie Starr
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Invitation to Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The smallest unit of life that can exist as a separate entity is a(n)
A) cell.
B) molecule.
C) organ.
D) population.
E) ecosystem.
Answer: A
Q2) Which experiment would be the least effective follow-up to the peacock butterfly studies?
A) Repeat in a forest area totally devoid of native butterflies.
B) Repeat in a wildlife sanctuary aviary after giving birds a chance to learn about peacock butterflies.
C) Repeat using young, inexperienced birds.
D) Repeat, and count survivors for three weeks.
E) Repeat using more butterflies and more blue tits in a larger area.
Answer: A
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Lifes Chemical Basis
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Q1) The column of water extending in tubes from plant roots to leaves is maintained by
A) hydrophilic interactions
B) ionic bonds
C) covalent bonds
D) hydrophobic interactions
E) cohesion between water molecules
Answer: E
Q2) Carbon dioxide is an example of a(n) ____.
A) atom
B) ion
C) compound
D) mixture
E) element
Answer: C
Q3) The sharing of two pairs of electrons between two atoms is called a(n)
Answer: double bond
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Chapter 3: Molecules of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Glucose and fructose ____.
A) form rings with the same number of carbon atoms
B) have two oxygen atoms as part of their ring structure
C) have identical functional groups
D) contain the same number of hydrogen atoms and hydroxyl groups
E) form the same polysaccharide molecule
Answer: D
Q2) Which type of lipid is composed of long-chain fatty acids attached to long-chain alcohols?
A) triglycerides
B) phospholipids
C) sterols
D) waxes
E) most neutral fats
Answer: D
Q3) A lipid _____________________ is the most common conformation of the membrane of living systems.
Answer: bilayer
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Chapter 4: Cell Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) extends across cell boundaries
A)chloroplast
B)central vacuole
C)plasmodesmata
D)cell wall
E)chromoplasts
Q2) Chart the path of molecules of a secreted protein beginning at the DNA for a eukaryote.
Q3) What is a characteristic of the cell walls of mature plant cells?
A) pectin
B) cellulose
C) glue-like polysaccharides
D) lignin
E) a gluey matrix containing rope-like strands
Q4) rough ER
Q5) cytoskeleton components
Q6) A number of ____________________ cover the rough ER.
Q7) plasma membrane
Q8) microfilaments
Q9) mitochondrion Page 6
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Page 7
Chapter 5: Ground Rules of Metabolism
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Q1) The action of a white blood cell engulfing a bacterium is known as ____.
A) pinocytosis only
B) phagocytosis only
C) exocytosis and phagocytosis
D) endocytosis and pinocytosis
E) phagocytosis and endocytosis
Q2) Allosteric inhibition generally results from ____.
A) excess substrates
B) binding of regulatory molecules at sites other than the active sites
C) a change in the temperature of the system
D) a lack of coenzymes
E) changes in pH
Q3) fluid with the same solute concentration relative to another fluid
A)diffusion
B)hypertonic
C)hypotonic
D)isotonic
E)osmosis
F)osmotic pressure
G)turgor
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Chapter 6: Where It Starts - Photosynthesis
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Sample Questions
Q1) The first stable compound produced from CO in the light-independent reaction is
A) phosphoglycerate (PGA)
B) ribulose bisphosphate (RuBP)
C) phosphoglyceraldehyde (PGAL)
D) O
E) NADP+
Q2) noncyclic pathway of ATP formation
A)incorporation of CO<sub>2</sub> into an organic molecule
B)uses ATP and NADPH
C)uses two PGAL
D)produces ATP and NADPH
E)uses an electron transfer chain to produce ATP, but does not produce NADPH or O<sub>2</sub>
Q3) Which statement best describes an electron transfer chain?
A) It generates energy from carbohydrates.
B) It is used by cells to dispose of excess electrons.
C) It utilizes ATP to synthesize nutrients.
D) It transfers energy, stepwise, from one compound to another.
E) It requires activation by oxygen.
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Chapter 7: How Cells Release Chemical Energy
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Q1) How many net ATP molecules are produced per molecule of glucose broken down during glycolysis?
A) one
B) two
C) four
D) 36
E) 38
Q2) acetyl-CoA formation
A)produces NADH and CO ; pyruvate oxidized
B)produces ATP, NADH, and CO
C)splits glucose into two pyruvate molecules
D)regenerates NAD+as pyruvate is converted to ethanol or lactate
E)uses a membrane-bound system that sets up production of ATP
Q3) Discuss how photosynthesis is a natural partner for aerobic respiration.
Q4) During alcoholic fermentation, ____________________ is converted into ethanol.
Q5) Why is the total ATP produced via aerobic respiration different from the net ATP produced?
Q6) What is the most important product of stage 2 of aerobic respiration?
Q8) Why do some muscle cells produce ATP via lactate fermentation? Page 10
Q7) How many molecules of ATP are produced at each stage of aerobic respiration?
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Chapter 8: Dna Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Three hydrogen bonds connect guanine to __________ in the DNA molecule.
A)guanine
B)cytosine
C)pyrimidine
D)thymine
E)uracil
Q2) A bacterium undergoes four rounds of replication. How many cells would result, and how many of those cells would still have part of an original DNA strand from the starting bacterium?
Q3) If one chain of a DNA molecule has a purine at a given position, this nucleotide complements it on the other chain.
A)guanine
B)cytosine
C)pyrimidine
D)thymine
E)uracil
Q4) Does reproductive cloning always involve somatic cell nuclear transfer?
Q5) A free nucleotide has a five carbon sugar (deoxyribose), ____________________ phosphate group(s), and one of four nitrogen-containing bases.
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Chapter 9: From Dna to Protein
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Sample Questions
Q1) What carries amino acids to ribosomes during translation?
A) mRNA
B) tRNA
C) DNA
D) rRNA
E) exons
Q2) A single mutation involving the second letter of codon AUA could convert it to this codon.
A)AUG
B)UAA
C)UUU
D)UUA
E)AAA
Q3) What does the fact that all organisms use essentially the same genetic code suggest about the origin of life?
Q4) The process of gene expression includes two steps: ____________________ and ____________________.
Q5) The concepts of transcription and translation have been said to form the 'central dogma' of molecular biology. Is this a fitting description?
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Chapter 10: Gene Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) A gene can be silenced by the addition of what to a nucleotide?
A) -CH
B) -COOH
C) -OH
D) -NH
E) -PO4-3
Q2) X chromosome inactivation
A)influences the amount and kinds of mRNA assembled from structural gene
B)splicing, capping, and adding a poly-A tail
C)nuclear envelope selectively regulates passage of transcripts
D)phosphorylation of translated protein
E)dosage compensation
Q3) mRNA processing
A)influences the amount and kinds of mRNA assembled from structural gene
B)splicing, capping, and adding a poly-A tail
C)nuclear envelope selectively regulates passage of transcripts
D)phosphorylation of translated protein
E)dosage compensation
Q4) As cell lineages use varying subsets of genes during development, they become specialized through a process called __________.
14
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Chapter 11: How Cells Reproduce
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following results from mitosis?
A) a pair of unidentical twins
B) a group of rooted plant cuttings from multiple plants
C) the cells produced by the sexual reproduction of a single-celled organism
D) two new descendent cells each with a full complement of identical DNA
E) completely repaired DNA from damaged parental cells
Q2) Daughter nuclear membranes form.
A)interphase
B)prophase
C)metaphase
D)anaphase
E)telophase
Q3) Cancer cells ____.
A) have normal plasma membranes.
B) have an increased ability to attach to other cells.
C) divide slowly to produce low densities of cells.
D) show an amplified reliance on ATP formation by fermentation.
E) are all malignant.
Q4) Imagine a cell entered mitosis but was unable to make microtubules. At what stage of mitosis would it remain?
15
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Chapter 12: Meiosis and Sexual Reproduction
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Q1) During meiosis II, ____.
A) cytokinesis results in the formation of a total of two cells
B) sister chromatids of each chromosome are separated from each other
C) homologous chromosomes pair up
D) homologous chromosomes separate
E) sister chromatids exchange parts
Q2) Which action is unable to produce variation?
A) crossing over
B) random alignment of chromosomes during meiosis
C) asexual reproduction
D) genetic recombination of alleles
E) sexual reproduction
Q3) Which of the following is TRUE of asexual reproduction?
A) It allows an individual's genes to adjust to the environment.
B) It produces greater genetic diversity.
C) It is a good strategy if an organism lives in a constant, unchanging environment.
D) It slows the accumulation of potentially harmful mutations.
E) It allows only half of an individual's genes to be passed on.
Q4) At __________, the fusion of two gametes produces a(n) __________.
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Chapter 13: Observing Patterns in Inherited Traits
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Q1) Different molecular forms of the same gene are __________.
Q2) Which of the following is true about Marfan syndrome?
A) The cause is an autosomal recessive mutation.
B) The affected gene produces a defective form of the protein actin.
C) Connective tissues are weakened.
D) One in 5,000 men are affected.
E) Those affected are often very short and have mental impairments.
Q3) The role of environmental factors on gene expression is illustrated by ____.
A) the varying plant height of genetically identical yarrow plants when grown at different elevations
B) the flower color of hydrangeas
C) the coloration in snapdragon plants
D) male-pattern baldness
E) genetic variety in eye color
Q4) If 2 spot (S) is dominant to 4 spot (s), give the genotypes for the parents in the following crosses:
(a)2 spot × 2 spot yields 2 spot and 4 spot?(b)2 spot × 4 spot yields only 2 spot?(c)2 spot × 4 spot yields 2 spot and 4 spot?(d)2 spot × 2 spot yields only 2 spot?(e)4 spot × 4 spot yields only 4 spot
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Chapter 14: Chromosomes and Human Inheritance
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Q1) __________ is a diagnostic tool that reveals missing or extra chromosomes and some structural changes in an individual's chromosomes.
Q2) This disorder is an autosomal recessive disorder.
A)galactosemia
B)Turner syndrome
C)progeria
D)hemophilia A
E)Down syndrome
Q3) The probability of producing a normal child by two parents who are carriers for an autosomal recessive disorder is ____.
A) 0%
B) 25%
C) 50%
D) 75%
E) 100%
Q4) In humans, an X-linked disorder called coloboma iridia (a fissure in the iris) is a recessive trait. A normal couple has an afflicted daughter. The husband sues the wife for divorce on the grounds of infidelity. Would you find in his favor?
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Chapter 15: Studying and Manipulating Genomes
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Sample Questions
Q1) What fraction of your DNA is the same as every other human being?
A) 50%
B) 75%
C) 90%
D) 95%
E) 99%
Q2) Researchers can deliver genes into plants by using ____.
A) PCR
B) DNA sequencing
C) electric or chemical shocks
D) gel electrophoresis
E) DNA segmentation
Q3) Why are cDNA libraries desirable for the expression of eukaryotic genes in prokaryotes?
Q4) The combination of a foreign piece of DNA with the DNA of another organism.
A)restriction enzymes
B)recombinant DNA
C)plasmids
D)clones
E)restriction sites
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Chapter 16: Evidence of Evolution
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Q1) The characteristic ____________________ of a radioisotope allows us to determine the age of rocks and fossils using a technique called
Q2) ____________________ that impart greater ____________________ to an individual become more common in a population over generations, compared with less competitive forms.
Q3) Which interval is classified as a "period" in the geologic time scale rather than an "era"?
A) Mesozoic
B) Proterozoic
C) Carboniferous
D) Cenozoic
E) Paleozoic
Q4) The most important evidence that Darwin used to develop his theory of natural selection came from ____.
A) the Argentine pampas
B) his boyhood neighborhood in England
C) the Galápagos Islands
D) Australia and New Zealand
E) South America
Page 20
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Chapter 17: Processes of Evolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) Two or more alleles of a gene present at relatively high frequencies in a population's gene pool is known as ____.
A) disruptive selection
B) sexual dimorphism
C) directional selection
D) stabilizing selection
E) balanced polymorphism
Q2) Stabilizing selection occurs when
A) the environment controls which organisms will survive.
B) humans determine which organisms will survive.
C) the extremes of the population have a lesser chance to survive.
D) the extremes of the population have a better chance to survive.
E) the organisms on one extreme of the population have a better chance to survive than those on the other extreme.
Q3) __________ species of many plants (and a few animals) originated by chromosome doublings and hybridizations.
Q4) In __________ speciation, a geographic barrier interrupts gene flow between populations.
Q5) Individuals of a(n) __________ share a gene pool.
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Chapter 18: Organizating Information About Species
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which gene mutation is least likely to impact the protein?
A) aconservative substitution
B) anon-conservative substitution
C) an amino acid deletion
D) an amino acid insertion
E) all mutations will have the same impact.
Q2) The Dlx gene encodes a transcription factor that signals clusters of embryonic cells to ____ and gives rise to an appendage.
A) fold into the cardiac muscle
B) protrude from the body
C) form reproductive structures
D) induce apoptosis in cells lining the appendages
E) develop into the immune system
Q3) Genomics studies have shown that humans and rice share about ____ percent of their genomes.
A) 1
B) 4
C) 8
D) 15
E) 25
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Chapter 19: Lifes Origin and Early Evolution
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Q1) Laboratory simulations provide indirect evidence that organic compounds such as __________ and __________ self-assemble spontaneously under conditions like those thought to have prevailed on the early Earth.
Q2) Are the three methods of producing the building blocks of life proposed in this chapter mutually exclusive?
Q3) He/she studies protocell formation both in the laboratory and in the field.
A) David Deamer
B) Stanley Miller
C) Kwang Jeon
D) Leslie Orgel
E) Oliver Hardy
Q4) Provide evidence to both support and refute the current existence of life on Mars.
Q5) The study of life's origins and distribution in the universe is called
A) astronomy.
B) xenology.
C) volcanology.
D) lunology.
E) astrobiology.
Q6) What can RNA do that DNA cannot that makes RNA a good starting point for life?
Page 23
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Chapter 20: Viruses - Bacteria - and Archaea
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Q1) Bacteriophages may multiply by a(n) __________ pathway in which the new viral particles are made quickly and released by lysis.
Q2) What component is located on the exterior surface of a prokaryote?
A) flagellum
B) cytoplasm
C) plasma membrane
D) DNA
E) nucleoid
Q3) How do archaeans and bacteria differ?
A) size
B) shape
C) plasma membrane composition
D) absence of a nucleus
E) mode of cellular division
Q4) Herpes and other enveloped viruses enter their host cells ____.
A) through pores
B) by dissolving the host plasma membrane
C) by fusion of the viral membrane with the cell's plasma membrane
D) by activating transport proteins in the host cell's plasma membrane
E) by engulfing the host cell
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Chapter 21: Protists - the Simplest Eukaryotes
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Q1) Neurotoxin from some members of this group can kill humans.
A)apicomplexans
B)amoebozoans
C)euglenoids
D)dinoflagellates
E)trypanosomes
Q2) Cellular slime molds can be distinguished from plasmodial slime molds on the basis of ____.
A) reproductive structures
B) spore formation
C) number of nuclei per cell
D) slime trails
E) food requirements
Q3) What is NOT a characteristic of radiolarians?
A) They have perforated shells of calcium carbonate.
B) They form part of the plankton.
C) They use pseudopods for feeding.
D) They have vacuoles that impart buoyancy.
E) They are heterotrophic protists.
Q4) __________ and __________ are single-celled heterotrophs with a secreted shell.
25
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Chapter 22: The Land Plants
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Q1) The giant club mosses of the Carboniferous period were members of this group.
A)lycophytes
B)bryophytes
C)monocots
D)conifers
E)eudicots
Q2) Will our modern forests eventually become coal?
Q3) In members of this group the gametophyte is the dominant generation.
A)lycophytes
B)bryophytes
C)monocots
D)conifers
E)eudicots
Q4) Four of the following are C grasses. Which one is the exception?
A) wheat
B) oats
C) barley
D) rice
E) legumes
Q5) Ferns, roots, and fronds grow from __________.
26
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Chapter 23: Fungi
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Q1) A ____ is formed as the direct result of cytoplasmic fusion in basidiomycetes and ascomycetes.
A) dikaryotic cell
B) Zygote
C) Gamete
D) Spore
E) Mushroom
Q2) In club fungi, each club-shaped cell initially ____.
A) is a spore
B) is a zygote
C) contains a single nucleus
D) is dikaryotic
E) undergoes mitosis to produce spores
Q3) __________ fungi include common molds.
Q4) The structure labeled "4" in the figure is a(n) ____.
A) asexual spore
B) haploid spore
C) zygospore
D) gamete
E) spore sac
Page 27
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Chapter 24: Animal Evolution - the Invertibrates
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Q1) Animals most likely evolved from a colony similar to __________, a type of protist.
Q2) The ____ are the most diverse animal group.
A) Vertebrates
B) Insects
C) Humans
D) Protozoans
E) Mollusks
Q3) In flatworms, the ____ is/are used to gather food.
A) nephridia
B) contractile vacuoles
C) Malpighian tubules
D) pharynx
E) flame cells
Q4) Which of the following is not a flatworm?
A) tape worm
B) ringworm
C) blood fluke
D) planaria
E) Bipalium
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Chapter 25: Animal Evolution - the Chordates
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Q1) platypus
A)cartilaginous skeleton; jaws
B)reptile with four-chambered heart
C)placental mammal
D)legless amphibian
E)invertebrate chordate; no metamorphosis
F)endotherm with feathers
G)limbless reptile
H)most primitive fishes with jaws; extinct
I)modern-day parasitic jawless vertebrate
J)marsupial
K)adult is called "sea squirt"
L)egg-laying mammal
M)swim bladder for buoyancy
N)may be sexually mature in larval form
Q2) Invertebrate chordates include __________ and __________, both marine filter-feeders.
Q3) Birds are evolved from reptiles, but also differ dramatically. Which features of birds differentiate them from most reptiles?
Q4) Reptiles are __________ (cold-blooded animals) with scales.
Page 29
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Chapter 26: Human Evolution
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Q1) Which of the following is a hominin?
A) chimpanzee
B) Australopithecus
C) baboon
D) bonobo
E) gorilla
Q2) Did Homo sapiens mate with Homo neanderthalensis?
Q3) Four of the following are modern apes. Which is not a modern ape?
A) gibbon
B) new world monkey
C) chimpanzee
D) gorilla
E) orangutan
Q4) Compared to modern humans, Neanderthals were ____.
A) skinnier
B) shorter
C) more numerous
D) more widely dispersed
E) small brained
Q5) What cultural trait is unique to hominins?
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Chapter 27: Plant Tissues
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Q1) The simple plant tissues are ____________________, ____________________, and ____________________.
Q2) Cells rich in chlorophyll and thus the main sites of photosynthesis are in layers labeled ____.
Q3) sieve elements
A)gives rise to periderm
B)transfer sugars into sieve elements
C)vascular tissue in the root
D)living cells that conduct sugars and other organic solutes
E)a layer of specialized parenchyma one or two cells thick, just inside the endodermis
F)clusters of strands containing xylem, phloem, and vascular cambium
G)the principle xylem cells of pines, cypress, and other conifers
H)cells with thick secondary walls impregnated with lignin that are especially abundant in some fruits and seeds
I)the principal photosynthetic region of a leaf
J)regions of undifferentiated cells that can divide rapidly
K)bottom layer of parenchyma in a leaf with large air spaces between the cells
Q4) The sexual organs of the plant are contained in the structure labeled __________.
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Chapter 28: Plant Nutrition and Transport
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Q1) Which element is considered a micronutrient needed by plants?
A) carbon
B) hydrogen
C) nitrogen
D) magnesium
E) zinc
Q2) What type of water-conducting cells has perforation plates on their ends?
A) tracheids
B) vessel elements
C) sieve elements
D) companion cells
E) sieve tubes
Q3) Phytoremediation uses the ability of plants to take up __________ dissolved in soil water.
Q4) By the __________ theory, transpiration pulls water upward by creating a continuous negative pressure (or tension) inside xylem.
Q5) The movement of sugars and other organic molecules through phloem is called __________.
Q6) __________ is the evaporation of water from plant parts, mainly at stomata, into air.
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Chapter 29: Life Cycles of Flowering Plants
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Q1) Adhesion proteins and ____ help guide the growth of the pollen tube in the proper direction towards the egg.
A) differentiation upon contact with the flower
B) exposure to moisture
C) cell signaling pathways
D) electromagnetic impulses from the flower
E) insertion of the pollen tube
Q2) What do gametes, spores, and the gametophyte generation have in common?
A) They are all diploid.
B) They are all haploid.
C) They are present in vascular plants only.
D) They are all produced by meiosis.
E) They are all triploid.
Q3) The mature male gametophyte is indicated by the letter ____.
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
Q4) stamen
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Chapter 30: Communication Strategies in Plants
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Q1) Synthetic auxin can be used as a(n) ____.
A) pesticide
B) herbicide
C) fungicide
D) insecticide
E) bacteriocide
Q2) If a shoot's tip breaks off, its source of auxin disappears, so the __________ level rises in the stem.
Q3) A directional adjustment of growth in response to environmental stimuli is called
A) circadian rhythm
B) vernalization
C) photoperiodism
D) statolith
E) tropism
Q4) A(n) __________ is an extracellular signaling molecule that exerts its effect at very low concentrations.
Q5) __________ refers to an organism's response to changes in the length of day relative to night.
Q6) Explain what occurs when a plant exhibits heliotropism.
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Chapter 31: Animal Tissues
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Q1) The integration of body functions is controlled by the ____.
A) respiratory system only
B) nervous system only
C) endocrine system only
D) immune system only
E) nervous system and the endocrine system
Q2) Which tissue lines the gut?
A) A
B) B
C) C
Q3) The bracket indicated by the letter "A" in the accompanying figure is ____.
A) the epidermis
B) a sweat gland
C) the dermis
D) the hypodermis
E) a hair follicle
Q4) ____________________ are open channels that connect the cytoplasm of abutting cells and permit rapid transfer of ions and small molecules between them.
Q5) If you sweat, are you losing extracellular fluid or intracellular fluid?
Q6) blood vessels
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Chapter 32: Neural Control
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Q1) The transporter indicated by the letter "A" in the above figure represents a(n) ____.
A) active Br transporter
B) sodium-potassium cotransporter
C) passive potassium transporter
D) calcium-phosphorus transporter
E) sodium-calcium transporter
Q2) __________ neurons detect stimulI.86.__________ relay signals between neurons.
Q3) An action potential can best be described as a _____.
A) trigger zone
B) kinetic activity
C) brief reversal in the polarity of the electric gradient across the plasma membrane
D) peak of energy that does not resolve to its former state
E) brief increase in the polarity of the electric gradient across the plasma membrane
Q4) decreases adrenal gland secretions
A)parasympathetic
B)sympathetic
Q5) An action potential is a brief reversal of the __________ potential.
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Chapter 33: Sensory Perception
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Q1) The __________ sensations arise from sensory receptors located in skin, or near muscles or joints.
Q2) Eyes contain ____
A) chemoreceptors
B) mechanoreceptors
C) photoreceptors
D) nociceptors
E) thermoreceptors
Q3) The somatic senses include four of the following sensations. Which one is the exception?
A) balance
B) pain near the body surface
C) temperature
D) touch
E) pressure
Q4) Receptors on the tongue detect variations in this kind of signal.
A)chemical
B)mechanical
C)thermal
D)nociceptor
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Chapter 34: Endocrine Control
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Q1) adrenal medulla
A)secretes one hormone that increases the metabolic rate and another that inhibits calcium release from bone storage sites
B)secrete insulin and glucagon
C)secretes hormones that prepare accessory reproductive structures for reproduction
D)involved in lymphocyte maturation
E)secretes tropic hormones, growth hormone, and prolactin
F)secretes mineralocorticoids and glucocorticoids
G)secretes melatonin
H)two-lobed structure adjacent to the hypothalamus
I)releases oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone into bloodstream
J)secretes a hormone that promotes calcium release from bone storage sites
K)produces oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone
L)secretes epinephrine and norepinephrine
M)secrete pheromones, milk, tears, sweat, and mucus
Q2) parathyroid gland
Q3) __________ and _________ are released by neurons of the adrenal medulla and cause a fight-flight response.
Q4) hypothalamus
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Chapter 35: Structural Support and Movement
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Q1) When a person dies, the body often experiences rigor mortis. In this condition, it is as if the muscles have become inflexible and it is very difficult to manipulate the joints. Why does this occur?
Q2) This bone is not part of the appendicular skeleton.
A)fibrous joint
B)cartilaginous joint
C)synovial joint
Q3) Action potentials traveling down the plasma membrane of a muscle fiber will next reach the _____ after leaving the T tubules.
A) mitochondria
B) neuromuscular junction
C) cytoskeletal system
D) sarcoplasmic reticulum
E) endomembrane system
Q4) This bone transfers force from the arms to the axial skeleton.
A)fibrous joint
B)cartilaginous joint
C)synovial joint
Q5) Some bones have __________ that makes blood cells.
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Chapter 36: Circulation
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Q1) Oxygen is transported throughout the body by this blood component.
A)right atrium
B)left atrium
C)left ventricle
D)right ventricle
Q2) An individual has an issue with their red blood cells. Are they most likely to have an issue with their immunity, oxygen transport, or hemostasis? Explain your answer.
Q3) In an open circulatory system, the fluid pumped is called ____.
A) hemoglobin
B) lymphatic fluid
C) hemolymph
D) blood
E) capillary fluid
Q4) This blood component engulfs bacteria and cellular debris.
A)right atrium
B)left atrium
C)left ventricle
D)right ventricle
Q5) __________ is mostly water in which diverse ions and molecules are dissolved.
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Chapter 37: Immunity
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Q1) The exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide occurs in the human lungs in the ____.
A) bronchi
B) alveoli
C) bronchioles
D) trachea
E) glottis
Q2) An antigen-bearing pathogen that breaches normal flora surface barriers triggers __________ immunity.
A)antigens
B)antibodies
C)helper T cells
D)cytotoxic T cells
E)effector B cells
Q3) Inflammation begins when mast cells in tissue release __________, which increases blood flow and also makes capillaries leaky to phagocytes and plasma proteins.
Q4) An individual is exposed to a pathogen and takes five days to recover. When exposed a year later they again take five days to recover. Would you suspect that adaptive immunity was involved? Why or why not?
Q5) __________ refers to processes designed to induce immunity.
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Chapter 38: Respiration
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Q1) alveoli
A) flexible windpipe reinforced with cartilage
B) surrounds each lung
C) oxygen-rich form of a respiratory protein
D) contains two true vocal cords
E) with the diaphragm, alter chest cavity volume
F) part of the brainstem; controls breathing
G) throat passage behind the mouth
H) inhalation and exhalation
I) connect trachea to lungs
J) flaplike structure that points upward allowing air to enter trachea, but blocks the larynx during swallowing
K) contraction increases thoracic volume
L) microscopically small pockets lined with moist epithelium
Q2) A factor associated with SIDS is ____.
A) sleep apnea
B) lung cancer
C) high altitude sickness
D) low red blood cell count
E) TB
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Chapter 39: Digestion and Nutrition
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Q1) amylase
A)made in the small intestine and pancreas; act on peptide fragments
B)glucose, fructose, and galactose are examples
C)made in the pancreas; acts on fats
D)made by the pancreas and salivary glands; acts on starch
E)made by the small intestine; acts on two-unit sugars
F)made by the pancreas; acts on proteins and polypeptides
G)contains cholesterol; helps emulsify fats
H)made in the stomach; acts on proteins
I)stimulates hydrochloric acid secretion
J)circular muscle; acts like valve
Q2) If you are seeking to maintain a healthy weight, should you be concerned about carbohydrate, fat or protein intake?
Q3) Bile salts, bile pigments, cholesterol, and lecithin are stored by this organ.
A)stomach
B)gallbladder
C)small intestine
D)appendix
E)large intestine
Q4) small intestine
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Chapter 40: Maintaining the Internal Environment
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Q1) Sodium ions are actively transported out from this region.
A)Bowman's capsule
B)proximal tubule
C)descending portion of loop of Henle
D)distal tubule
Q2) Blood flows from the peritubular capillaries to the structure indicated by the letter
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
Q3) Kidney problems can arise from ____.
A) viral infections
B) gall stones
C) arsenic or lead poisoning
D) low protein diets
E) high protein diets
Q4) Chart the path of urine from the blood to the outside of the body.
Q5) __________ such as reptiles control core temperature mainly by behavior.
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Chapter 41: Animal Reproductive Systems
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Q1) The cervix is attached to the ____.
A) labium minor
B) ovary
C) clitoris
D) oviduct
E) vagina
Q2) vas deferens
Q3) This cell contains a full haploid set of chromosomes but will never be fertilized.
A)oogonium
B)primary oocyte
C)secondary oocyte
D)polar body
E)corpus luteum
Q4) Ovulation is indicated by the letter ____.
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
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Chapter 42: Animal Development
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Q1) gastrulation
A)somites
B)blastomeres
C)ectoderm
D)mesoderm
E)endoderm
Q2) A woman has discovered she is pregnant. What should she avoid to reduce the risk of injuring the fetus or having a miscarriage?
Q3) Which of the following may contribute to pregnancy problems?
A) taking naps
B) being active
C) being over 30
D) having dietary deficiencies
E) having limited protein intake
Q4) Without _____, humans might have a tail.
A) differentiation
B) epigenetics
C) cell migrations
D) apoptosis
E) the maternal gene effect
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Chapter 43: Animal Behavior
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Sample Questions
Q1) The sex pheromone emitted by a female gypsy moth relies upon this sense in the male.
A)tactile
B)auditory
C)visual
D)chemical
Q2) Habituation can best be described as a form of _____.
A) fixed action
B) learned behavior
C) stereotyping
D) instinctual response
E) observational learning
Q3) Imprinting _____.
A) is governed more by environment than genetics
B) cannot be associated with learning
C) can only occur during a short interval in the life of an animal
D) must occurs over one's entire lifetime
E) is constantly being done and undone
Q4) A behavior that has a genetic basis is subject to evolution by __________.
Q5) __________ behavior is altered by experience.
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